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Clinical Methods > Workshop learning > Flashcards

Workshop learning Flashcards

1
Q

Before PHQ9, what quick screening tool can we use and how is this done?

A

PHQ-2 - also known as the ‘two question screening test’

  1. During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless?
  2. During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

Answering yes to either of these questions is considered a positive answer warranting further assessment .

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2
Q

What is a controlled drug?

A

A drug or other substance that is tightly controlled by the government because it may be abused or cause addiction

The control applies to the way the substance is made, used, handled, stored, and distributed.

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3
Q

List 4 examples of controlled drugs which are legal in the UK

A
  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Cocaine
  3. Codeine
  4. Morphine
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4
Q

What 4 things must a prescription for a Controlled Drug be in order to be valid?

A
  1. Indelible
  2. Signed by the prescriber
  3. Dateded
  4. Prescriber’s address

?????

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5
Q

In a prescripton, what can be said about writing the quantity?

A

MUST be written in both words and numbers

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6
Q

What must be monitored for Warfarin?

A

INR (once stable monitor every 3 months)

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7
Q

What must be monitored for Insulin?

A

Glucose and HbA1c

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8
Q

Lithium monitoring?

A
  1. Renal function
  2. Tyroid function
  3. Cardiac + ECG (in patients with CVD or RFs)
  4. Body-weight/ BMI
  5. U&Es
  6. FBC
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9
Q

Methotrexate monitoring?

A
  1. FBC
  2. Renal function
  3. LFTs
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10
Q

Azothioprine monitoring?

A
  1. FBC
  2. LFTs
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11
Q

Toxicity a/w Azothioprine

A

Myelotoxicity - bone marrow suppression

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12
Q

Amioderone monitoring?

A
  1. Thyroid function
  2. LFT’s
  3. Serum K+
  4. Chest x-ray
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13
Q

Why chest x-rays in monitoring of Amiodarone?

A

a/w pulmonary fibrosis - not often used as first line

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14
Q

Monitoring of corticosteroids

A
  1. FBC
  2. HbA1c

????

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15
Q

Triad of reactive arthritis

‘can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree’

A

Urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis

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16
Q

Diagnostic test for IBD?

A

Faecal calprotectin

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17
Q

What is a FIT test?

A

faecal immunochemical test (FIT) - bowel cancer screening

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18
Q

A patient presents to you with suspected hip OA

What patient-reported tool can help us assess severity and potential need for a THR

A

Oxford Hip Score

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19
Q

A chronic smoker of 35 years requires a THR. What MUST we inform patient prior to booking the surgery

A

Health risks and surgical complications a/w smoking

Must NOT smoke upto 4 weeks before surgery

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20
Q

Normal serum value for K+

A

3.5 - 5.5

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21
Q

4 drugs which increase K+

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. ACEi
  3. ARBs
  4. K+ sparing
22
Q

3 conditions causing increased K+

A
  1. Congestive heart failure
  2. DKA
  3. Addisons
23
Q

Values for mild, moderate and sever hyperkalaemia

A

Mild: 5.5 - 5.9

Moderate: 5.9 - 6.5

Sever: > 6.5

24
Q

Any patient with a K+ > 6 requires what?

A

An ECG

25
Q

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A
  1. ST elevation
  2. Tall tented T waves
26
Q

Causes of low K+

A
  1. CKD
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Loop diuretics - furosomide
  4. Excessive alcohol
  5. DKA
27
Q

Dosage of paracetamol for an adult?

A

0.5–1 g every 4–6 hours; maximum 4 g per day

28
Q

What OTC analgesic is contraindicated in < 16y and WHY?

A

Asprin - risk of developing Reye’s syndrome

Rare but serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Most often affects children and teens recovering from a viral infection (ie. flu or chickenpox)

29
Q

What OTC pain medication should be avoided in a child or individual with chicken pox?

A

Ibuprofen or any NSAIDs - can stop the inflammation

30
Q

What assessment/ guidlines are used to assess competence in an under 16yo?

A

Fraser guidelines

Gillick competence

31
Q

Why is Ovarian cancer often only diagnosed in late stage disease?

What tumour marker in the blood can aid diagnosis?

A

Clinical features are non-specific ie. feeling constantly bloated, discomfort in tummy or pelvic area, increased need to pee etc…

Test for Ca-125

32
Q

Explain the GOLD classification for COPD

A

Assesses severity of COPD to aid management plan - takes into account mMRC and CAT

33
Q

All Immunisations can be completed at any stage of life if an individual has missed their childood immunisations

What is the exception to this?

A

HPV vaccine

Must be given to girls at the age of 12-13 because the thymus is required to produce the desired response.

34
Q

List 4 pieces of lifestyle advice you can give to an individual with uncontrolled hypertension

A
  1. Reduced alcohol consumption if they drink excessively
  2. decrease consumption of coffee + caffeine-rich products
  3. Keep dietary sodium intake low
  4. Increase daily activity
  5. Quit smoking if applicable
35
Q

What does the GP management algorithm RAPRIOP stand for?

A

R - reassurance
A - advice
P - prescription
R - referral
I - investigations
O - observations and follow up
P - prevention and health promotion

36
Q

What 4 things do we assess in a neuro exam of the musculoskeletal system?

A

Power, Tone, Sensation, Reflexes

37
Q

Two most common bacteria causing an URTI + treatment

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae (+) and haemophilus influenzae (-)

1st line treatment: Amoxicillan

38
Q

List 4 common s/e of antibiotics (hint GI symptoms)

A
  1. nausea and vomiting
  2. diarrhoea
  3. thrust (esp if prone to thrush already, may require anti-fungal prescription)
  4. bloating, indigestion, abdominal pain
  5. loss of appetite
39
Q

List 4 differentials for a chronic cough

A
  1. Rhinitis and post-nasal drip
  2. ACEi
  3. GORD
  4. Asthma
40
Q

Compare differences between the blue vs brown inhaler for Asthma, incl the most common medication in each

A
41
Q

The purple inhaler for Asthma most often contains what medication(s)

A

Usually a combined inhaler, both a reliever and a preventor

42
Q

List 4 risk factor that may increase severity of COVID

A
  1. Age
  2. Co-morbidities
  3. Obesity
  4. Underlying respiratory condition
43
Q

Compare peripheral neuropathy vs PVD in terms of pathophysiology and presentation

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

Nerve damage due to prolonged ↑ in blood sugar - most commonly due to diabetes “diabetic neuropathy”

Presents as burning, tingling and/or general weakness in the limbs, usually legs, feet or hands. If untreated can progress to complete numbness

Peripheral Vascular Disease

Narrowing, blocking or spasming of the BVs most commonly in the lower regions (legs, calves, thighs, hips or buttocks)

Presents as intermittent claudication - aching, cramping, weakness that occurs when walking and goes away with rest

44
Q

Do we prescribe Abx for a sore throat? Explain

A

Acute sore throat (incl pharyngitis and tonsillitis) is self‑limiting and most often triggered by a viral infection of the URT

45
Q

People with a sore throat caused by _______ bacteria are more likely to benefit from antibiotics

What 2 criteria can help identify people in whom this is more likely?

A

Streptococcal

Criteria:

  • FeverPAIN criteria
  • Centor criteria
46
Q

Explain the FeverPAIN criteria

A
47
Q

Explain the Centor criteria

A
48
Q

1st line treatment for tonsillitis?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillan

49
Q

What must we NEVER prescribed for a sore throat (of any cause)?

Why?

A

Amoxicillan - only useful in strep throat

If used for any other sore throat, can develop an antibiotic rash haracteristic of infectious mononucleosis

50
Q

List 4 contraindications for prescribing the OCP

A
  1. Migraines
  2. DVT or Fx of clots
  3. breast cancer
  4. Hypertnesion?
51
Q

List 2 drugs which display zero order kinetics

A
  1. Asprin
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Ethanol
  4. Fluoxetine

Clinical Methods (21 decks)

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