worksheet answers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the reason for having a very convoluted brain, i.e. many sulci and gyri?

A

Larger surface area means a greater volume of grey matter, which in the cerebrum consists of
billions of interneurons

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2
Q

. Describe the distribution of white and grey matter in the different brain areas, including the
spinal cord. What do they represent?

A

Cerebrum: grey matter on the outside (cortex), white matter more internal (tracts connecting
different brain areas)
Midbrain, pons and medulla: Mostly white matter (various tracts, e.g. pyramidal tracts) with some nuclei (grey matter)

Spinal cord: “Butterfly” structure of grey matter in the centre with anterior (motor neuron cell
bodies) and posterior horns (sensory neuron cell bodies) and interneurons; white matter around
(motor and sensory tracts)

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3
Q

What are the layers of the meninges? What are the subdural and subarachnoid spaces?

A

Dura mater = periosteal and meningeal layer, contains venous sinuses
Arachnoid = very fine connective tissue with fibres anchoring to pia mater
Pia mater = follows all the gyri into sulci
Subdural space = between dura and arachnoid, filled with fluid
Subarachnoid space = between arachnoid and pia, contains larger arteries and veins

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4
Q

areas of cerebral hemisphere

A

Primary motor cortex
(precentral gyrus)

Primary sensory cortex
(postcentral gyrus)

Primary visual cortex

Broca’s area

Wernicke’s area

Prefrontal cortex

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5
Q

Primary motor cortex

precentral gyrus

A

Large motor neurons (pyramidal cells); voluntary

muscle movement

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6
Q

Wernicke’ area

A

Understanding written and spoken language

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7
Q

Primary visual cortex

A

Interprets visual stimuli

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8
Q

Primary sensory cortex

postcentral gyrus

A

Receives information from somatic receptors in the

skin and proprioceptors

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9
Q

brocas area

A

Motor speech area, directs muscles that are
involved in speaking, also active when we think
about what we want to say

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10
Q

Prefrontal cortex

A

Intellect, personality, working memory, abstract

thinking

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11
Q

basal nuclei

A

Grey matter deep within cerebrum; involved in
motor function in coordination with substantia nigra
and cerebellum

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12
Q

corpus callosum

A

White matter; tracts connecting both hemispheres

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13
Q

areas of the diencephalon

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Pineal gland

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14
Q

thalamus

A

Relay station for all information coming into the

cortex; sorted, edited and integrated

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15
Q

hypothalamus

A

Regulates homeostasis (temp, sleep, food, etc.)

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16
Q

pituitary gland

A

Releases hormones to control endocrine system

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17
Q

pineal gland

A

Secretes melatonin which induces sleep

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18
Q

areas of the brainsem

A

Midbrain with
substantia nigra

Pons

Medulla oblongata and
pyramids

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19
Q

midbrain and substantia nigra

A

White matter (pyramidal tracts) and some nuclei,
e.g. substantia nigra; involved in reflexes (startle
and visual) and RAS; substantia nigra produces
dopamine; exit point of cranial nerves
Note: RAS = reticular activation system

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20
Q

medulla oblongata and pyramids

A

Top part of spinal cord; white matter (pyramidal
tracts in the pyramids); nuclei that are part of RAS;
cardiovascular and respiratory control; vomiting
and swallowing centre; sneeze and cough
reflexes; exit point of cranial nerves

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21
Q

pons

A

White matter, some nuclei, respiratory control, exit

point of cranial nerves

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22
Q

.When you feel tired during a long drive, you could open the window, sing along with the radio,
pinch yourself and have some cold water. How does this affect your alertness?

A

Increasing the amount of sensory input will activate the RAS (reticular activation system). The
more different stimuli that will be processed in various brain regions, the more effective this is.
Here you have skin sensation from the open window (wind and cold), auditory stimuli (music) and
activated taste receptors (cold water).
However, sleep can override the RAS, particularly if you are sleep deprived, so this is not always
working.

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23
Q

Explain how cerebrospinal fluid is formed and describe its movement

A

Made by filtration in choroid plexuses in the ventricles; circulates through ventricles and in
subarachnoid space; lateral ventricles → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → through apertures
into subarachnoid space and also into central canal along the spinal cord

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24
Q
  1. What channels in the presynaptic neuron open up in response to an action potential?
A

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

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25
Q

The presence of what ion inside the cell causes the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the
membrane?

A

Ca2+

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26
Q

Name six common neurotransmitters and whether they are excitatory or inhibitory

A

Acetylcholine (Ach) – can be both, very common in CNS and PNS
Noradrenaline – can be both, also in CNS and PNS
Dopamine – both, substantia nigra and other areas of CNS (“feel good” neurotransmitter
Serotonin – inhibitory, CNS (plays a role in mood, appetite, sleep)
GABA – main inhibitory, in CNS
Glutamate – main excitatory, in CNS

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27
Q

Describe the release and action of neurotransmitters

A

Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in the axon terminals. Ca2+ entering the axon due to an
AP causes the vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic cell membrane and release them into the
synaptic cleft.
They diffuse across and bind to receptors at the postsynaptic cell membrane. This triggers a
graded potential which can either lead to or prevent an AP.

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28
Q

How are neurotransmitters removed from the synaptic cleft?

A

They can be pumped back into presynaptic terminals (e.g. serotonin), broken down by enzymes
(e.g. Ach) or diffuse away.

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29
Q

Name three factors that can enhance transfer of information from short-term into long-term
memory

A

Practice and rehearsing
Being excited about the new information/task and having positive feelings
Being able to associate new information with previously learned facts and skills
Sleep enhances memory consolidation

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30
Q

Describe the stages of sleep and the order in which you progress through them during a
typical night. You can also draw this if you want.

A

REM sleep = rapid eye movement, often coincides with dreaming, high brain activity and muscles
paralysed
Non-REM stages 3 and 4 are deep sleep, showing delta waves

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31
Q

Where is the limbic system located and what is its role?

A

Various brain parts are involved, especially deep cerebral areas and parts of the diencephalon,
e.g. hippocampus, amygdala and other nuclei. This functional system regulates emotional
behaviour, such as reaction to stress or threats, aggression, etc. It is closely linked to the
olfactory (smell) areas.

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32
Q

When would you see delta waves, when alpha waves?

A
Delta = during deep sleep
Alpha = quietly alert, relaxed with eyes closed
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33
Q

. Describe the pathway for a sensory (afferent) stimulus from the receptor to the primary
sensory cortex.

A

First order neuron: Receptor = mechano-, thermo-, photo-, chemoreceptors or nociceptor →
distal branch of sensory neuron via peripheral and then spinal nerve (cell body is in dorsal root
ganglion) → proximal branch of neuron via dorsal root into dorsal horn
Second order neuron: Interneuron in dorsal horn → crosses over to the opposite side and axon
goes all the way to thalamus
Third order neuron: Cell body in thalamus → primary sensory cortex and other higher centres
(photoreceptor would send information to primary visual centre)

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34
Q

Describe the motor (efferent) pathway from the primary motor cortex to a muscle fibre

A

Upper motor neuron: Cell bodies in primary motor area (pyramid cells) → most axons cross over
to opposite side in medulla and go down spinal cord
Lower motor neuron: Cell body ventral horn → ventral root into spinal nerve → peripheral nerve
(and often via a plexus) → muscle fibre

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35
Q

general structure of a nerve

A
Nerve is surrounded by epineurium, contains fascicles (within perineurium) which are made up of
myelinated axons (encased in endoneurium). Nerves also contain blood vessels.
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36
Q

typical acending tract function

A
Sensory, i.e. pressure, touch,
temperature, pain, etc.
Afferent, i.e. transmitting
stimuli from the periphery and
internal organs to the CNS
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37
Q

typical acending tract number of neurons in the pathway

A

Three (first, second and third

order)

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38
Q

typical acending tract origin

A

Receptors (distal branch of
first order neuron, cell body in
dorsal root ganglion) on body
surface, muscles or in organs

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39
Q

typical acending tract termination

A

Primary sensory cortex, some

in cerebellum

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40
Q

typical acending tract where does it cross over (decussate)

A

Spinal level, i.e. same level
where first order neuron
enters the spinal cord

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41
Q

typical decending tract function

A
Motor, both skeletal and smooth
muscle fibres
Efferent, i.e. sending impulses
from CNS to skeletal muscles,
smooth muscles in organs and
blood vessels
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42
Q

typical decending tract number of neurons in the pathway

A

Two (upper and lower)

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43
Q

typical decending tract origin

A

Primary motor cortex in precentral gyrus, basal nuclei and

cerebellum

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44
Q

typical decending tract termination

A

Neuromuscular junction or
synapses on smooth muscle
fibres

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45
Q

typical decending tract where does it cross over (dessucate)

A

In medulla, but some tracts

don’t cross over

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46
Q

typical decending tract examples of tracts

A

Pyramidal, extrapyramidal

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47
Q

DRAW DIAGRAM OF REFLEX ARC

A

DRAW DIAGRAM OF REFLEX ARC

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48
Q

Neuropathic pain could have several reasons. Explain a reason

A

A decreased threshold for action potential generation in pain neurons.
(If the threshold OF -55 is decreased, a weaker stimulus will generate an action potential and get
perceived as pain.)

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49
Q

Explain the phenomenon of referred pain.

A

Visceral nociceptor get triggered by painful stimuli in the internal organs. Often these stimuli are
due to insufficient blood supply to that organ, causing ischaemia. Their fibres are bundled
together with fibres from pain receptors of specific skin areas and travel the same pathways to
the same regions in the CNS where the pain is perceived. The brain can’t quite distinguish where
the stimulus came from – organ or skin so it is felt in both areas.
Example: Pain in the left arm and jaw during a myocardial infarction

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50
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitters and nerve fibres are involved in pain sensation?
A

Sharp pain – A fibres, burning and dull pain – C fibres
Neurotransmitters: Glutamate, substance P – they trigger second order neurons
These can be inhibited by the body’s own analgesia, i.e. endorphins and enkephalins

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51
Q

What is the difference between pain threshold and tolerance?

A

Threshold = the intensity of a stimulus that will be perceived as pain (not just pressure or
temperature). This is the same for every person
Tolerance = how pain is interpreted, perceived and tolerated. This varies from person to person and also
in different situations

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52
Q

Identify the 3 major roles of the ANS in relation to maintaining homeostasis

A

Cardiac regulation
• Secretory gland regulation (e.g. salivary, sweat, gastric, bronchial)
• Smooth muscle regulation (e.g. bronchi, blood vessels, GIT, urogenital)

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53
Q

There are no sympathetic neurons in the cervical spinal segments, yet there are three
cervical ganglia in the neck region. How can that be explained?

A

The preganglionic sympathetic fibers originate in the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal
cord. Some of these fibers ascend in the sympathetic trunk and synapse in three ganglia located
in the neck region (see figure 14.7)

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54
Q

Describe the meaning and importance of sympathetic and parasympathetic tone

A

“Tone” in the divisions of the ANS refers to the firing rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic
neurons. Sympathetic tone determines the degree of constriction or dilation throughout the
vascular system under resting conditions, while parasympathetic tone is important to determining
heart rate and GI function. The resting tone of each system aids in the maintenance of
homeostasis under normal conditions.
Sympathetic = vasomotor tone = slight vasoconstriction of arterioles during rest
Parasympathetic tone = vagus nerve keeps HR at 60-80

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55
Q

sympathetic NS origin

A

Thoraco-lumbar
Nerve cell bodies in lateral horns
T1-L2

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56
Q

sympathetic NS location of glangia

A

Alongside the spinal column –

sympathetic trunk ganglia

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57
Q

sympathetic NS length of pre and post ganglionic fibres

A

Short pre

Long post

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58
Q

sympathetic NS neurotransmitters and receptors

A
Preganglionic – ACh → nicotinic
Postganglionic – NE → α, β
Except to sweat glands – ACh →
muscarinic
Adrenal glands release
adrenaline and noradrenaline →
α, β
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59
Q

sympathetic NS functions

A
↑ mental alertness
↑ metabolism
↓ digestion & urine output
↑ respiration & dilate airways
↑ heart rate & blood pressure
activate sweat glands
control blood vessels
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60
Q

para sympathetic origin

A

Cranio-sacral
Cell bodies in some cranial nerve
nuclei, grey matter of S2-S4

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61
Q

para sympathetic location of ganglia

A

Close to or within the effector organs

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62
Q

para sympathetic length of pre and post ganglionic fibres

A

Long pre

Short post

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63
Q

para sympathetic neurotransmitters and receptors

A

Preganglionic – ACh → nicotinic
Postganglionic – ACh →
muscarinic

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64
Q

para sympathetic function

A
↓ metabolism
↑ salivary & digestive
constrict airways
↓ heart rate & blood pressure
↑ gut motility & blood flow
↑ urine output & defecation
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65
Q

why might a person not have reflexes

A

Jimmy is in spinal shock. This is a transient period that follows the injury and can last for several
weeks. During spinal shock, there are no reflexes, flaccid paralysis below the affected level and
no sensation.

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66
Q

major nerves between c1 and 4

A

phrenic

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67
Q

major nerves between c5 and t1

A

brachial

axillary, musculocutaneous, median, radial, ulnar

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68
Q

major nerves between l1 and l4

A

femoral, obturator

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69
Q

major nerves between l4 and s4

A

sciartic (tibial and common fibular

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70
Q

how the somatic and the autonomous NS

work together

A

71
Q

what is a dermatome

A

A dermatome is the area of the skin of the human anatomy that is mainly supplied by branches of a single spinal sensory nerve root

72
Q

KNOW EYE DIAGRAM

A

EYE DIAGRAM

73
Q

What is the blind spot and why is it blind?

A

The blind spot of the eye is the optic disc. This is the part of the retina where the optic nerve
(cranial nerve II) exits, so there are no photoreceptors. The brain fills in those blanks.

74
Q

path that the information takes to the brain FROM RETINA

A

FROM PHOTORECEPTORS BACKWARDS TO AXONS OF GANGLION CELLS

75
Q

Which sequence follows the correct passage of light entering the cornea?

A

cornea, anterior segment, pupil, lens, posterior segment

76
Q

TYPE OF VISION THAT RODS ACCOMIDATE

A

Non-colour vision in dim light

77
Q

TYPE OF VISION THAT CONES ACCOMIDATE

A

Colour vision in bright light

78
Q

RODS PHOTO RECEPTOR SENSITIVITY

A

Very sensitive, i.e. require not

much light

79
Q

CONES PHOTO RECEPTOR SENSITIVITY

A

Low, require bright light

80
Q

RODS LOCATION

A

Mostly in the peripheral retina,

more numerous than cones

81
Q

CONES LOCATIONS

A

Central retina

82
Q

Which part of the visual field would be affected by a tumor in the right visual cortex and by a
tumor compressing the right optic nerve?

A

A tumour in the right visual cortex would affect the whole left visual field. If the right optic nerve is
compressed, parts of the left and right visual fields from the right eye would be affected

83
Q

GLAUCOMA

A

A problem with the drainage of the aqueous humour (= fluid in the anterior segment
of the eye) increases the amount of this fluid and therefore the pressure in the whole eye (normal
= 16mmHg). This compresses the retina and optic nerve which can eventually lead to blindness

84
Q

CATARACT

A

A clouding of the lens, mostly due to age-related thickening and hardening. It leads to
blurred vision. Risk factors are smoking and diabetes.

85
Q

Where do you find taste buds?

A

On all parts of the tongue and some on the palate, cheeks, epiglottis and pharynx

86
Q

Name some characteristics of olfactory receptor cells

A

They are chemoreceptors, are bipolar neurons, have cilia, have a short life-span (30-60 days)
and get replaced.

87
Q

Name the five taste modalities and examples of chemicals that trigger them.

A
Sweet: sugars, alcohol, amino acids
• Sour: acids, H+
ions
• Salty: metal ions, salt
• Bitter: alkaloids, e.g. caffeine
• Umami: glutamate
88
Q

Why can smell trigger an emotional response? Explain this by listing the sequence of the
olfactory pathway from receptor to the brain.

A

Olfactory receptors → olfactory bulb → olfactory tracts → cranial nerve I (olfactory) → primary
olfactory cortex (temporal lobe) → two pathways: 1) to the frontal lobe for further interpretation and
2) to the limbic system, which is the emotional centre of the brain. Dangerous smells can trigger a
flight and fight response, appetising smells activate the digestive system via the ANS. However,
many smells just elicit emotional responses and/or memories.

89
Q

KNOW EAR DIAGRAM

A

KNOW EAR DIAGRAM

90
Q

Define transduction using the example of hearing.

A

Transduction = the stimulus energy gets converted into a graded potential. In the case of the
receptor being a separate cell (so not the peripheral axon of a sensory unipolar neuron), this is
called a receptor potential. The receptor potential leads to the release of neurotransmitters from
the receptor cell.
In the case of the ear, sound waves make the basilar membrane vibrate, which stimulates the
cochlear hair cells and their stereocilia as they move and pivot with that vibration. This opens ion
channels causing a graded receptor potential in the cochlear hair cells.

91
Q

Define transmission using the example of hearing.

A

Transmission = passing on of the receptor potential as APs along sensory (afferent) neurons and
nerves.
In the ear, the receptor potential in the cochlear hair cells causes the release of
neurotransmitters (glutamate) from those cells which causes depolarisation and APs in the
sensory neurons and their axons that eventually form the cochlear nerve.

92
Q

2.How do we hear sound? Describe the structures involved from sound waves to brain

A

Sound waves travel through the external meatus, hit the tympanic membrane and make it vibrate
→ auditory ossicles pick up, amplify and transfer the vibration to the oval window → triggers
movement of perilymph and endolymph in the cochlea → the spiral organs in the cochlea contain
cochlear hair cells (see Q 10, 11) → cochlear nerve → cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear) →
midbrain → thalamus → primary auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

93
Q

How are sound waves characterised and how does that relate to sound interpretation? Name
the units that are used for measuring the two characteristics.

A
Frequency = pitch, measured
in Hertz (Hz)
Amplitude = loudness,
measured in decibels (dB)
94
Q

structure in inner ear that is responsible for hearing

A

cochlea and cochlear hair cells

in the spiral organs

95
Q

.Define nystagmus.

A

Sudden, jerking eye movements that occur during and immediately after rotation of the head
and/or body.

96
Q

Major areas of the ear

A

External, middle and inner ear. Inner ear (labyrinth) is comprised of cochlea and vestibular
apparatus (= vestibule and semicircular canals)

97
Q

which parts OF EAR are responsible for hearing and for balance,

A

The inner ear (also called the labyrinth) contains 2 main structures — the cochlea, which is involved in hearing,

the vestibular system (consisting of the 3 semicircular canals, saccule and utricle), which is responsible for maintaining balance.

98
Q

What are the three main sources of sensory input that the brain uses in order to control
balance and equilibrium?

A

Vestibular receptors of the labyrinth (maculae in the vestibule and cristae ampullares of
semilunar canals); visual receptors (rods and cones) and proprioceptors of muscles, tendons and
ligaments (see figure 15.36)

99
Q

endocrine hormone diagram

A

endocrine hormone diagram

100
Q

define Paracrine and autocrine

A

Paracrine hormones travel only a short distance and act on close by cells in the same tissue.
Autocrine hormones are released into the extracellular fluid by the same cell that they act on.

101
Q

define Steroid- and amino acid-based hormones (provide some examples)

A

Steroid based hormones derive from cholesterol, are not water soluble, have a long half-life
and can cross the plasma membrane. They travel in the blood stream bound to plasma proteins. They act directly on the genetic material of the cell and trigger the production of
specific substances. Examples: Sex hormones and cortisol.

Amino-acid based hormones are manufactured from amino acids, are water soluble and
therefore cannot cross the plasma membrane of cells. They have to bind to specific receptors
on the target cell membranes to have an effect on them (via second messengers). They are
short-lived and travel freely in the blood. Example: Growth hormone (GH), ADH, LH, FSH, etc.

102
Q

define Pineal gland

A

Small gland in the epithalamus region that produces and secretes melatonin which regulates
sleep onset.

103
Q

Discuss how hormone release is regulated and what determines their activity.

A

• Hormones are released
➢ in response to an alteration in the cellular environment
➢ to maintain a regulated level of certain substances or other hormones
• Release has patterns – diurnal, cyclic
• Hormones are regulated by chemical or humoral (e.g. calcium levels), endocrine (e.g. TSH,
FSH) or neural (e.g. sympathetic NS) factors
• Negative and positive feedback cycles
• Up and down regulation – increased or decreased number of receptors depending on
hormone levels, e.g. (↓ hormone → ↑ receptors per cell
• Half life = hormone’s blood level decreased to half of the original concentration that was
released from the gland
➢ Inactivated by enzymes
➢ Removed by kidneys or liver and excreted in urine or faeces

104
Q

How do hormones interact?

A

Permissiveness = hormone can only have full effect if another hormone is present, e.g.
thyroxin and action of sex hormones in puberty
• Synergism = two hormones have the same effect on target cell, e.g. glucagon and
adrenaline ↑ BSL
• Antagonism = hormones that have opposite effect to each other, e.g. glucagon (↑ BSL) and
insulin (↓ BSL)

105
Q

nervous system vs endocrine system response speed

A

NS- rapid

E- slowly

106
Q

NS vs E duration of response

A

N- short duration

E- long duration

107
Q

NS vs E mode of action

A

N- action potentials and neurotransmitters

E- Hormones in the bloodstrea

108
Q

NS vs E act at what location

A

NS- act at specific locations determined by axon pathway

E- acts at diffuse locations - targets anywhere blood reaches

109
Q

NS v E how localised is response

A

NS- neurotransmitters act over very short distances

E- hormones act over long distances

110
Q

. Describe the difference between the communication of the hypothalamus with the anterior
and the posterior gland. Use the examples of oxytocin and GnRH. What are the target cells
for these hormones and what is their effect?

A

pituitary gland where they are stored. APs from the hypothalamus sent down those axons cause
release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland into the blood stream.
Action: Uterine contractions, milk ejection (let-down reflex)

GnRH: Also produced by hypothalamic neurons and released into capillary plexus to get to the
anterior pituitary gland where it binds to receptors on gonadotropic cells.
Action: GnRH stimulates gonadotropic cells to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinising hormone (LH).
111
Q

The anterior pituitary gland releases several hormones, examples

A

Growth hormone
(GH, somatotropin)

Adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH)

Prolactin

Thyroid stimulating
hormone (TSH)

Follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH)

Luteinising hormone
(LH)

112
Q

growth hormone target and effect

A

Liver, adipose tissue Stimulates bone & muscle growth,
promotes protein and fat synthesis, ↓
glucose uptake and metabolism

113
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone target and effect

A

Adrenal gland Stimulates synthesis and secretion of

adrenal cortical hormones

114
Q

prolactin target and effect

A

Uterus, breast Prepares the female breast for

breastfeeding, effect in males unclear

115
Q

thyroid stimulating hormone target and effect

A

Thyroid gland Stimulates synthesis and secretion of

thyroid hormone

116
Q

follicle stimulating hormone target and effect

A

Ovary, testes Ovarian follicle and ovulation in
females and sperm production in
males

117
Q

luteinising hormone target and effect

A

Ovary, testes Development of corpus luteum,
release of oocyte, oestrogen,
progesterone, testosterone and testes

118
Q

how the regulation of blood glucose levels is regulated.

Include hormones, organs and processes in the liver. Where do the hormones get produced?

A

s- high

r- chemo receptors in beta cells

m- pancrease releases insulin

e- glycogen formation in liver, glucose uptake by cells

r- blood glucose falls

f- normal

119
Q

what is insulin

A

➢ Produced and secreted by beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans
➢ Facilitates the rate of glucose uptake into the cells of the body to meet energy needs
of cell (ATP production!)
➢ Inhibits glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver
➢ Synthesis of glycogen (in liver) and conversion into fat (in adipose tissue) if too much
glucose

120
Q

what is glucagon

A

gon
➢ Produced and secreted by alpha cells
➢ Stimulates glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis (in liver) and lipolysis (in adipose tissue)

121
Q

Draw two flow charts/feedback cycles that illustrate both the short term and the long term
stress response. You need to include the ANS as well.

A

Draw two flow charts/feedback cycles that illustrate both the short term and the long term
stress response. You need to include the ANS as well.

122
Q

Cardiovascular system long and short termn stress response

A

short- ↑HR, ↑BP, ↑CO
Vasoconstriction of peripheral
arterioles

long- increase BP due to ↑blood volume
Vasoconstriction (RAAS)

123
Q

Respiratory system long and short term stress response

A

short-↑resps
bronchiodilation

long- nil

124
Q

liver short and long term stress response

A

short- Glycogenolysis → ↑BSL

long- Gluconeogenesis (amino acids
and fatty acids)

125
Q

skeletal muscle long and short term stress response

A

short- Increased blood flow
Glucose for fuel

long- Break down to produce amino
acids for liver to use
Use fatty acids for fuel

126
Q

adipose tissue long and short term stress response

A

short- nil

long- Releases fatty acids into blood

127
Q

kidneys long and short term response

A

short- ↓diuresis

long- Na+
reabsorption → H2O follows
→ ↑blood volume (aldosterone)

128
Q

What is the role of the thyroid gland?

A

• Affects growth of tissues (nervous, musculoskeletal, reproductive) and development
(especially during childhood and puberty)
• Cell metabolism, determines basal metabolic rate
• Heat production
• Mood
• Skin – sebum production and hydration
• Cardiac function
• GIT – promotes gut motility and helps regulating digestive juices

129
Q

hormones produced by thyroid

A

t3 and t4

130
Q

What happens to the oocyte from ovulation to implantation? What enables the zygote to travel
from the uterine tube to the uterus?

A

• Secondary oocyte gets released into peritoneal cavity during ovulation.
• Uterine tubes drape over ovary, fimbriae stiffen, and cilia sweep oocyte into tube.
• Peristalsis of the tube and beating cilia transport the oocyte towards the uterus; mucosa
produces nourishing secretions.
• If fertilisation occurs, oocyte completes meiosis II and becomes a zygote.

131
Q
  1. What are the two main stages of human development in utero? (Include time frame and main
    tasks)
A

Embryo = fertilisation to end of week 8; time of organogenesis
• Foetus = week 9 to birth; growth and maturation of organ systems

132
Q

Describe the three stages of labour

A

Dilation:

a. Early – baby’s head engaged
b. Late – baby’s head rotates, cervix 10cm dilated
2. Expulsion – baby’s head extends as it is delivered
3. Placental – placenta detaches from uterus and is expelled

133
Q

Gene

A

DNA sequence that carries information for creating proteins and non-coding
sequences

134
Q

Allele

A

different versions of the same genes on the homologous chromosomes (paternal
and maternal version); expression can be the same or different

135
Q

Meiosis

A

cell division of the gametes in order to have haploid sperms and oocytes;
causes genetic variability

136
Q

Genotype

A

genetic make-up of a person, i.e. the different alleles for traits

137
Q

Phenotype

A

expression of genes, i.e. how a trait manifests in the person

138
Q

Homozygous

A

alleles for one trait on paternal and maternal chromosomes are the same

139
Q

Heterozygous

A

alleles are different

140
Q

Describe two mechanisms during meiosis that produce genetic variability

A

Crossing over = exchange of parts between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I,
leads to recombinant chromosomes
• Independent assortment = random distribution of paternal and maternal chromosomes into
daughter cells during meiosis I

141
Q

In a marriage between 2 colour blind people, would all their children be colour blind?

A

yes

142
Q

Define epigenetics.

A

Chemical changes to the genome that do not involve alterations to the code itself, so changes in
phenotype but not genotype. These can be inherited as well.
two main mechanisms: DNA methylation = silenced for transcription and DNA acetylation = available to be
read

143
Q

. Discuss how epigenetics and the environment and their interaction can influence a person’s health.

A

The central dogma of genetics presumed that a person’s genetic make-up determined their health. With
the discovery of various regulatory mechanisms of the DNA sequences it is now apparent that those
mechanisms can override or influence the gene expression. Many of these mechanisms (epigenetic
markers, imprinting, mitochondrial DNA and non-coding RNAs) are affected by life-style choices,
especially nutrition and exposure to drugs or pathogens. As these can affect both sperms and oocytes,
these changes can be passed on to the next generations.
Many diseases are now thought to be triggered by the interaction of environmental and epigenetic factors,
e.g. cardiovascular diseases, obesity, diabetes, most cancers, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, autism,
Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s and autoimmune diseases.
If a person has a genetic pre-disposition, making healthy lifestyle choices can help prevent the onset of
the disease or at least delay it until older age.

144
Q

what are the different inheritrance types

A

autosomal dominant, recessive

x linked dominant, recessive

y linked

codominant

mitochondrial

145
Q

Why is genetic counselling important?

A

As some genetic tests may not provide all the information that families may want, the test may
subsequently require difficult decisions without providing full information, e.g. a couple who
knows their child is positive for cystic fibrosis, the ethical dilemma involves the decision to
continue or to end a pregnancy without having knowledge of the severity of the disorder.
Genetic testing for some conditions for which there are no treatments to date has the potential to
cause psychological harm, stigmatisation, and discrimination. Genetic testing for Huntington’s
disease (HD), a progressive motor and cognitive disorder with onset in midlife, is one example.
Individuals who have an affected parent have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene mutation for
HD and have the option to pursue genetic testing. A person who has the HD mutation has a
100% chance of developing the disease. There are no effective treatments or preventive
measures currently available. Thus, choosing to have genetic testing for HD is highly personal,
and it is recommended that individuals considering HD testing have extensive pre-test
counselling. Although knowledge that one has the HD gene mutation helps some individuals with
reproductive and career planning, other individuals at risk for HD are concerned about the
psychological and potential discriminatory harms from testing.

146
Q

What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

A

To start off with it’s the same as in mitosis. Two homologous chromatids duplicate and produce
two homologous chromosomes. In meiosis they that snuggle up tightly and form a tetrad during
prophase I. In metaphase I they line up in the centre, like in mitosis. In anaphase I, however, the
chromosomes separate, and each cell only has a haploid set of chromosomes (still with two
chromatids). In meiosis II (which is basically like mitosis), these split into their chromatids which
end up in the two daughter cells.

147
Q

What is the outcome of meiosis?

A
  • It reduces the chromosomal number to half (haploid)

* It introduces genetic variability (cross-over)

148
Q

Gamete ?

A

specialised cells for reproduction, i.e. sperm and ovum

149
Q

Gonad?

A

primary sex organs (testes and ovaries) that produce the gametes

150
Q

Haploid?

A

number of chromosomes in gametes → contain 23 chromosomes (n)

151
Q

Sister chromatid?

A

identical chromatids in a chromosome that is either paternal or maternal.
This replication of the DNA happens during interphase.

152
Q

Diploid

A

number of chromosomes in body cells → contain 23 pairs of homologous
pairs/sets of chromosomes → 46 chromosomes (2n)

153
Q

Describe the journey of sperm from the male testes to the uterine tube of a female

A

Testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, male urethra, vagina, cervix, uterus, uterine tube

154
Q

How is sperm adapted to fulfil its task of fertilisation?

A

They are produced in large numbers,
• Have a tail for movement,
• Have enzymes in the acrosome to digest the ovum lining before entry
• Receive nourishment from fluids of the accessory glands
• Are surrounded by that alkaline fluid to be protected from acidic environment in vagina

155
Q

What is the function of the testes?

A

Produce testosterone

• Produce sperms

156
Q

Draw a flowchart of hormone regulation for the male reproductive system – include the three
levels and effector organs

A

Draw a flowchart of hormone regulation for the male reproductive system – include the three
levels and effector organs

157
Q

What are the effects of testosterone?

A
  • Anabolic effects throughout body (↑ bone and muscle mass)
  • ↑ metabolic rate,
  • ↑ haematocrit),
  • Mood
  • Libido
  • In puberty development of secondary sex characteristics (hair pattern, voice, thicker skin)
158
Q

The female reproductive organs

• Use the models and label the diagram

A

The female reproductive organs

• Use the models and label the diagram

159
Q

vagina function

A

Copulatory organ, passage for menstrual blood and
delivery, acidic pH (prevents infection), 3 layers
(adventitia, muscularis and mucosa)

160
Q

ovaries function

A

Gonads, produce ova (eggs) and female hormones, held
in place by various ligaments (ovarian ligament), contain
follicles in various stages

161
Q

uterine tube function

A

Also known as fallopian tubes, suspended from uterus to
peritoneal cavity via various ligaments, have fimbriae at
the end, located close to ovary, fertilisation happens here!

162
Q

uterus function

A

Hollow muscular organ, fundus at top, cervix at inferior
end, 3 layers, fertilised egg embeds, and embryo can
develop

163
Q

.List the layers of the uterus wall

A

Endometrium – the mucosal lining, produces the functional that allows the fertilised egg to implant
itself
Myometrium – smooth muscle, contracts rhythmically during childbirth
Perimetrium – outermost layer

164
Q

Define ovulation and describe how it is triggered

A

Ovulation is the rupturing of the vesicular follicle and the release of the secondary oocyte into the
peritoneal cavity. Ovulation takes place approximately on day 14 of the ovarian cycle and is
triggered by a surge in LH.

165
Q

What is the function of the ovaries?

A

Produce oestrogen and progesterone

• Produce follicles and oocytes

166
Q

define Follicle

A

envelope of cells around oocyte

167
Q

define oocyte

A

gamete before it becomes proper ovum/egg (happens after fertilisation)

168
Q

define corpus luteum

A

left over follicle after ovulation, becomes an endocrine gland as it
produces progesterone and oestrogen

169
Q

define polar body

A

= small daughter cells after meiosis I and II of the secondary oocyte; die off

170
Q

4.When is the best time for conception and why?

A

Sperm can last several days in the female reproductive tract (especially the x ones) and the
secondary oocyte can live up to 24 hours after ovulation, so 48 hours prior to ovulation to 24
hours post ovulation is the best time.

171
Q

5.Draw a flowchart of hormone regulation for the female reproductive system – include the
three levels and effector organs.

A

5.Draw a flowchart of hormone regulation for the female reproductive system – include the
three levels and effector organs.

172
Q

briefly outline the phases of the ovarian and uterine cycles and the role of
the hormones.

A

Normal length of cycle is about 28 days.
Ovarian cycle: First half follicular = vesicular follicles secrete more and more oestrogen, of the
vesicular follicles becomes dominant; ovulation takes place on day 14 (positive feedback from
oestrogen causes LH surge); second half is luteal with corpus luteum producing mainly
progesterone and some oestrogen; negative feedback for FSH and LH
Uterine cycle: Menstrual phase first; then proliferative phase (day 5-14) where endometrium
starts to grow, thicken, lots of blood vessels (this can be longer than 14 days); then secretory
phase after ovulation where endometrial glands secrete nutrients, ready for a potentially fertilised
egg (always 14 days)

173
Q

The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.

A

in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell