Workbook Flashcards
The CL-600-2C10 (CRJ-700) is a _____ seat regional jet with an
approximate range of _____.
The CL-600-2C10 (CRJ-700) is a 69 seat regional jet with an approximate range of 1700 NM
The CL600-2D24 (CRJ-900) is a ______ seat regional jet with an approximate range of ______ NM.
The CL600-2D24 (CRJ-900) is a 76 seat regional jet with an approximate range of 2005 NM.
CF34-8C (variants 8C1 or 8C5B1) high-bypass engines produce _________ lbs. of normal takeoff thrust and an APR thrust of _______ for the CRJ-700 series.
CF34-8C (variants 8C1 or 8C5B1) high-bypass engines produce 12,600 lbs. of normal takeoff thrust and an APR thrust of 13,790 for the CRJ-700 series.
CF34-8C5 turbofan engines produce _______ lbs. of normal takeoff thrust; _______ lbs. of thrust (APR) are available after an engine failure in the CR-J900.
CF34-8C5 turbofan engines produce 13,600 lbs. of normal takeoff thrust; 14,510 lbs. of thrust (APR) are available after an engine failure in the CR-J900.
The ______ requires the most clearance during a turn (CRJ-700).
The tail requires the most clearance during a turn (CRJ-700).
The _____ requires the most clearance during a turn (CRJ-700).
The tail requires the most clearance during a turn (CRJ-700).
Both the forward and aft cargo bays are pressurized. Only the ______ cargo bay is ventilated by conditioned air.
Both the forward and aft cargo bays are pressurized. Only the aft cargo bay is ventilated by conditioned air.
The CRJ-700 has _____ emergency exits.
The CRJ-700 has five emergency exits.
The CRJ-900 has _____ emergency exits.
The CRJ-900 has seven emergency exits.
What is the minimum width required to make a 180 degree turn? CRJ700?
75’
What is the minimum width required to make a 180 degree turn? CRJ900?
80’
What is the hazard area in front of the engine at idle thrust?
Trailing edge
What is the hazard area in front of the engine at full thrust?
Leading edge
Which compartments on the CRJ-900 are pressurized?
Flight deck, passenger cabin, cargo, and avionics bay
RVSM REQUIRED EQUIPMENT LIST?
EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS FOR RVSM
Autopilot | MUST BE OPERATIONAL
Altitude Alerting System | MUST BE OPERATIONAL
Altitude Reporting Transponder | ONE (1) MUST BE OPERATIONAL
Air Data Computer | TWO (2) MUST BE OPERATIONAL
When conducting instrument approach procedures, always use CAT _____ to determine the applicable approach minimums. CRJ700?
C
When conducting instrument approach procedures, always use CAT _____ to determine the applicable approach minimums. CRJ900?
D
MAXIMUM RAMP WEIGHT (MRW) CRJ700?
75,250
MAXIMUM RAMP WEIGHT (MRW) CRJ900?
85,000
MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT (MTOW) CRJ700?
75,000
MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT (MTOW) CRJ900?
84,500
MAXIMUM LANDING WEIGHT (MLW) CRJ700?
67,000
MAXIMUM LANDING WEIGHT (MLW) CRJ900?
75,100
MAXIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT (MZFW) CRJ700?
62,300
MAXIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT (MZFW) CRJ900?
70,750
MINIMUM FLIGHT WEIGHT CRJ700?
62,000
MINIMUM FLIGHT WEIGHT CRJ900?
65,000
BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT CRJ700 FORWARD/AFT?
1000/3650
BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT CRJ900 FORWARD/AFT?
1700/3650
The maximum cruise Mach number during flight in RVSM airspace is ______ CRJ700?
.83
The maximum cruise Mach number during flight in RVSM airspace is ______ CRJ900?
.82
Max Vmo/Mmo?
335/.85
Maximum airspeed for turbulence penetration?
280 or .75 whichever is lower
MAXIMUM AIRPORT PRESSURE ALTITUDE FOR TAKEOFF & LANDING?
8,000
Maximum Operating Altitude?
41,000
Maximum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff and landing?
ISA +35 C
Minimum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff
-40 C
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing CRJ700/CRJ900?
10
Maximum crosswind component for takeoff on a DRY runway (Company)? CRJ700?
28
Maximum crosswind component for landing on a DRY runway (Company)? CRJ700?
30
Maximum crosswind component for takeoff on a DRY runway (Company)? CRJ900?
35
Maximum crosswind component for landing on a DRY runway (Company)? CRJ700?
32
Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a WET runway (Company).
27
Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a runway when the braking action is “FAIR”. (Company)
20
Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a runway when the braking action is “POOR”. (Company)
15
Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry runway for a crewmember on high minimums status in the CRJ- 700/900 (Company)
PIC 25
SIC 15
Flight must be within _____ minutes of a _______ airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment.
Flight must be within 60 minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment.
Using the thrust reversers to back-up the airplane, commonly referred to as Reverse Taxi Operations or Power-back, is strictly _____ in _____ situations.
Using the thrust reversers to back-up the airplane, commonly referred to as Reverse Taxi Operations or Power-back, is strictly prohibited in all situations.
TIRE LIMIT SPEED CRJ700
182
TIRE LIMIT SPEED CRJ900
195
All door indications on the _____ synoptic page represent doors leading to the _____ vessel.
All door indications on the DOORS synoptic page represent doors leading to the pressure vessel.
The ______ in the Flight Deck is the only door, leading to the pressure vessel, which is not depicted on the DOORS synoptic page.
The Crew Escape Hatch in the Flight Deck is the only door, leading to the pressure vessel, which is not depicted on the DOORS synoptic page.
Except for the ______ door, all doors are either plug or semi-plug type doors.
Except for the passenger door, all doors are either plug or semi-plug type doors.
The _____ door can be removed from its hinges during an emergency.
The Flight Deck door can be removed from its hinges during an emergency.
_______ monitor the door positions.
Proximity sensors monitor the door positions.
CRJ-900 has _____ FWD Cargo Bay Doors and _____ over-wing emergency exits
CRJ-900 has 2 FWD Cargo Bay Doors and 4 over-wing emergency exits
CRJ-700 has _____ FWD Cargo Bay Door and _____ over-wing emergency exits
CRJ-700 has 1 FWD Cargo Bay Door and 2 over-wing emergency exits
Why is there a red warning message for when the passenger door is unsafe, and amber messages for all other doors?
Because it is not a plug type door.
What is the maximum weight & number of passengers allowed on the passenger door stairs?
1000 lbs/4 people
Which two doors are not on the DOORS synoptic page?
The crew hatch and the aft equipment bay door
If a rapid decompression occurs, which protection feature has been built into the Flight Deck door?
The decompression panel
What should never occur during power switching (i.e. External power to APU)?
Using the electronic door assist
The flight deck door must be kept _____ and _____ at all times during flight except to permit access and egress in accordance with the FOM and this CFM.
The flight deck door must be kept closed and locked at all times during flight except to permit access and egress in accordance with the FOM and this CFM.
Any time the flight deck door is opened during flight, a _____ and _____ closing and locking verification must be used to verify that the door is _____ and _____.
Any time the flight deck door is opened during flight, a challenge and response closing and locking verification must be used to verify that the door is closed and locked.
Any time one of the required flight crew leaves the flight deck, _____ must be present in the flight deck to ensure that the required crewmember is not locked out of the flight deck.
Any time one of the required flight crew leaves the flight deck, another crew member must be present in the flight deck to ensure that the required crewmember is not locked out of the flight deck.
Maximum number of people / weight allowed on the PAX door stairs
4 people/1000 lbs
_____ provides automatic system monitoring, integration of system information, color logic representing importance and minimum/maximum limits, and aural alert warning messages.
EICAS provides automatic system monitoring, integration of system information, color logic representing importance and minimum/maximum limits, and aural alert warning messages.
_____ normally always displays the Primary page; _____ defaults to the Status page, however, system synoptic pages may also be accessed via _____.
EICAS Display 1 (ED1) normally always displays the Primary page; EICAS Display 2 (ED2) defaults to the Status page, however, system synoptic pages may also be accessed via ED2.
_____, _____, _____, and _____ messages appear in order of occurrence.
Warning, Caution, Advisory, and Status messages appear in order of occurrence.
_____ are the heart of the EICAS. They collect data from all aircraft systems, process the information, and then relay the information to the proper display or component.
Data Concentrator Units (DCUs) are the heart of the EICAS. They collect data from all aircraft systems, process the information, and then relay the information to the proper display or component.
Many EICAS messages are inhibited during critical phases of flight, codes relating to those messages determine the inhibit logic.
Many EICAS messages are inhibited during _____, codes relating to those messages determine the inhibit logic.
List the EICAS message colors and order of priority:
Red (Warning)
Amber (Caution)
Green (Advisory)
White (Status)
Define Warning messages, can they be boxed?
Urgent and need immediate action. You will hear a triple chime, a master warning light flashing, and possibly an aural warning. CANNOT be boxed.
Define Caution messages, when can they be paged / boxed?
Less urgent but require corrective action. You will hear a single chime, master caution flashing. These can be boxed with CAS button. **NOTE both engines must be stabilized on the ground to box messages ont he ground.*
Define Advisory messages, can they be boxed?
This message shows that a safe condition exists. You CANNOT box advisory messages.
Define Status messages, can they be boxed?
This message indicates an abnormal or low priority failure that has occurred. You can box it with the STAT button.
After boxing your Caution / Status messages you receive an additional message, what will occur?
Caution messages will show up on top of the box accompanied with a single chime. Status messages will explode the box of messages.
How will an Endeavor crew respond to an abnormal message?
Follow the QRH 14-3. Fly the a/c, cancel the aural, identify malfunction, read the checklist and DO NOT HURRY.
What happens if ED1 fails in flight?
The primary page will automatically transfer to ED2.
How can you display EICAS pages on the MFD?
Use the display reversionary panel.
If the MFD fails, can you display it on another screen?
No
When will the N1 vibration gauges display?
Engines are stabilized (oil press and temp).
Which indications are not always displayed on the EICAS displays?
APU gauges Flaps, landing gear and brake temps.
Following an EICAS Control Panel failure, which buttons remain operative?
PRI (primary), STAT, CAS, and STEP.
Can the Master Warning / Caution switchlights be dimmed?
Yes
Can the volume for the aural warnings be turned down?
No, however some can be muted.
List everything that might give you a takeoff configuration warning:
Parking brake on
autopilot on
flaps or spoilers not in t/o configuration
trims (rudder, aileron, horizontal stabilizer) out of range.
Would you receive GEN 1 OVLD message during the takeoff roll?
No
When would you receive the GEN 1 OVLD message after takeoff?
Out of TOGA, RA 400ft or 30 sec.
Would STALL FAIL be present during the takeoff roll?
Yes
Would you receive a PASSENGER DOOR warning message while landing?
No
When would you receive a PASSENGER DOOR warning after landing?
30 seconds after air to ground or greater than 400 ft for 30 seconds (go around).
Emergency lighting is provided by _____, ______, and _____.
Emergency lighting is provided by photo-luminescent floor track tapes, ceiling and floor level emergency flood lights, and wall and floor level exit signs.
Emergency lighting may be turned on through switches in the _____ and ______.
Emergency lighting may be turned on through switches in the flight deck and on the Flight Attendant’s panel.
Independent battery packs provide the emergency lights with _____ of operational power
Independent battery packs provide the emergency lights with 10 minutes of operational power
Which lights come on when selecting the RECOG/TAXI lights?
Inboard lights
Which lights come on when selecting the L or R LANDING lights?
Both lights Landing and Recog
Which light switches will cause the FDR to turn on?
Beacon or
Strobe if you forget both switches then WOW
When will the emergency lights illuminate when the EMER LTS switch is in the ARM position?
Loss of AC or DC ess bus.
The taxi lights must be switched _____ whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of _____ minutes.
The taxi lights must be switched off whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of 10 minutes.
Bottled oxygen is provided for all _____ during an emergency.
Bottled oxygen is provided for all flight deck crewmembers during an emergency.
Passengers and Flight Attendants (at their seats) are provided with _____, they are activated by pulling down on the masks following deployment.
Passengers and Flight Attendants (at their seats) are provided with chemical oxygen generators, they are activated by pulling down on the masks following deployment.
Oxygen system pressure may be found on the _____.
Oxygen system pressure may be found on the STATUS page.
_____ fire extinguishers (_____ halons, _____ water) are available onboard the aircraft.
Four fire extinguishers (three halons, one water) are available onboard the aircraft.
_____ accompany each fire extinguisher station.
Personal Breathing Equipment (PBEs) accompany each fire extinguisher station.
Where are the four fire extinguishers located?
Flight deck, Forward entrance, Forward wardrobe and aft bulkhead in the cabin
Where are the PBEs located?
Within 3 feet of every extinguisher.
How long will the PBE provide adequate air supply?
15 minutes.
How do you know if the crew oxygen has over-pressurized?
You will receive an EICAS caution message and you will see the frangible disk is missing on the outside of the aircraft.
How can the passenger oxygen masks be dropped manually/automatically?
Manually by pressing the Pass Oxy switch to on and automatically they will drop at 14000 +/-300.
The primary purpose of the APU is to provide ______.
The primary purpose of the APU is to provide electrical power.
_____ of the APU controls all facets of APU operation automatically.
The Electronic Control Unit (ECU) of the APU controls all facets of APU operation automatically.
_____, for the APU, exists in flight and on the ground (the bottles will only discharge automatically on the ground).
Automatic fire protection, for the APU, exists in flight and on the ground (the bottles will only discharge automatically on the ground).
_____, along with the APU’s _____ will restrict the Load Control Valve’s (LCV) pneumatic output during periods of abnormally high EGT, the valve will be commanded closed as a result of interlock protection.
ACSC 1, along with the APU’s ECU will restrict the Load Control Valve’s (LCV) pneumatic output during periods of abnormally high EGT, the valve will be commanded closed as a result of interlock protection.
Describe the critical rotation speed of the APU, and why it is important
4-30% RPM and it is moving too slow to cause damage. Above 30% circulates enough oil to cool and lubricate
What is the minimum battery voltage required to start the APU?
22V
What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is selected on the ground?
Door open, Inbite, Gauges appear, SOV and pump open or PDIGS
What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is selected in the air?
Inbite, Gauges appear, SOV open. PIGS and pump
What happens when you press the START/STOP switch-light on the APU during start / shut-down in the air?
Start illuminates, start status message, starter cutout 46-60% and then 99% +2 seconds=available for electrical loading. Shutdown=Overspeed indication to the ECS and shuts down apu.
What happens when you press the START/STOP switch-light on the APU during start / shut-down on the ground?
Start illuminates, start status message, starter cutout 46-60% and then 99% +2 seconds=available for electrical loading. Shutdown=Overspeed indication to the ECS and shuts down apu.
When can you re-start the APU following a normal shut-down?
After the door closes or a 2 min cranking limitation
From which tank does the APU draw fuel?
Left collector tank.
Which pump provides pressurized fuel to the APU?
APU pump
If the APU pump were to fail, how would the APU be able to continue running?
The gear box driven pump will supply fuel pressure thru a bypass valve in the APU’s fuel metering unit.
What does the green AVAIL light indicate on the APU START/STOP push button?
Electrical and pneumatic loading.
From where does the APU receive intake / cooling air and where is the component located?
APU door located on the upper right rear of the fuselage
Which two flight deck buttons will close the APU SOV?
Power/Fuel or APY Fire Push switch light.
How is the APU enclosure cooled?
Exhaust educator.
Name three times the APU will shut down automatically in the air?
Fire, overspeed, RPM signal loss, DC power loss or ECU failure.
Which factors influence APU door position in flight?
Mach #, APU RPM and WOW.
Which APU indication is always shown on the Status page?
Door position
What is the difference between how the system will address an APU fire on the ground vs. in the air?
On the ground the bottle will activate automatically and in the air it will need to be activated manually by the pilot.
Name all of the ways that the APU can be shut-down from the flight deck:
Start/Stop, Power/Fuel and APU Fire Push.
Name all of the ways that the APU can be shut down from outside the aircraft:
Within APU enclosure and External Services Panel.
What is the max altitude for APU start?
37,000
What is the max altitude for APU operations?
41,000
What is the max altitude for starting engines using the APU?
21,000
The maximum permissible load on the APU generator is:
40 kVA
Minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground is?
-40 C
The APU starter motor duty cycle is as follows:
o Do not perform more than _____ starts / start attempts in one hour.
o NOTE: A _____ minute delay must be observed between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU [fuel] drainage.
The APU starter motor duty cycle is as follows:
o Do not perform more than 3 starts / start attempts in one hour.
o NOTE: A 2 minute delay must be observed between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU [fuel] drainage.
APU bleed air extraction is not permitted above _____ ft.
25,000
Engine Start during Ground Operations:
No bleed air extraction
limitation. ______ engine may be
started using the APU as a
bleed air source.
Each
Two _____, an _____, an _____, and _____ can all be used as AC power sources.
Two Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs), an Auxiliary Power Unit (APU), an Air Driven Generator (ADG), and external power can all be used as AC power sources.
_____ allow the IDGs to always spin at a constant RPM; the _____s are depicted on the AC ELEC synoptic page as _____ & _____.
Constant Speed Drives (CSD) allow the IDGs to always spin at a constant RPM; the CSDs are depicted on the AC ELEC synoptic page as IDG 1 & IDG 2.
Following a _____ condition in the CSD, the FAULT light will illuminate and IDG 1(2) caution message will present. The IDGs will either be disconnected manually by the crew or automatically via system protection; once disconnected, the IDGs cannot be reconnected in flight.
Following a High Oil Temperature / Low Oil Pressure (HOT/LOP) condition in the CSD, the FAULT light will illuminate and IDG 1(2) caution message will present. The IDGs will either be disconnected manually by the crew or automatically via system protection; once disconnected, the IDGs cannot be reconnected in flight.
The ______ condition protects the Electrical system from a failed bus.
The AUTO XFER FAIL condition protects the Electrical system from a failed bus.
_____ are completely automatic, they will close after system failures to prevent critical DC buses from losing power.
DC ties are completely automatic, they will close after system failures to prevent critical DC buses from losing power.
List all of the potential AC power sources on the aircraft:
2 IDG, ADG, APU, and if needed the external AC
Which AC buses must be energized for the APU and MAIN battery chargers to charge the batteries?
Main= AC Bus
APU= AC service bus.
What does the AVAIL indication on the AC EXT power switchlight indicate?
Power is connected and has correct phase, voltage and frequency.
What is the difference between selecting AC external power on the Electric Services Panel and selecting the AC external power on the External Services Panel?
External panel puts plane into service configuration where only AC service bus is powered. Inside panel establishes normal AC power and all AC buses are powered.
What are the amp/hours for the APU and Main batteries?
APU 43 amp
Main 17 amp
What is the limitation regarding DC power only on the ground,
why?
5 minutes due to fans for cooling are AC power
Which lights are powered in the DC SERVICE configuration?
Pax cabin lighting, Nav, Dome, and Beacon
You walk into the cabin after the secure check and you notice that the emergency lights are on, what do you have to do?
Off to energize, than arm.
What is the effect of turning off the BATTERY MASTER switchin flight?
Nothing
In flight, what powers the DC BATT BUS?
ESS TRU 2
What happens when you bring the BATTERY MASTER switch to the on position?
Connects the main and apu battery direct buses to the battery bus.
What occurs when you select the DC SERVICE switch to on, and from where will the DC SERVICE bus receive its power?
DC service bus is powered by the APU battery direct bus. Service and boarding lights, nav, lav galley, and lights.
What are the approximate voltage, phase, and frequency of the AC power?
115v, 3 phase and 400hz.
The AC ESS XFER switchlight has illuminated, what does this mean?
AC bus 2 is now powering AC ess bus.
What is the GCU priority for AC BUS 1?
Gen 1, APU, Gen 2 External.
What is a Constant Speed Drive, and how is it depicted on the AC electrical synoptic?
Uses internal oil system to change the engines variable speed into a constant RPM required for generator operation. It is depicted as an IDG.
What would cause the IDG to automatically disconnect?
Severe overtemp or overtourque.
Following disconnect, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
No maintenance must do this.
What would you see on the electrical panel as a result of a TRU 1 failure?
Nothing on the panel but you would see the main tie will close and the utility bus will be shed. You will see this on the electrical synoptic page and EICAS status messages.
When will the DC EMER Bus appear on the DC Electrical page?
Bus fault exists or one its power sources are not powered.
What would you lose following a DC EMER Bus failure?
Fire Protection & SOV
Where would the ESS TRU 2 Transfer Contactor be visible, and what would cause it to close?
You will see it in the upper right on DC synoptic and it will show when there are multiple failures.
What will cause the ADG to automatically deploy?
Loss of all AC power inflight.
Which buses will be powered following ADG deployment?
ADG bus, AC Ess Bus, DC ess bus, DC battery Bus and DC emer bus.
Why does the EMER PWR ONLY checklist ask you if the engines are running?
You may have a dual engine flameout
What does the ADG PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch do?
Restores AC logic with AC ess bus and hydraulic 3b pump.
When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically?
AC or DC Ess bus failure and in arm position.
LOAD LIMITATION
MAIN GENERATOR (EACH)
0 – 41,000 ft 40kVA
LOAD LIMITATION
APU GENERATOR
0 – 41,000 ft 40kVA
In flight, the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is _____ amps.
In flight, the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is 120 amps.
To protect the flight compartment CRT displays, the maximum permissible time for _____ operations with DC power only is _____ minutes.
To protect the flight compartment CRT displays, the maximum permissible time for ground operations with DC power only is 5 minutes.
A circuit breaker must _____ be reset or cycled (i.e. opened or closed) unless doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in this manual or unless, in the judgement of the pilot in command, that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker is necessary for the _____ of the flight.
A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled (i.e. opened or closed) unless doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in this manual or unless, in the judgement of the pilot in command, that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker is necessary for the safe completion of the flight.
