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wound infection lec Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main types of staphylococci

A

staph auerus ; epidermidis ; saprophyticus

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2
Q

what are the characteristics of staphylococci

A

divide in 3 planes ; facultive , non sporulating ; non motile g + cocci ; capable of aerobic & anaerobic respiration ; non fastidious ; some strains can prod capsules

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3
Q

How are staph aureus identified

A

white/gold colonies on blood agar; catalase & coagulase positive ; most strains ferment mannitol anaerobically

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4
Q

Name diseases associated with staph aureus

A

boils ; skin sepsis ; catheter assoc.inf ; food-borne infection ; septicaemia; endocarditis toxic shock syndrome; pneumonia ; osteomyelitis ; wound infection; scalded skin inf

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5
Q

Describe Transmission of staph aureus

A

resorvoir humans ; assoc w asymptomatic carriage sites (nares, rectum, perineum (bw anus & genitals, pharnyx) ; common on nose & skin (grows high in salt) ; spread via contact & airborne; organism survives drying, tolerant of salt & nitrites

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6
Q

What technique can be for staph aureus epidemioloigical analysis

A

whole genome seq replaces pulse-field gel elctrophoresis & other molec techs

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7
Q

Describe pathogenesis of staph aureus

A

if virulence is multifactorial etc.

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8
Q

present in all s.aureus strains is

A

mucopeptide & coagulase

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9
Q

virulence factors present in some staph aureus strains

A

cell assoc. : capsule, protein A , collagen binding proteins, extracell. products, enterotoxins; epirmolytic toxic shock syndrome ; damaging toxin: membrane dmagae team aka hameolysins, leukocidin; staphylokinase (img from zees notes)

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10
Q

Treatment of staph aureus and prevention way

A

beta-lactamase stable penicillin ; mupirocin for topical trmt of miscarriage ; prevention of spread by isolation/ carriers trmt in hospital

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11
Q

what is catalase positive / neg

A
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12
Q

what is coagulase positive

A
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13
Q

What is identified when using technique to observe staph. epidermidis

A

white colonies on Bagar ; coag neg & catalase positive ; mannitol not fermented anaerobically

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14
Q

Name diseases assoc with staph epidermidis

A

opportunistic pathogen assoc. w device related sepsis (catheter or infection of artifical joint etc) UTIs in women & sternal wound osteomyelitis

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15
Q

Describe staph epidermidis transmission

A

norm on skin spread via contact w self or to patients or staff ; almost all hospital-acquired

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16
Q

what was a virulence marker for staph. epidermidis

A

extracellular slime prod. = marker of virulence & aid in colonisation of plastic implants e.g intravenous catheters and protheses ; AResistance - multiresistant including p/methicillin ; infection revention is catheter care no vaccine

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17
Q

staph saprophyticus characteristics & lab identification shows..

A

white coolonies on Bagar ; catalase + and coagulase neg , mannitol not fermented anaerobically

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18
Q

What diseases are caused by staph epidermidis

A

UTIS in women

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19
Q

Where are staph epidermidis transmitted

A

skin & genitourinary mucosa ; endogenous spread to urinary tract in colonised women

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20
Q

Are the virulence factors for staph epidermidis known

A

no but organism can colonise periurethral skin & mucosa

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21
Q

Are the virulence factors for staph epidermidis known

A

no but organism can colonise periurethral skin & mucosa

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22
Q

staph epidermidis prevention

A

urination after intercourse helps wash organisms out bladder and prevent infection

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23
Q

Risk Factors for staphyloccus infections

A

trauma (expose binding sites) ; influenza (exposed binding sites & decreased clearance) ; foreign body ; liver disease ; neoplasia ; leukocyte and ig defects ; elevated serum iGE levels

24
Q

patterns of disease in s.aerus

A

invasion with tissue destruction or toxin mediation (toxic shock , scalded skin, staph. food poisoning

25
what is a furuncle
starts as infection @ hair follicle ; firm tender red nodule with spontaneous draining at one point (1cm red papule)
26
difference between carbuncle and furuncle
larger than f ; extends in subcutaneous fat , interconnected nodules ; firm inelastic skin
27
What is impetigo
superficial skin infection (stratum corneum)
28
what 2 strain infections responsible for impetigo
s.aerus or streptoccocus pyogenes ; in kids ; hot weather minor trauma initially vesicles i.e around mouth
29
Describe cellulitis
acute spread, in skin and subcutaneous tissues ; prior trauma ; warm and erethematous (red spotty spreaded)
30
What are the nares
nostrils and upper nose soemhting
31
What toxin is prod. by s.areus in contaminated food stored at wrong temp
enterotoxin b (heat stable)
32
How is staphyloccal food poisoning transmitted
person2person ; usually individuals assoc. w meal prep fault i.e poor hand hygiene
33
name Foods associated in staphyloccal food poisoning
custard bakery goods ; canned food ; potato salad ; ice cream ; coleslaw (food is norm in app. taste and odour)
34
clinical features of staph food poisoning
incubation - 2-6 hrs ; enterotoxin stims intestinal peristalsis & CNS ; abrupt onset of saliva , nausea, vomit , abdom. cramps and diarrhea ; afebrile (no fever) ; self limited symptoms dissappear in 8 hrs
35
MRSA
MRSA (methicillin resistant s.aureus) has 2 penicllin binding proteins normally have enzymatic activity for cross linking peptidoglycan wall ; MRSA acq. MecA gene (codes for alt PBP (2a)) = low affinity for beta lactam , enzymatically active = peptidoglycan generated ; trtmt is vancomycin (glycopptide AB)
36
s.aerus treatment resistant timeline
pic shows penicillin 1941 resistance 1945 ; methicillin 1959 m- resistant strain 1960s ; vancomycin 1958 resistant strain 2000s
37
describe pseudomonas aeruginosa (characteristics ; VFs and pathogenesis)
g -ve rod ; soil origin in decay or moist envts virulence factors - adhesins, toxins, polysacchs pathogenesis - inf in burn victims can grow under surface of burn ; bacteria kills destroys tissue & triggers shock
38
Pseudomonas (epidemio ; trmt and prevent)
epidemio: rarely part of microbiota can cause inf inside ; difficult to diagnose (microscopy/isolation agar) ; diff to treat cos high resist but combo therapy and equipment sterility for prevention
39
name 4 clostridium species
clostridium tetani (tadpoles) ; clostridium perfingens (mop) ; clostridum botulinum (finger wotsits) ; clostridum difficile (red multic. wotsits
40
characteristics of clostridium
anaerobic ; spore forming , g + bacilli ; mostly soil saphrophytes ; potent toxins
41
spores of clostridium are characterised on basis __________ , _____ and ______
position, size, shape
42
spores forming in clostridium is a __________ mechanism
survival
43
what conditions do clostridium form endospores
adverse envt
44
what type of spores is in most clostridium (perfingens and botulinum)
ovoid subterminal spores (ost)
45
what spores do c.tetani have
round terminal spores
46
where do clostridium tend to grow from
soil , human & animal intestine, water, decaying animal/ plant matter
47
lab characteristics for clostridum identification
g+ve rods & spores ; culture blood agar anaerobically & selective media (add aminoglycoside) ;
48
3 biochemical tests by robertson for clostridium identification
saccharolytic = ferments dugar w rotten smell and reddens robertsons meat medium ; proteolytic : enzymes digest proteins , blackens meat medium w foul smell ; toxins: exotoxins prod. by c.tetani & c.botulinum = highly toxic
49
treatment for clostridium
50
clostridum perfingens and gas gangreene
51
the nagler reaction
52
hyperbaric chamber
53
c.perfingens food poisoning
54
clostridium tetani and tetanus
55
clinical forms of tetanus
56
pathogenicity of tetanus
57
what toxin assoc w clostridium is used in cosmetic use
botulinum = botulism toxins inhibit nerves & muscles cant contract

microbio (6 decks)

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