Written mock 2

Question 1

1 What volume of 2% potassium permanganate solution is required in order to provide
200ml of 75mg/5ml potassium permanganate solution?
A 15ml
B 30ml
C 150ml
D 1500ml
E 450ml

Question 2

In which schedule of the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and
Poisons would you find codeine tablets 30mg?
A Schedule 2
B Schedule 3
C Schedule 4
D Schedule 8
E Unscheduled

Question 3

Substances, the safe use of which requires professional advice, but which should be
available to the public from a pharmacist without a prescription” is the general
description statement for which ONE of the following Poisons Schedules?
A Schedule 2
B Schedule 3
C Schedule 4
D Schedule 5
E Schedule 6

Question 4

What does Regulation 24 of the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS) refer to?
A No requirement for a patient co-payment
B Application to patients with specific medical conditions only
C Supply of original and all of the repeats to be supplied at the one time
D Application to patients from a remote area where access to PBS supplies is
limited
E Increasing the maximum quantity or number of repeats of a prescription

Question 5

A prescription item designated as an unrestricted PBS benefit item is BEST described
as a medication:
A That has no PBS determinations on its therapeutic use
B With a low therapeutic index, which requires close monitoring
C That can only be prescribed on the PBS for specific therapeutic uses
D That is restricted and requires prior approval from the Medicare Australia or the
Department of Veterans Affairs for a specific condition
E With a high chance of adverse events, which requires the prescriber to
consider carefully the risk benefit ratio for each specific patient

Question 6

According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons, what
medicine is classified in Schedule 4?
A Prescription only medicine
B Pharmacist only medicine
C Controlled drug
D Pharmacy medicine
E Dangerous poison

Question 7

According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons, what
medicine is classified in Schedule 4?
A Prescription only medicine
B Pharmacist only medicine
C Controlled drug
D Pharmacy medicine
E Dangerous poison

Question 8

What weight of potassium permanganate is required to produce 200 mL of solution
such that 50 mL of this solution diluted to 200 mL will produce a 1 in 400 solution?
A 0.2 g
B 0.4 g
C 1 g
D 2 g
E 4 g

Question 9

An adult patient is stabilised on 0.2g twice a day of an oral medicine. What is the
intravenous dose of the same medicine where the IV equivalent dose is 30% of the
total daily oral dose?
A 1300mcg/hour
B 5000mcg/hour
C 6600mcg/hour
D 2750mcg/hour
E 500mcg/hour

Question 10

An 8 year old child (weight 25 kg) has been diagnosed with meningitis. She has been
prescribed dexamethasone at a dose of 0.6 mg/kg/day in four divided doses, for two
days. What is the total DAILY dose of dexamethasone prescribed?
A 6 mg
B 15 mg
C 25 mg
D 30 mg
E 90 mg

Question 11

A baby (weighing 3.75kg) requires frusemide at 1.6mg/kg/day for 30 days. You have
several 30mL bottles of frusemide solution (10mg/mL) in stock. What is the required
total daily dose of frusemide solution?
A 0.6 mL
B 3.0 mL
C 4.8 mL
D 6.0 mL
E 18 mL

Question 12

ZINC AND CASTOR OIL OINTMENT
Zinc oxide 7.5g
Castor oil 50.0g
Cetostearyl alcohol 2.0g
White beeswax 10.0g
Arachis oil 30.5g
The wt/mL of castor oil is 0.95 g.
The volume of castor oil required to make 500 g of this ointment is
A 210mL
B 225mL
C 237mL
D 250ml
E 263mL

Question 13

A patient (height 1.7 m, weight 69 kg) is being treated for Hodgkin’s disease with
dacarbazine 210 mg/m2 on day 1 and day 15 of each 28 day cycle. What dose of
dacarbazine is administered on day 15 of the cycle?
A 208 mg
B 379 mg
C 675 mg
D 1219 mg
E 1350 mg

Question 14

According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons, what
classification does cyproheptadine hydrochloride 4mg (50) tablets belong to?
A Prescription only medicine
B Pharmacist only medicine
C Unscheduled
D Pharmacy medicine
E Controlled drug

Question 15

Where can items to be recorded on Prescription Record Forms (PRFs) be recorded?
A Community pharmacies and approved hospitals
B Community pharmacies only
C Medical clinics and community pharmacies
D Approved hospitals and medical clinics
E Community pharmacies and community health centres

Question 16

Buprenorphine is classified in Schedule 8 in the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling
of Medicines and Poisons. What sort of medicine is Buprenorphine?
A Prescription only medicine
B Pharmacist only medicine
C Controlled drug
D Pharmacy medicine
E Dangerous poison

Question 17

What is the specific antidote for dabigatran?
A Protamine sulfate
B Vitamin K
C Antifactor Xa
D Vitamin E
E There is no specific antidote

Question 18

Patients with chronic pain are occasionally enrolled in double blind analgesic infusion
studies at pain clinics. The studies involve the infusion of a pseudorandom, equi-
volumetric sequence of normal saline, lignocaine, thiopentone and fentanyl. The effect
on the pain score for each of these agents is reported by the patient. The patient is
unaware of the sequence.
Why is lignocaine included in these studies?
A It causes a diffuse pain state
B It acts as a ‘truth serum’
C A response suggests neuropathic pain
D It causes euphoria similar to opioids
E A response suggests opioid-resistant pain

Question 19

When administered intravenously, which of the following medications should only be
given by infusion?
A Ceftazidime
B Hydrocortisone
C Vancomycin
D Metoclopramide
E Adenosine

Question 20

When administered intravenously, which of the following medications should only be
given by infusion?
A Ceftazidime
B Hydrocortisone
C Vancomycin
D Metoclopramide
E Adenosine

Question 21

A patient is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following
recommendations should you give them?
A Take 10mg of folic acid daily to prevent side effects
B Start intramuscular or subcutaneous therapy
C Continue the medication for at least 6 months to determine response
D Have renal and liver function checked every 6 months during therapy
E Avoid excessive or prolonged sun exposure

Question 22

Children experience different Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) to adults. Which of the
following statements regarding ADRs in children is INCORRECT?
A Severe skin reactions with lamotrigine are more frequently seen in children
than in adults
B There is a risk of tooth discolouration with tetracyclines used in children aged
up to 8 years of age
C Aspirin should not be used routinely in children because of the risk of
Kawasaki’s disease
D Quinolones should be used with caution in children because of the risk of
arthropathies
E Valproate hepatotoxicity is seen most frequently in children less than 3 years
of age

Question 23

When used to treat congestive heart failure (CHF), frusemide
A Must be used with digoxin for optimal effect
B Should be combined with an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor or an
angiotensin II receptor antagonist
C Can only be used if spironolactone is also prescribed
D Is not as effective as a thiazide
E Must be given with supplemental potassium

Question 24

Which one of the following medications is the MOST appropriate for the treatment of
trigeminal neuralgia?
A Tramadol
B Carbamazepine
C Morphine SR
D Indomethacin
E Paracetamol/codeine

Question 25

A female customer has been taking digoxin for an extended period. She presents to
your pharmacy with a prescription for herself that is a 10 day course of roxithromycin
tablets. What is the MOST appropriate action to take?
A Dispense the prescription and counsel her on the use of her antibiotics over
the next 10 days
B Consult her general practitioner to advise that roxithromycin may decrease
digoxin levels
C Advise her to contact her general practitioner immediately, should she
experience symptoms of digoxin toxicity
D Consult her general practitioner to advise that the combination should be
avoided due to a significant drug interaction
E Advise her to take the medications separately to reduce the likelihood of
potential drug interaction

Question 26

Which of the following combinations of pharmacological effects would be produced by
timolol?
A Inotropic, positive chronotrope
B Not cardiovascular selective, positive chronotrope
C Cardiovascular selective, positive chronotrope
D Not cardiovascular selective, negative chronotrope
E Cardiovascular selective, negative chronotrope

Question 27

A 25 year old female customer presents you with a prescription for levocabastine eye
drops 0.05% 1 drop twice daily for seasonal allergic conjunctivitis. Which of the
following advice is INCORRECT?
A Use the drops regularly, as it may take several days for symptom relief
B You may feel drowsy and the effects of alcohol may be increased
C The drops are proven to be safe to use during pregnancy
D Side effects may include stinging, mild eye irritation and headache
E The frequency of use may be increased to three to four times daily if necessary

Question 28

A male patient, aged 59 years, presents a prescription for sotalol 80 mg tablets, with a
dose of 160 mg daily. He has never taken sotalol before. How should you advise him
to take this medication?
A Once a day without regard to meals
B Twice a day on an empty stomach
C Once a day on an empty stomach
D Twice a day with or immediately after food
E Once a day at bedtime

Question 29

With which of the following medications is it MOST important to maintain a high fluid
intake?
A Spironolactone
B Indapamide
C Norfloxacin
D Cephalexin
E Frusemide

Question 30

The refrigerator in the pharmacy that is used for storage of pharmaceutical products
should be kept at a temperature of
A 0-3 o
C
B 2-8 o
C
C 5-10 o
C
D 6-12 o
C
E Minus 3-8 o
C

Question 31

A frail female customer presents with a repeat prescription for verapamil sustained
release 240 mg tablets - half a tablet to be taken twice daily. She also presents a new
prescription for erythromycin 250 mg qid (to treat a chest infection).
What is the MOST appropriate recommendation to make to the prescriber?
A Change the antibiotic to ciprofloxacin, because it is the medication of choice for
upper respiratory tract infection
B Change the antibiotic to doxycycline, because it is the medication of choice for
community- acquired pneumonia
C Increase the erythromycin to 500 mg qid, because verapamil increases the
metabolism of erythromycin
D Change to another antibiotic because erythromycin could lead to increased
plasma concentration of verapamil in this patien

Question 32

You make the following ointment for a female patient who has psoriasis
Coal Tar Solution 8 %
Dithranol 0.25 %
Yellow Soft Paraffin to 100 g
The patient has not had this preparation before. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
A Erythema may occur
B Ointment may stain the skin and hair
C Ointment may stain bed linen and clothing
D Avoid contact with the eyes and any broken skin
E Improvement of condition can be expected within a few days, if used regularly

Question 33

With which of the following medications is it recommended that alcohol consumption
be avoided?
A Digoxin
B Ramipril
C Sulphasalazine
D Lorazepam
E Aspirin

Question 34

A patient comes into the pharmacy with a prescription for rifampicin 600mg. Looking
through her profile you see she is on an oral contraceptive. Which of the following is
MOST appropriate advice for this patient?
A Use a second method of oral contraception during treatment and for 4 weeks
after the last dose
B Skip any inactive tablets in the present pack and then proceed to the active
tablets in a new pack
C Use a second method of contraception and continue this until 7 days after
completion of the course of rifampicin
D A typical course of rifampicin does not affect oral contraception
E A second method of contraception will only be required if the rifampicin causes
breakthrough bleeding

Question 35

A regular patient returns to the pharmacy complaining that her fluticasone inhaler
dispensed last week isn’t providing improvement of her asthma symptoms. What
would be the BEST course of action?
A Contact the doctor and suggest a change to fluticasone/salmeterol inhaler
B Suggest she continues the medication, but refer her to her doctor
C Suggest she takes an antihistamine in addition to fluticasone and see her
doctor if she has no relief in three to four days
D Check her inhaler technique, advise her to continue treatment and see her
doctor if there is no improvement
E Recommend she commences regular salbutamol with a spacer and see her
doctor in two days if no relief

Question 36

A patient has heartburn. After questioning him, which one of the following factors
would NOT necessitate a referral to a doctor?
A Sudden weight loss
B Blood in stools
C Difficulty swallowing
D Bloating and reflux
E History of taking NSAI

Question 37

Which one of the following conditions has NOT been traditionally treated by Gingko?
A Vertigo
B Memory loss
C Poor concentration
D Bloating
E Chilblains

Question 38

A patient with diverticular disease is instructed to take a laxative. Which of the
following should you recommend?
A Senna tablets
B Sodium picosulfate drops
C Glycerol suppositories
D Ispaghula husk sachets
E Bisacodyl tablets

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of head lice?
A Itch, especially toward back of neck
B Blotchy flat, red rash behind ears and on face
C Tiny dark lice on scalp
D White specks stuck to base of hair shaft
E White specks spread throughout hair

Question 40

Which one of the following factors is LEAST likely to precipitate the onset of herpes
labialis?
A Common cold
B Sun exposure
C Trauma to the lips
D Dental decay
E Immunosuppression

Question 41

Which one of the following conditions is LEAST likely to cause rectal bleeding?
A Haemorrhoids
B Crohn’s disease
C Colorectal cancer
D Anal fissure
E Irritable bowel syndrome

Question 42

Patient Name: John Ascot
Address: Room Number 48
Age: 68 Height: 168cm
Sex: Male Weight: 78kg
Allergies: Sticking plaster
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Shortness of breath
2. Fainting
Medical History: 1. Heart failure
2. Asthma
3. Hypertension
4. Gout
5. Depression
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
10/11 K
+
=3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L)
30/10 Cr=0.11 mmol/L (0.05 - 0.12 mmol/L)
30/10 K
+
=3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L)
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
2/11 Frusemide 40mg 100 ii daily
30/10 Amlodipine 10mg 30 i mane
30/10 Beclomethasone 100mcg/dose mdi ii bd
30/10 Fluoxetine 20 mg 28 i daily
30/10 Frusemide 40mg 100 i mane
30/10 Perindopril 4mg 30 i daily
30/10 Potassium Slow Release 600 mg 100 ii daily
30/10 Salbutamol 5mg/2.5mL 60 i prn neb
30/10 Simvastatin 40 mg 30 i nocte

Which one of the following combinations of medications is treating the patient’s heart
failure?
A Perindopril and amlodipine
B Amlodipine, frusemide and perindopril
C Perindopril and frusemide
D Simvastatin and perindopril
E Simvastatin, perindopril and amlodipine

Question 43

If the patient had an acute attack of gout while in hospital, which one of the following
would be the MOST appropriate medication?
A Allopurinol
B Paracetamol
C Colchicine
D Aspirin
E Indomethacin

Question 44

While in hospital the patient acquires infective endocarditis, with positive blood
cultures for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following
antibiotics would be the MOST effective?
A Cefoxitin
B Ticarcillin/clavulanic acid
C Vancomycin
D Flucloxacillin
E Cefotaxime

Question 45

The patient’s potassium levels are found to be low. Which one of the following
combinations of medication is MOST likely to be the cause?
A Simvastatin and perindopril
B Perindopril and frusemide
C Salbutamol and amlodipine
D Frusemide and salbutamol
E Amlodipine and simvastatin

Question 46

Which one of the following is NOT an adverse effect normally associated with
fluoxetine?
A Anxiety
B Insomnia
C Sexual dysfunction
D Weight loss
E Urinary retention

Question 47

PATIENT PROFILE
Patient Name: Veronica Shallay
Address: 66 Wilkes Street, Sherbrooke VIC
3804
Age: 17 Height: 160cm
Sex: Female Weight: 54kg
Allergies: Nil Known
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Severe acne with scarring
Medical History:
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
3/6 Isotretinoin 20 mg 60 ii daily
Pharmacist’s Notes
3/6

The patient has been to a dermatologist for review.When counselling this patient, you should emphasise that pregnancy must be avoided
whilst on isotretinoin and for what period of time afterwards?
A 14 days
B 30 days
C 60 days
D Three months
E Six months

Question 48

Side effects of oral isotretinoin include all of the following EXCEPT
A Dry eyes
B Photosensitivity
C Mood changes
D Dry skin
E Skin atrophy

Question 49

Which of the following regarding this patient’s acne is NOT appropriate advice?
A Avoid oil-based makeup
B Avoid topical anti-acne preparations
C The skin should be exfoliated twice daily
D Acne may be due to changes in hormonal levels
E Do not squeeze pustules as this can worsen scarring

Question 50

PATIENT PROFILE
Patient Name: Irene Trotter
Address: 45 Laurel Lane, Madison
Age: 55 Height: 170cm
Sex: Female Weight: 65kg
Allergies: Sulfonamides
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Regular check-up with general practitioner
Medical History: 1. Glaucoma
2. Asthma
3. Heart failure
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
18/8 Dorzolamide eye drops 2 % 5 ml i tds
20/7 Budesonide 400 mcg 1 ii bd
16/7 Timolol 0.25 % eye drops 5 mL i bd
20/1 Beclomethasone MDI 100mcg/actuation 1 i bd
20/1 Enalapril 20 mg 30 i mane
20/1 Pilocarpine 2 % Eye Drops 5 mL i qid
20/1 Salbutamol MDI 100mcg/actuation 2 i-ii prn
Pharmacist’s Notes
20/7 Budesonide replaced beclomethasone inhaler due to worsening asthma.
18/7 Timolol eye drops ceased.
16/7 Timolol commenced.
9/7 Pilocarpine ceased due to severe stinging

Which one of the following is the LEAST appropriate for the treatment of Mrs Trotter’s
open angle glaucoma?
A Travoprost
B Pilocarpine
C Latanoprost
D Brimonidine
E Bimatoprost

Question 51

Mrs Trotter was transferred from pilocarpine to timolol. Which of the following
statements is CORRECT? Timolol causes:
A Miosis
B Tachycardia
C Less bronchospasm than betaxolol
D Bradycardia
E Mydriasis

Question 52

Dorzolamide is contraindicated for glaucoma in patients with:
A Reversible airways disease
B A heart-rate less than 50 beats per minute
C Severe iritis
D Severe allergy to co-trimoxazole
E Depression

Question 53

PATIENT PROFILE
Patient Name: Valma King
Address: 14 King Street, Sandy Bay
Age: 56 Height: 162cm
Sex: Female Weight: 60kg
Allergies: Nil known
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Peripheral oedema.
2. Increasing frequency of seizure
Medical History: 1. Epilepsy
2. Hypertension
3. Osteoarthritis
4. Depression
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
7/10 Amoxycillin 500 mg 20 i tds
7/10 Fluoxetine 20mg 28 i nocte
10/7 Frusemide 40mg 100 i mane
10/5 Indomethacin 25 mg 100 i bd
10/5 Lercanidipine 20mg 30 i daily
10/5 Phenytoin 100 mg 200 i tds
Pharmacist’s Notes
07/10 Respiratory infection

Which medication is MOST likely to worsen Mrs King’s hypertension control?
A Amoxycillin
B Frusemide
C Fluoxetine
D Phenytoin
E Indomethacin

Question 54

Which ONE of the following medications is MOST likely causing Mrs King’s legs to
swell?
A Phenytoin
B Lercanidipine
C Fluoxetine
D Frusemide
E Indomethacin

Question 55

Following a change in the dose of phenytoin, how much time should be allowed to
elapse before measuring steady state phenytoin levels again?
A Twenty-four hours
B Two days
C One week
D Three weeks
E One month

Question 56

PATIENT PROFILE
Patient Name: Mr Ahmed Hallad
Address: 142 Sydney Road, Brunswick
Age: 65 Height: 165cm
Sex: Male Weight: 60kg
Allergies: Penicillin (rash)
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Shingles (herpes zoster)
Medical History: 1. Hypertension
2. High cholesterol
3. Transient ischaemic attacks
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
18/2 Aspirin 100 mg 100 i nocte
18/2 Pravastatin 40mg 30 i nocte
18/2 Ramipril 10mg 30 i nocte
Pharmacist’s Notes
18/2 Has been taking aspirin, pravastatin and ramipril for more than 5 years.
Has had compliance problems – prefers to take the least number of tablets and
all of his tablets at once if possible.

Herpes zoster can respond to antiviral therapy if therapy is begun within which of the
following time frames (of onset of symptoms)?
A 12 hours
B 24 hours
C 48 hours
D 72 hours
E One week

Question 57

Which of the following medications would be the MOST suitable option to treat Mr
Hallad’s shingles?
A Famciclovir
B Cephalexin
C Aciclovir
D Amoxycillin
E Ritonavir

Question 58

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate topical agent in this instance?
A Capsaicin cream
B A moisturiser
C Aqueous cream
D 0.5% hydrocortisone cream
E A hydrogel

Question 59

Post-herpetic neuralgia is a painful condition that can occur after an attack of shingles.
Which of the following preparations is NOT used in the treatment of post-herpetic
neuralgia?
A Lignocaine 5% applied topically
B Gabapentin
C Carbamazepine
D Phenelzine
E Amitriptyline

Question 60

Mr Hallad should be encouraged to be immunised against influenza and
pneumococcal disease. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Mr Hallad
A Should receive both the pneumococcal conjugate and the polyvalent vaccines
B Can be immunised against influenza and pneumococcal by having the
vaccines administered on the same day
C Should be re-vaccinated yearly for the influenza vaccine, to match the current
circulating virus
D May experience pain at the injection site and ‘flu-like’ sympt

Question 61

PATIENT PROFILE
Patient Name: Charles Xue
Address: 5 Agapanthus Lane, Wittaker
Age: 63 Height: 180cm
Sex: Male Weight: 70kg
Allergies: Nil known
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Lung cancer
Medical History: 1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
10/11 Morpine sulfate SR 30mg 20 i bd
3/11 Morphine Mixture 5mg/mL 200mL 3ml qid
3/11 Prednisolone 5mg 30 i daily
3/11 Salbutamol 5mg/2.5mL 60 i qid
3/11 Tiotropium 18mcg 30 i daily
Pharmacist’s Notes
10/11 Palliative care
10/11 Patient to incorporate sustained release morphine therapy and cease existing
morphine sulfate mixture.

Mr Xue presents with an initial prescription for sustained release morphine and asks
your advice about when to start it. You should advise him to commence the first dose
A With the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take the tablets 12 hourly ie
8am, 8pm
B 4 hours after the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take the tablets 12
hourly ie 8am, 8pm
C 8 hours after the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take the tablets
twice a day when you get up and when you go to bed
D 4 hours after the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take subsequent
doses when in pain

Question 62

Given the current dose of slow release morphine, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate dose of morphine mixture for breakthrough pain?
A 0.4 to 0.8 mL
B 1 to 2 mL
C 3 to 4 mL
D 4 to 5 mL
E 6 to 8 mL

Question 63

Mrs Xue states that her husband is constipated. He has been taking psyllium
regularly but it doesn’t seem to help. Which of the following would be the laxative
regimen of choice?
A Liquid paraffin emulsion 45ml at night and increase the psyllium
B Docusate and sennosides 1-2 tablets twice daily and maintain the psyllium
C 1 micro-enema and cease the psyllium
D Bisacodyl suppositories (2 at night) and cease the psyllium
E Glycerin adult suppositories

Question 64

When prescribing morphine therapy for Mr Xue, all of the following are important
considerations EXCEPT
A Attention to appropriate aperients (laxatives)
B Attention to appropriate anti-emetics
C Ensuring the dose is effective
D Ensuring adequate supplies of medication
E Ensuring dose does not exceed recommended maximum

Question 65

PATIENT PROFILE
Patient Name: Bob Roberts
Address: Room Number 78 Fairview
Nursing Home
Age: 90 Height: 183cm
Sex: Male Weight: 55kg
Allergies: Nil known
Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Painful knee
2. Immobility
3. Falls
Medical History: 1. Constipation
2. Gastrointestinal reflux
3. Prostatic hypertrophy
4. Mild dementia
Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests
Date Test Reference Range
14/10 BP 130/90 sitting 100/90 standing
14/10 Serum creatinine 0.11mmol/L (0.05 - 0.12mmol/L)
Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
14/10 Fluoxetine 20mg 28 ½ mane
14/10 Risperidone 1mg 60 i nocte
5/9 Allopurinol 300mg 60 i nocte
5/9 Tamsulosin 0.4mg 28 i daily
6/3 Lactulose 0.67g/mL 500mL 15mL nocte
6/3 Naproxen Oral liquid 25mg/mL 474mL 20mL bd
6/3 Ranitidine 150mg 30 bd
Pharmacist’s Notes
20/10 Recommend naproxen be discontinued and replaced with paracetamol 500mg
ii q 6 hours

Which of Mr Roberts’ medications has been associated with an increase in the
incidence of cerebral strokes?
A Risperidone
B Fluoxetine
C Allopurinol
D Ranitidine
E Tamsulosin

Question 66

Which of the following medications is MOST likely to have contributed to Mr Roberts’
postural hypotension?
A Risperidone
B Allopurinol
C Naproxen
D Lactulose
E Ranitidine

Question 67

Which of the following medications is MOST likely to cause skin rash in this patient?
A Tamsulosin
B Naproxen
C Risperidone
D Fluoxetine
E Allopurinol

Question 68

Which of the following daily doses of allopurinol should you recommend to Mr Roberts’
doctor, as appropriate to use in this patient?
A 100mg
B 300mg
C 400mg
D 500mg