Written Mock 1 Flashcards by Aidyl XXX

Q

Prochlorperazine is available over the counter as a Pharmacist Only Medicine. It is only approved to
be supplied for which ONE of the following symptoms?
A Nausea associated with gastro-enteritis
B Nausea associated with migraine
C Nausea associated with motion sickness
D Nausea associated with pregnancy

A

B Nausea associated with migraine

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Q

Certain pharmaceutical benefits are provided without charge to prescribers (in prescriber bag
supplies), who in turn can supply them free to patients for emergency use.
Which ONE of the following medicines fits this category?
A Dopamine
B Ondansetron
C Dexamethasone
D Dicloxacillin

A

C Dexamethasone

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Q

A customer comes into your pharmacy and asks you to identify a white tablet, which he shows you.
Upon questioning him, he advises that he found it at his personal assistant’s workstation.
Which ONE of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for you to take?
A Identify the tablet, if possible, and inform the customer about the medication
B Inform the customer that you are not able to provide any information and advise him
to discuss the matter with his assistant
C Request further information regarding his assistant’s medical history and general behaviour,
before discussing the medication further
D Suggest that you are unable to properly identify the tablet, to remove yourself from
the situation

A

B Inform the customer that you are not able to provide any information and advise him

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Q

Which ONE of the following reference text would be considered to have the MOST authority when
deciding which medications require labelling with a sedation warning?
A The Australian Medicines Handbook (AMH)
B The Australian Pharmaceutical Formulary (APF)
C The Schedule of Pharmaceutical Benefits (PBS)
D The Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons (SUSMP)

A

D The Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons (SUSMP)

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Q

Which ONE of the following statements is NOT a purpose where PBS authorities are required for
medicines?
A PBS authorities are required where there is an increased quantity of medicine needed
B PBS authorities are required where there is an increased number of repeats needed
C PBS authorities are required where access to the medicine is restricted to certain approved
doctors to prescribe
D PBS authorities are required where concerns exist about effects on patients of varying genetic
heritage

A

D PBS authorities are required where concerns exist about effects on patients of varying genetic
heritage

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Q

Which ONE of the following statements best describes a Pharmaceutical Benefits (PBS) authority
prescription medication?
A The medication has no PBS restriction on its therapeutic use
B The medication has a low therapeutic index, which requires close monitoring
C The medication has a high chance of adverse events, which requires the prescriber to consider
carefully the risk benefit ratio for each specific patient
D The medication has restrictions and requires approval from Department of Human Services or
the Department of Veterans Affairs for a specific condition

A

D The medication has restrictions and requires approval from Department of Human Services or
the Department of Veterans Affairs for a specific condition

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Q

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the guidelines for pharmacists issuing
medical certificates under the Workplace Relations Act 1996?
A A medical certificate issued by a pharmacist must be accepted as evidence of illness or injury
for the purpose of health and welfare benefit entitlements
B It is recommended that records of the medical certificate be kept for at least 6 months
C A pharmacist may not issue a medical certificate in relation to an illness or injury outside of
their scope of practice
D It is not necessary to conduct a consultation with the ill or injured person, if the medical
certificate is being issued for a carer

A

C A pharmacist may not issue a medical certificate in relation to an illness or injury outside of
their scope of practice

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Q

A patient requests that you allow them to see what information is held about them on
the dispensary computer.

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A A consumer is not allowed to see dispensary information as this may be misinterpreted
by non-health professionals
B A consumer can demand that information held about them be modified if found to be
inaccurate
C A pharmacist can deny access to information if he/she considers the information may be
a threat to the life or health of an individual
D Access may be denied if information about another patient is contained within the same
patient health record

A

A A consumer is not allowed to see dispensary information as this may be misinterpreted
by non-health professionals

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Q

Which ONE of the following beta-blockers would be LEAST likely to cause bronchospasm in
an asthmatic patient at normal doses?
A Carvedilol
B Labetalol
C Bisoprolol
D Propranolol

A

C Bisoprolol

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Q

What is aminophylline used clinically as?
A A bronchodilator
B An enzyme inducer
C A contractility inhibitor
D An enzyme inhibitor

A

A A bronchodilator

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Q

A female customer has been taking isotretinoin for 6 weeks. She is about to go to Indonesia for
3 months and has a prescription for 100 mg doxycycline tablets i daily for malaria prophylaxis.
What should this customer be advised pertaining to her medications?
A Advise her to take the doses of isotretinoin and doxycycline at least 2 hours apart
B Advise her that the use of doxycycline for longer than two months continuously is not
recommended and therefore alternative prophylaxis is required
C Explain that the use of doxycycline with isotretinoin is not recommended and ask her to
discuss alternative malaria prophylaxis with her doctor
D Advise her to stop taking the isotretinoin during her trip, as isotretinoin will interfere with
all drug alternatives for malaria prophylaxis

A

C Explain that the use of doxycycline with isotretinoin is not recommended and ask her to
discuss alternative malaria prophylaxis with her doctor

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Q

Which ONE of the following medications is LEAST likely to cause drug-induced oesophageal
ulceration?
A Alendronate
B Doxycycline
C Metoclopramide
D Potassium chloride

A

C Metoclopramide

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Q

A patient taking a nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) should avoid taking which ONE
of the following medicines concurrently?
A Pseudoephedrine
B Temazepam
C Aspirin
D Paracetamol

A

A Pseudoephedrine

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Q

A person has a recent soft tissue injury and asks for your advice.
Which of the following should you recommend?
A Rest, heat, compression and elevation
B Massage, heat, compression and elevation
C Massage, ice, compression and elevation
D Rest, ice, compression and elevation

A

D Rest, ice, compression and elevation

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Q

The metalwork teacher from the local high school comes into your pharmacy with a student
complaining of a red and painful eye. Upon examination you can see a small piece of metal lodged in
the surface of his eye.
Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate action to take?
A Irrigate the eye under a stream of cool tap water for at least 10 minutes
B Recommend the use of anti-inflammatory eye drops, with the instruction to visit the doctor if
the inflammation persists after 24 hours
C Lie the student down and tell him to keep still, whilst you remove the metal with a clean pair
of forceps
D Close the eye, cover it with a bandage or sterile pad, tell him to keep his head still and arrange
for transport to the nearest hospital

A

D Close the eye, cover it with a bandage or sterile pad, tell him to keep his head still and arrange
for transport to the nearest hospital

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Q

All of the following substances cause hypokalemia EXCEPT:
A Loop diuretic
B Salbutamol
C Beta-blockers
D Intravenous amphotericin

A

C. Beta blockers

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Q

Which ONE of the following side effects might you expect in a patient on atorvastatin?
A Dizziness
B Hypotension
C Hair loss
D Tachycardia

A

A Dizziness

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Q

Of the following, which ONE is the MOST appropriate dose for an initial six weeks’ treatment of
methotrexate, when used for the management of rheumatoid arthritis in adults?
A 5 mg weekly
B 10 mg weekly
C 25 mg weekly
D 25 mg monthly

A

B 10 mg weekly

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Q

A customer who had a kidney transplant 6 months ago is taking ciclosporin regularly to suppress
rejection. He has recently acquired a fungal infection under his toenails. His doctor phones to ask
your advice on treatment of onychomycosis.
Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate medication?
A Fluconazole capsules
B Terbinafine tablets
C Griseofulvin tablets
D Clotrimazole lotion

A

B. Terbinafine tablets

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Q

Which ONE of the following medications is MOST likely to result in a clinically significant interaction
with erythromycin?
A Digoxin
B Warfarin
C Enalapril
D Amitriptyline

A

B. Warfarin

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Q

Which ONE of the following is LEAST likely to cause QT prolongation?
A Haloperidol
B Amiodarone
C Sotalol
D Azithromycin

A

D. Azithromycin

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Q

A 36-year-old female patient telephones your pharmacy and complains of having a sore and swollen
calf muscle, with no apparent reason for the problem. She is on the following medication regimen:
Trimethoprim 300 mg ONE at night
Ethinyloestradiol 30 /
levonorgestrel 150
ONE tablet daily
Omeprazole 20 mg ONE daily
Citalopram 20 mg ONE daily
Naproxen 250 mg ONE every eight hours when required
Which medication is MOST likely associated with her symptoms?
A Trimethoprim
B Ethinyloestradiol / levonorgestrel
C Omeprazole
D Citalopram

A

B Ethinyloestradiol / levonorgestrel

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Q

Which ONE of the following counselling points is MOST appropriate for alendronate?
A Take in the morning 30 minutes before breakfast and remain upright until breakfast.
B Take in the morning with breakfast to avoid stomach upset
C Take at bedtime to avoid possible drowsiness
D Take one hour after a meal

A

A Take in the morning 30 minutes before breakfast and remain upright until breakfast.

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Q

A female customer has recently given birth and is breastfeeding her baby. Her doctor has prescribed
the progesterone only pill and as she has not used this type of pill before, she has a few questions.
Which ONE of the following counselling points would be MOST appropriate for her?
A The drug is not transferred in the milk to the baby
B When commencing the pill it is necessary to use an alternative method of contraception for
seven days
C When breastfeeding ceases it will be necessary to change to the combined contraceptive pill
D It must be taken within 3 hours of the same time each day

A

D It must be taken within 3 hours of the same time each day

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A 45-year-old male patient, stabilised on warfarin at an International Normalised Ratio (INR) of 2.4, has decided to go on a vegetarian diet. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate advice to give him about his diet? A You cannot go on a vegetarian diet whilst on warfarin B Eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables day to day C Take 1 iron tablet a day to maintain iron levels D Increase mushroom intake for protein levels

B Eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables day to day

A vial of insulin currently in use may be stored at up to 25°C without loss of potency for what length of time? A 1 hour B 1 day C 2 weeks D 4 weeks

D. 4 weeks

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT with regards to using glyceryl trinitrate spray for the first time? A Shake before use and discard 3 months after opening; a maximum of 2 sprays under the tongue should be used over 15 minutes B Prime before use and spray under the tongue; a maximum of 5 sprays should be used over 15 minutes C Prime before use and discard 3 months after opening; a maximum dose of 2 sprays under the tongue should be used over 15 minutes D Prime before use and spray under the tongue; a maximum single dose of 2 sprays should be used and if necessary another spray in 5 minutes up to a maximum of 3 sprays

D Prime before use and spray under the tongue; a maximum single dose of 2 sprays should be used and if necessary another spray in 5 minutes up to a maximum of 3 sprays

A customer presents with a new script for felodipine 5 mg daily. Which ONE of the following points should you include in your counselling? A A warning regarding consumption patterns of grapefruit juice B The tablets may be crushed, if difficult to swallow C A warning regarding constipation and the need for a high fibre diet D A warning not to take potassium supplements while taking this medication

A A warning regarding consumption patterns of grapefruit juice

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT with regards to glyceryl trinitrate patches? A Useful in the treatment of unstable angina B Remove and replace every 24 hours C Cut to provide lower doses if necessary D Apply for up to 14 hours/day

D Apply for up to 14 hours/day

Which ONE of the following medications may be taken at night to maximize its concentration in the blood and / or urine? A Trimethoprim B Atorvastatin C Omeprazole D Perindopril

A. Trimethoprim

Which ONE of the following medications is BEST taken half an hour before food? A Metformin B Flucloxacillin C Amoxicillin D Felodipine

B Flucloxacillin

Following a dose of salmeterol, when is the effect maximal? A Instantaneously. B After 10 minutes C After 3 to 4 hours D After 12 hours

C After 3 to 4 hours

A patient requires a 10-day course of a medicine. The dose of medicine is 250 mcg once daily on days 1 to 3 and then 125 mcg once daily on days 4 to 10. The medicine is only available as a 150-mcg dispersible tablet, stable on production for 24 hours. What is the minimum number of dispersible tablets required for the complete 10-day course? A 8 B 10 C 13 D 16

C. 13

How many mL of 90% alcohol, when diluted to 135 mL, produces 60% alcohol? A 60 mL B 73 mL C 81 mL D 90 ml

D.90ml

A child requires a 3-day course of a 5 mg/mL prednisolone solution. The child weighs 23 kg and is to be dosed at 500 microgram/kg per day. What volume of the prednisolone solution is required? A 4.6 mL B 6.9 mL C 13.8 mL D 19.2 mL

B. 6.9ml

A 100 kg patient takes 5 mL of 30 mg/mL ferrous sulphate solution (equivalent to 6 mg/mL of elemental iron) twice a day. What is the total daily dose of elemental iron administered? A 0.6 mg/kg B 3 mg/kg C 6 mg/kg D 30 mg/kg

A 0.6 mg/kg

Clonazepam drops are provided for use in the concentration of 2.5 mg/mL. The prescribed dose for a patient is 0.8 mg per day. Calculate the dose in drops if one drop is 0.04 mL. A 4 drops B 8 drops C 16 drops D 40 drops

B. 8 drops

A medicine is provided as a 1 g powder which, when reconstituted with 9.6 mL of water for injection, provides a solution of 100 mg/mL. The dose of the medicine for a child is 50 mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses. What volume of injection is required for each dose for a 35 kg child? A 1.25 mL B 2.5 mL C 8.75 mL D 12.5 mL

C 8.75 mL

An 80 kg man is being treated for ventricular fibrillation with lidocaine (lignocaine). The protocol for the lidocaine (lignocaine) infusion (using a 5 mg/mL vial) is: Bolus 1 mg/kg per minute for 2 minutes Infusion 4 mg/min for 1 hour then 3 mg/min for 1 hour then 2mg/min for 10 hours What volume of lidocaine (lignocaine) is required for the initial bolus and the first hour of the infusion? A 44 mL B 60 mL C 64 mL D 80 mL

D.80ml

Calculate the total dose of alteplase administered for a 50 kg female based on the following dose regimen: Bolus 15 mg Infusion 0.75 mg/kg over 30 minutes then 0.5 mg/kg over 60 minutes A 16.25 mg B 62.5 mg C 52.5 mg D 77.5 mg

D.77.5mg

Patients on a low-sodium diet often use a salt substitute. What is the typical major ingredient in salt substitutes? A Ammonium chloride B Calcium chloride C Potassium chloride D Potassium iodide

C Potassium chloride

A mother is concerned her child has nits. What should you advise her to look for to confirm this suspicion? A Small winged insects in the child's hair B White eggs and live lice in and on hair shafts close to the scalp C White eggs stuck to the scalp and areas of redness on the scalp D Small insects in the child's hairbrush and on clothing

B White eggs and live lice in and on hair shafts close to the scalp

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to omega-3 fatty acids? A It is advisable for patients with high triglycerides to increase their intake of omega-3 fats B Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) is a plant-based omega-3 source from walnuts, flaxseed and soya beans C Omega-3 fats are considered to be NSAID-sparing agents in the treatment of inflammatory disorders D For patients with coronary heart disease, the recommended daily intake of omega-3 fats is the same as the daily dosage for primary prevention

D For patients with coronary heart disease, the recommended daily intake of omega-3 fats is the same as the daily dosage for primary prevention

In the case of the management of vaginal candidiasis by a pharmacist, which ONE of the following does NOT warrant referral? A Clear vaginal discharge B Abdominal pain C Fever D Diabetes

A Clear vaginal discharge

Which ONE of the following medications requires the MOST caution when treating pregnant women? A Vitamin A B Vitamin B C Vitamin K D Vitamin E

A Vitamin A

Which ONE of the following statements about ginger is LEAST appropriate? A Ginger has been used as an antiemetic adjunct to cancer therapy B Ginger has traditionally been used for colic C Ginger has no known drug interactions D Ginger can cause side effects including heartburn, bloating and flatulence

C Ginger has no known drug interactions

St John's Wort would be MOST suitable for which ONE of the following patients? A 40-year-old male anxious about a house renovation on warfarin for a previous deep vein thrombosis B 20-year-old female anxious about exams and taking the combined oral contraceptive pill C 26-year-old female anxious about starting a new job and taking a multivitamin D 40-year-old female recently diagnosed with breast cancer on multiple medications

C. 26-year-old female anxious about starting a new job and taking a multivitamin

Which ONE of the following anthelmintics is LEAST appropriate for treating threadworm in a child under 5 years of age? A Ivermectin B Albendazole C Mebendazole D Pyrantel embonate

A. Ivermectin

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the use of paracetamol for osteoarthritic pain is LEAST appropriate? A Paracetamol is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate, persistent osteoarthritic pain B Analgesic effects of paracetamol begin approximately 30 minutes after oral administration C Lack of pain control with paracetamol is frequently due to inadequate dosing of paracetamol D Strong evidence suggests that the risk of hepatotoxicity from paracetamol is increased in patients with chronic liver failure

D Strong evidence suggests that the risk of hepatotoxicity from paracetamol is increased in patients with chronic liver failure

With regard to injector pens, when used for the basal-bolus regimen in the control of insulin dependent diabetes which of the following is INCORRECT? Injector pens give A added independence for the visually impaired B the ability to mix different types of insulin together C greater discretion when insulin needs to be used in a public place D increased flexibility to people with irregular lifestyles such as shift workers

B the ability to mix different types of insulin together

When counselling on the use of a topical azoles antifungal cream, you would advise all of the following EXCEPT: A Fungal infections will be eradicated after 5-7 days B It may not be necessary to use the entire tube C Apply at regular intervals every day D Keep area dry and open to the air

A Fungal infections will be eradicated after 5-7 days

Which ONE of the following statements about a Permethrin 5% cream is MOST appropriate? Permethrin 5% cream when used for scabies: A should be applied daily for 1 week B should be left on for 8 hours C should be applied to warm, moist skin D is not safe to use in pregnancy and breastfeeding

B should be left on for 8 hours

During a holiday excursion, a fellow passenger collapses and, when you check his vital signs, there is no breathing or pulse. Which ONE of the following actions would be the MOST appropriate? A Immediately commence expired air resuscitation and continue until the patient can get medical assistance B Apply cardio-pulmonary resuscitation until medical help is available C Insist that the patient is taken immediately to hospital, which is a 1-hour drive away D Administer adrenaline (epinephrine) from the first aid kit because you suspect anaphylactic shock

B Apply cardio-pulmonary resuscitation until medical help is available

An allergy to which ONE of the following requires that further considerations are met in excess of those normally in place for a person wishing to have an influenza vaccination? A Peanuts B Sulfates C Oysters D Eggs

D. Eggs

What is the recommended dose for the treatment of folate deficiency in an adult? A 0.1 mg daily B 0.5 mg daily C 1 mg daily D 5 mg daily

D 5 mg daily

Which ONE of the following statements about whooping cough is INCORRECT? A Whooping cough is caused by the organism Bordetella pertussis B Amoxicillin is the standard first line treatment for whooping cough C Adults may have mild illness experiencing only a persistent cough D Whooping cough is a highly infectious bacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract

B Amoxicillin is the standard first line treatment for whooping cough

Agranulocytosis is MOST commonly associated with which ONE of the following antipsychotics? A Olanzapine B Risperidone C Haloperidol D Clozapine

D. Clozapine

Mrs Jones, a 35-year-old woman, is a regular patient at your pharmacy. She reports pain in her Achilles tendons that appeared 2 days ago. She says that she had gastroenteritis on holiday in Thailand for which she was prescribed: Metronidazole 400 mg tds Ciprofloxacin 500 mg bd Ranitidine 150 mg bd Paracetamol/aspirin/caffeine 250 / 250 / 65 mg tds Mebeverine 135 mg bd Capsules containing lactobacillus Which ONE of these medicines MOST likely caused the pain? A Metronidazole B Ciprofloxacin C Ranitidine D Mebeverine

B. Ciprofloxacin

Which ONE of the following is an expected adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid use? A Hypotension B Easy bruising C Extreme tiredness D Hypoglycaemia

B Easy bruising

When doxycycline is prescribed to travellers for malaria prophylaxis. Which ONE of the following statements regarding doxycycline is LEAST appropriate? A Offers broad protection against malaria B Used in areas where there is mefloquine or chloroquine resistance C Used in patients with low tolerance for mefloquine or chloroquine D Used because dosing can be stopped on leaving an endemic area

D Used because dosing can be stopped on leaving an endemic area

Which ONE of the following beta-blockers has been proven to reduce both morbidity and mortality in patients with left ventricular systolic heart failure? A Atenolol B Propranolol C Carvedilol D Sotalol

C Carvedilol

Which ONE of the following medications is MOST likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction? A Chlorpromazine B Haloperidol C Clozapine D Diazepam

A. Chlorpromazine

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the use of zolpidem is CORRECT? Zolpidem: A Is a benzodiazepine. B Has a long duration of action C Is recommended for use in children D Should be used with caution in patients with hepatic impairment

D Should be used with caution in patients with hepatic impairment

A 25-year-old woman who is 11 weeks pregnant has a free T4 plasma level of 48 picomol/L (reference range: 10 - 25 picomol/L) and TSH of < 0.4 m/U/mL (reference range: 0.4 - 5 m/U/mL). Which of the following statements in CORRECT regarding this scenario? A This patient is likely to have symptoms of lethargy, bradycardia and cold intolerance B Thyroxine is not contraindicated in pregnancy and thus can be used to treat this patient without concern C Propylthiouracil is the preferred therapy for this patient D Plasma levels of iodine decrease during pregnancy as a result of foetal use and increased renal clearance and thus require supplementation

C Propylthiouracil is the preferred therapy for this patient

A regular female customer tells you that she feels a migraine is starting. She asks if her usual treatment is safe for her to use given that she is 8 months pregnant. She has previously used soluble aspirin and metoclopramide which has proven to be effective. What is the MOST appropriate safe advice to treat her migraine? A Aspirin and metoclopramide are safe to use throughout pregnancy B Aspirin should be ceased, as it is not recommended in late pregnancy - the metoclopramide alone should be effective C Aspirin and metoclopramide should be substituted with ibuprofen 2 x 200 mg 3 times a day D Aspirin can be substituted with 2 x 500 mg paracetamol, taken with the metoclopramide

D Aspirin can be substituted with 2 x 500 mg paracetamol, taken with the metoclopramide

Which ONE of the following therapies is NOT appropriate for an 80-year-old woman who presents with post herpetic neuralgia? A Gabapentin 300 mg daily, titrated as tolerated B Capsaicin topical application C Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) D Citalopram 20 mg daily to a maximum of 40-60 mg

D Citalopram 20 mg daily to a maximum of 40-60 mg

Which ONE of the following medicines MOST likely needs a dose adjustment in stage 3b renal dysfunction? A Prednisolone B Allopurinol C Labetalol D Fluoxetine

B Allopurinol

Which ONE of the following medications is LEAST likely to cause gastric upsets? A Enalapril B Sulindac C Prednisolone D Fluoxetine

A.Enalapril

Naphazoline can be used in eye drops to treat which ONE of the following? A Red eyes/itchy eyes B Dry eye syndrome C Glaucoma D Conjunctivitis

A. Red-eyes/itchy eyes

Which ONE of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be the primary cause of elevated serum creatinine? A Diabetic nephropathy B Rhabdomyolysis C Renal failure D Dehydration

B. Rhabdomyolysis

Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate anti-platelet treatment following the insertion of a stent? A Aspirin plus dabigatran B Dabigatran C Clopidogrel D Clopidogrel plus aspirin

D Clopidogrel plus aspirin

Which ONE of the following oral benzodiazepines has the shortest period of action? A Lorazepam B Diazepam C Midazolam D Alprazolam

C. Midazolam

Phytomenadione (vitamin K) is used for which ONE of the following reasons? A To counteract excessive heparinisation B To supplement potassium loss C As a vitamin supplement in children D To counteract excessive warfarinisation

D To counteract excessive warfarinisation

Which ONE of the following is NOT a symptom of hyponatraemia? A Thirst B Headache C Seizures D Irritability

A. Thirst

Which ONE of the following medications does NOT cause discolouration of the urine? A Rifampicin B Riboflavine C Minocycline D Mitozantrone

C. Minocycline

Which ONE of the following electrolytes can be affected by high dose inhaled salbutamol? A Sodium B Potassium C Bicarbonate D Magnesium

B. Potassium

Which ONE of the following combinations of medications is LEAST likely to cause serotonin syndrome? A Fluoxetine and dextromethorphan B Fluoxetine and lithium C Dextromethorphan and phenelzine D Dextromethorphan and codeine

D Dextromethorphan and codeine

female patient age 63, taking thyroxine 100 microgram tablets daily, has recently been diagnosed with an arrhythmia. She presents with a prescription for amiodarone 200 mg daily. Which ONE of these clinical tests would be the MOST appropriate follow up? A Creatinine clearance after 2 weeks B Monitor thyroid function every 6 months C Bone mineral density after 6 months D Full blood examination after 1 week

B Monitor thyroid function every 6 months

Which ONE of the following Gram-negative bacteria is the primary cause of urinary tract infections? A Escherichia coli B Helicobacter pylori C Shigella dysenteriae D Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A Escherichia coli

Which ONE of the following side effects is MOST likely to occur with high doses of hydrochlorothiazide? A Photosensitivity B Nightmares C Urinary hesitancy D Metabolic disturbances

D Metabolic disturbances

Primary hyperaldosteronism results in which ONE of the following health outcomes? A Elevated blood pressure and low plasma potassium B Increased potassium resorption at the proximal tubule C Hyperkalemia in most severe cases D A rapid, often fatal, loss of blood pressure

A. Elevated blood pressure and low plasma potassium

What is the MOST common adverse effect of alendronate A Stomatitis B Hypercalcaemia C Osteonecrosis of the jaw D Oesophagitis

D Oesophagitis

What medicine therapy would be MOST appropriate for Amanda to relieve the pain of her menstrual cramping? A Paracetamol B Paracetamol/codeine C Mefenamic acid D Tramadol

C Mefenamic acid

Which ONE of the following treatment options would be the MOST appropriate to relieve Audrey's nausea/vomiting? A Change metoclopramide dosage to 1 tds regularly B Add ondansetron 8 mg bd C Trial discontinuation of galantamine D Increase pantoprazole dosage to 40 mg bd

C Trial discontinuation of galantamine

Which ONE of the following tests may be considered to investigate her continuing gastric discomfort? A Colonoscopy B B12/Folate C Urea breath test D Bronchoscopy

C Urea breath test

Which ONE of the following medications is LEAST suitable to manage Audrey's depression? A Sertraline B Mirtazapine C Doxepin D Moclobemide

C. Doxepine

Which ONE of the following medicines is LEAST likely to be contributing to Audrey's nausea/vomiting? A Galantamine B Calcitriol C Aspirin D Calcium carbonate

D. Calcium carbonate

What is the LEAST appropriate SSRI for the management of depression during pregnancy? A Citalopram B Paroxetine C Sertraline D Fluoxetine

B. Paroxetine

Due to antidepressant use during pregnancy, there is potential for the onset of SSRI withdrawal effects in the newborn. Which ONE of the following is LEAST likely to occur? A Drowsiness B Tremor C Hyperreflexia D Difficulty feeding

A. Drowsiness

Due to complications of mastitis with her previous child, Cassandra decides not to breastfeed this new baby. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate for the suppression of lactation? A Metoclopramide B Domperidone C Bromocriptine D Cabergoline

D Cabergoline

If Cassandra did develop mastitis, which is the MOST appropriate antibiotic for treatment? A Flucloxacillin B Clindamycin C Ciprofloxacin D Erythromycin

B Clindamycin

What is the MOST likely causative organism of mastitis? A Pseudomonas aeruginosa B Escherichia coli C Streptococcus pyogenes D Staphylococcus aureus

D Staphylococcus aureus

Dane has never had an attack of gout, but his urate level is elevated. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate action to take? A Allopurinol to be started at a dose of 100 mg daily B Colchicine to be started at a dose of 0.5 mcg bd C Probenecid be started at a dose of 500 mg bd D No treatment needs to be initiated

D No treatment needs to be initiated

If Dane was started on metformin, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT in regard to this medication? Metformin: A can be used in patients with severe renal impairment with careful monitoring. B can be used in renal impairment but not below a CrCl of 60ml / minute. C can be used and its dose is not dictated by the state of the renal function. D can cause renal impairment and it should be ceased until renal impairment has resolved.

A can be used in patients with severe renal impairment with careful monitoring.

Dane has a number of risk factors for cardiovascular disease. Which ONE of the following would be an additional risk factor? A Low homocysteine level B An elevated serum albumin C Hypertension D Poor renal function

C Hypertension

Which ONE of the following is the BEST indicator of Dane's ongoing blood glucose control? A Random blood glucose levels B 3 monthly HbA1C levels C Weekly fasting blood glucose levels D Regular serum creatinine measurements

B 3 monthly HbA1C levels

What is the MOST appropriate advice to give Jane about benzoyl peroxide cream? A It is not appropriate to use benzoyl peroxide cream when taking isotretinoin B Exposure to more sunlight would be a better choice than benzoyl peroxide C She would be better to add in an abrasive exfoliative treatment with the isotretinoin D She would be better to use a product containing salicylic acid rather than benzoyl peroxide

A It is not appropriate to use benzoyl peroxide cream when taking isotretinoin

Which ONE of the following statements is the MOST appropriate with regard to improving Jane's compliance with isotretinoin therapy? A Don't worry about the missed doses because the medicine is so potent B Recommend a once daily dosage regimen in the morning C Recommend she takes 3 capsules the morning following the missed dose D Recommend she take 2 capsules in the morning and 1 at night

B Recommend a once daily dosage regimen in the morning

Which ONE of the following adverse events is the MOST common during isotretinoin therapy? A Gastrointestinal upset including diarrhoea B Dry lips, skin, and mucous membranes C Aggressive behaviour D Convulsions

B Dry lips, skin, and mucous membranes

Judith presents with cardiac failure characterised by shortness of breath and peripheral oedema. The doxorubicin dose of 75 mg/m2 should be: A ceased. B unchanged, as the cardiac failure is unrelated. C changed to a 6-weekly cycle and reduced to 35 mg. D changed to daunorubicin 75 mg/m2 .

A. Ceased

The MOST likely indication for dexamethasone in Judith's medication profile is as what type of agent? A Analgesic B Anti-emetic C Anti-cancer D Immunosuppressant

B Anti-emetic

Which ONE of the following statements about ondansetron is INCORRECT? A It acts by central and peripheral 5HT3 receptor blockade B The dose needs to be reduced in severe renal impairment C It is more effective for acute, rather than delayed, adverse effects of cancer therapy D It decreases the analgesic effect of tramadol

B The dose needs to be reduced in severe renal impairment

Which ONE of the following is NOT a sign of worsening Parkinson's disease? A Dysphagia B Dyskinesia C Myopia D Dystonia

C.myopia

Phillip is complaining of vomiting and nausea. Which of the following is MOST likely to be prescribed? A Domperidone B Prochlorperazine C Metoclopramide D Ondansetron

A. Domperidone

When converting a patient from standard levodopa/carbidopa formulations to controlled release formulations, which of the following is INCORRECT? A Current therapy should be continued for the first two days B Sustained release preparations have lower oral bioavailability C The total daily dose of levodopa usually has to be increased D The frequency of dosing with the controlled release formulations is every 8 to 12 hours

A Current therapy should be continued for the first two days

Ralph presents to you with a prescription for glyceryl trinitrate patches 10 mg/24hr. What is the MOST appropriate regimen for Ralph for the use and application of glyceryl trinitrate patches? A Mane and leave on 24 hours B Mane and take off at 10pm C Only when pain is experienced and leave on for 2 days D In the late afternoon and remove in the morning

D In the late afternoon and remove in the morning

In an acute angina attack, which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate way to use glyceryl trinitrate sublingual tablets? A Dissolve 1 tablet under the tongue and wait 5 minutes. Call an ambulance if pain persists B Dissolve 1/2 to 1 tablet under the tongue and repeat if pain persists. Call an ambulance if 2 repeats over 10 minutes do not relieve pain C Dissolve 1/2 to 1 tablet under the tongue. Call an ambulance if pain is not relieved after 15 minutes D Dissolve 1 tablet under the tongue and repeat every 3 minutes if pain persists. Call an ambulance if 4 repeats over 15 minutes do not relieve pain

B.Dissolve 1/2 to 1 tablet under the tongue and repeat if pain persists. Call an ambulance if 2 repeats over 10 minutes do not relieve pain

Following the initiation of therapy with fluoxetine in this patient, the maximal anti-depressant effects is MOST likely achieved after: A 1 week B 10 days C 4 weeks D 12 weeks

D. 12 weeks

Along with swelling of the ankles, which ONE of the following side effects is MOST commonly observed with amlodipine? A Cough B Sedative medications C Chest pain D Dizziness

D Dizziness

Which ONE of the following would be MOST appropriate to add to paracetamol for the treatment of osteoarthritis of the knee in Stephen? A Tramadol SR 200 mg tablet twice daily B Celecoxib tablet 200 mg once daily C Fentanyl patch 12.5 microgram every 3 days D Diclofenac gel four times a day

D Diclofenac gel four times a day

Which ONE of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of Stephen's carvedilol treatment? A Bronchospasm B Insomnia C Tachycardia D Heart failure

C. Tachycardia

Which ONE of the following would be a suitable alternative to carvedilol in Stephen? A Atenolol B Bisoprolol C Propranolol D Pindolol

B. Bisoprolol

Stephen presents a prescription for clarithromycin to treat a respiratory infection. Which ONE of the following recommendations should you make to the treating doctor? A Withhold fluoxetine for the duration of the antibiotic B Increase dose of fluoxetine for the duration of the antibiotic C Withhold simvastatin for the duration of the antibiotic D Change simvastatin to atorvastatin for the duration of the antibiotic

C Withhold simvastatin for the duration of the antibiotic

If Thomas' mother is using paracetamol mixture 100 mg/mL, what directions are MOST appropriate for Thomas? A 1.4 mL 4 hourly, maximum 5 doses in 24 hours B 2.1 mL 4-6 hourly, maximum 4 doses in 24 hours C 4.2 mL 4-6 hourly, maximum 4 doses in 24 hours D 1.2 mL 4-6 hourly, maximum 4 doses in 24 hours

B 2.1 mL 4-6 hourly, maximum 4 doses in 24 hours

After 5 days of treatment, Thomas develops severe diarrhoea with the antibiotics that he is using. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate treatment? A Cease the antibiotics and encourage fluids B Cease antibiotic and use loperamide 2 mg stat and after each loose bowel motion C Continue the antibiotics and encourage fluids D Continue the antibiotics and use loperamide 2 mg stat and after each loose bowel motion

A Cease the antibiotics and encourage fluids

Which ONE of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause otitis media? A Staphylococcus aureus B Escherichia coli C Streptococcus pneumonie D Mycoplasma pneumoniae

C Streptococcus pneumonie

Which ONE of the following statements about colic is INCORRECT? A It usually ends when the child is 3-4 months of age B The child will be otherwise thriving C It often starts within the first month of life D Various successful treatments exist

D Various successful treatments exist

In regards to colic, which ONE of the following practices is NOT recommended? A Continuation of breast feeding B Reduction of environmental stimulation C Adherence to routines D Change of usual feed times

D Change of usual feed times

Thomas is due to have his scheduled 2-month vaccination soon. Which ONE of the following diseases/organisms is NOT immunised against with the Australian Standard Vaccination Schedule at two months? A Measles B Tetanus C Haemophilus influenzae B D Streptococcus pneumoniae

A Measles

Thomas' mother has also heard a lot about 'cot death' (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome; SIDS) and enquires about the current recommendations to prevent 'cot death'. Which ONE of the following statements of advice is INCORRECT, with regard to the baby? A The baby should be placed on its side B The baby should not be over wrapped C The use of antihistamines should be avoided D Exposure to cigarette smoke should be avoided

A The baby should be placed on its side

What is the MOST common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids? A Dysphonia (difficulty speaking) B Cataracts C Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) D Weight gain

A Dysphonia (difficulty speaking)

Tim asks whether antihistamines would help his asthma. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate advice? A Antihistamines are relatively contraindicated in asthmatics B Antihistamines are helpful in symptom control in all asthmatics C Sedating antihistamines are more appropriate than non-sedating antihistamines D Antihistamines may help if the patient's asthma has an allergic component

D Antihistamines may help if the patient's asthma has an allergic component

What is the MOST appropriate treatment for Tim for community acquired pneumonia? A Roxithromycin B Doxycycline C Gentamicin D Trimethoprin with sulfamethoxazole

B Doxycycline

Following resolution of his pneumonia, Tim still does not have good control of his asthma. What is the MOST appropriate treatment option to help him get control of his asthma? A Add salmeterol 50 mcg ii puffs bd B Change budesonide to fluticasone 500 mcg DPI ii puffs bd C Add tiotropium 18 mcg daily D Increase budesonide to iii puffs bd

A Add salmeterol 50 mcg ii puffs bd

Tim is commencing budesonide, what other change(s) should be made to his medication? A Cease beclomethasone, as effects are additive B Decrease beclomethasone dosage to 100 mcg/dose i puff bd C Step down beclomethasone, as stopping abruptly may precipitate an attack D Continue beclomethasone, as these two medications act on different receptors

A Cease beclomethasone, as effects are additive