Quizlet Flashcards
1
Q
- (120). How will an engine failure affect the takeoff mode (TOTO)? (A). Pitch commands will be 15 degrees nose up (B). Pitch will be commanded to maintain V2 (C). Pitch commands will be lowered as appropriate (D). Engine failures have no affect on takeoff mode
A
(C). Pitch commands will be lowered as appropriate
2
Q
- (170). Pressing the SPEED button on the FCP twice will: (A). Select DES mode (B). Select IAS mode (C). Select CLB mode (D). Deselect speed mode
A
B). Select IAS mode
3
Q
- (50). Both flight directors are active during takeoff, approach and go- around. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
4
Q
- (80). What would be indicated if only the left green light of a mode button on the FCP illuminated when that mode was selected? (A). The command was acknowledged by both FCCs (B). The command was acknowledged and the autopilot is not engaged (C). The command was not acknowledged (D). The command was acknowledged by one FCC
A
(D). The command was acknowledged by one FCC
5
Q
- (340). Selecting the SYNC button will have no effect if the autopilot is engaged. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
6
Q
- (90). What will pressing the course select knob on the FCP accomplish when navigating to a VOR? (A). Selects the cross side NAV source (B). Automatically selects the inbound course for an ILS (C). Causes the course pointer to indicate the zero deviation (direct) (D). Nothing
A
(C). Causes the course pointer to indicate the zero deviation (direct)
7
Q
- (360). With the autopilot engaged, pressing the onside FD pushbutton will (A). Disconnect the autopilot only (B). Have no effect on the coupled FD or autopilot (C). Remove the coupled FD and disconnect the autopilot (D). Remove the offside FD
A
(B). Have no effect on the coupled FD or autopilot
8
Q
- (290). What is the lowest altitude the autopilot can be used on a precision approach? (A). 600 AGL (B). 400 AGL (C). 80 AGL (D). 50 AGL
A
(C). 80 AGL
9
Q
- (500). Pressing the FD Sync button on the control yoke will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
10
Q
- (110). Which heading will the takeoff mode (TOTO) hold? (A). The heading selected by the heading bug (B). The aircraft heading at the moment of pressing the TOGA button (C). The heading at the moment of weight off wheels (D). No heading is held, TOTO is wings level only
A
C). The heading at the moment of weight off wheels
11
Q
- (160). During an initial climb, the flight crew has 5,000 ft set in the altitude selector. The pilot has noted an ALTS CAP annunciation on his FMA. At that moment, ATC clears the flight to 10,000 ft which was immediately set in the altitude selector. If no other changes are made, at what altitude will the aircraft level off? (A). 5,000 ft (B). 10,000 ft (C). The final altitude in the flight plan (D). The pilot must press ALT at a desired altitude for the airplane to level off
A
(A). 5,000 ft
12
Q
- (30). The FCCs provide instructions to the: (A). Flight directors (B). Yaw dampers (C). Autopilot servomotors (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
13
Q
- (320). Which mode on the FCP will have no annunciation in the FMA when selected? (A). ½ BANK (B). TURB (C). B/C (D). ALT
A
(B). TURB
14
Q
- (460). ‘A’ (boxed) in the amber displayed on the PFD indicates: (A). Failure of the aileron trim (B). Failure of the aileron PCU (C). Significant aileron pressure is being held by the autopilot (D). Autopilot failure
A
(C). Significant aileron pressure is being held by the autopilot
15
Q
- (440). If a new flight director mode becomes active, the annunciation in the FMA will (A). Flash green for 5 seconds then remain steady (B). Flash white 10 times then remain steady (C). Flash yellow then green (D). Flash red then green
A
A). Flash green for 5 seconds then remain steady
16
Q
- (330). Which mode is automatically cleared upon an onside localizer capture? (A). TURB (B). ½ BANK (C). Both A and B (D). Neither A or B
A
C). Both A and B
17
Q
- (70). The two green lights located on either side of each mode button on the FCP: (A). Indicate which modes are captured (B). Indicate the FCCs have acknowledged the request (C). Indicate that the autopilot is on (D). All of the above
A
B). Indicate the FCCs have acknowledged the request
18
Q
- (510). With the autopilot engaged, pressing the offside FD button on the FCP will: (A). Have no effect (B). Remove the offside FD (C). Remove both FDs (D). Disengage the autopilot
A
B). Remove the offside FD
19
Q
- (430). When in NAV mode and the captured navigation signal is lost, the FD will: (A). Automatically arm the appropriate NAV mode (B). Will revert to HDG mode (C). Disappear (D). Will default to ROLL mode
A
(D). Will default to ROLL mode
20
Q
- (410). If an overspeed were to occur in a VS descent: (A). The overspeed clacker will sound (B). The FCC will synch the speed bug to Vmo/Mmo -5kts. (C). The command bars will pitch up to slow the aircraft (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
21
Q
- (130). When performing a localizer back course approach, the pilot should: (A). Select the front course of the localizer using the course select knob (B). Select the back course of the localizer using the course select knob (C). Press the B/C button on the FCP (D). Both A and C are correct
A
D). Both A and C are correct
22
Q
- (260). Which of the following will NOT disconnect the autopilot? (A). Windshear caution (B). Windshear warning (C). Stall warning (D). The loss of both stab trim channels
A
A). Windshear caution
23
Q
- (140). Pressing the TOGA button will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
24
Q
- (60). Which statement is true regarding the FMA? (A). The active/captured field is located to the left of the cyan vertical line (B). The active/captured modes are indicated in green (C). Modes that are capturing will flash green for 5 seconds (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
25
Q
- (270). A windshear warning or a stall will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
26
Q
- (400). Illumination of the lights on both sides of a mode push button indicate (A). That the mode has captured (B). That the FCC 1 and FCC 2 have acknowledged that input (C). The mode is armed (D). The autopilot is on
A
(B). That the FCC 1 and FCC 2 have acknowledged that input
27
Q
- (100). Pressing the FD SYNC button will: (A). Synchronize FD1 and FD2 if a comparator problem exists (B). Select the same vertical and lateral modes for the pilot and copilot FMAs (C). Synchronizes the FD command bars to the aircrafts current vertical and lateral values (D). Synchronize the autopilot to the flight director
A
C). Synchronizes the FD command bars to the aircrafts current vertical and lateral values
28
Q
- (280). What is the lowest altitude the autopilot can be used on a non- precision approach? (A). 600 AGL (B). 400 AGL (C). 80 AGL (D). 50 AGL
A
B). 400 AGL
29
Q
- (420). Vertical Pitch Mode (PTCH) is changed by: (A). Stab trim switches (B). Vertical speed pitch wheel (C). Pitch trim wheel on control wheel (D). Selecting another mode
A
(B). Vertical speed pitch wheel
30
Q
- (10). While in takeoff mode, the vertical aspect of the command bars will: (A). Pitch up to a fixed 10 deg. angle (B). Pitch to a lower angle following the failure of an engine (C). Have a variable pitch up angle with both engines operating (D). Both B and C above
A
D). Both B and C above
31
Q
- (380). There are two green status indicators lights on the Flight control panel. These represent: (A). FCC 1 and FCC 2 (B). FD 1 and FD 2 (C). FCP 1 and FCP 2 (D). Autopilot 1 and Autopilot 2
A
A). FCC 1 and FCC 2
32
Q
- (350). A red HDG indication on a PFD would indicate what? (A). The ADC data is invalid (B). The IRS data is invalid (C). Cross-side data is being used (D). The heading difference between both PFDs exceeds 10°
A
(B). The IRS data is invalid
33
Q
- (190). Each click on the vertical speed wheel equates to approximately: (A). 100 fpm (B). 200 fpm (C). 500 fpm (D). 1,000 fpm
A
(A). 100 fpm
34
Q
- (470). If you engage the ALT mode pushbutton on the FCP, the flight director will: (A). Command capture and tracking of the preselected altitude (B). Command a level off and maintain the new altitude in which it leveled off (C). Maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection (D). Clear the preselected altitude and delete the aural warnings
A
(C). Maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection
35
Q
- (250). Of the following, which will disconnect the autopilot? (A). Activating the stab trim switches (B). Pressing the AP ENG button on the FCP (C). Pressing the YD DISC button (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
36
Q
- (230). Choose the correct statement regarding autopilot engagement: (A). Only one IRS is required for autopilot engagement (B). Both stab trim channels must be engaged for autopilot engagement (C). Both yaw dampers must be engaged for autopilot engagement (D). Only one FCC is required for autopilot engagement
A
A). Only one IRS is required for autopilot engagement
37
Q
- (520). Choose the correct statement: (A). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will maintain the bank angle present at the time of selection (B). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will roll wings level if the bank angle was less than 10°at the time of selection (C). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will maintain the bank angle present at the time of selection if it was greater than 5° (D). The default lateral mode of the FCC is HDG
A
C). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will maintain the bank angle present at the time of selection if it was greater than 5°
38
Q
- (150). Above what altitude will half bank mode be selected automatically? (A). 15,000 (B). 31,000 (C). 31,600 (D). 42,000
A
C). 31,600
39
Q
- (490). Choose the correct statement: (A). When CLB mode is engaged the FCC will command the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed regardless of climb rate (B). When DES mode is engaged the FCC will command the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed but will never allow the aircraft to pitch down greater than -1000 feet (C). When IAS or MACH mode is engaged the FCC commands the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed regardless of climb rate (D). IAS or MACH mode will be engaged by the first push of the speed pushbutton
A
C). When IAS or MACH mode is engaged the FCC commands the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed regardless of climb rate
40
Q
- (450). Each click on the vertical speed pitch wheel equates to: (A). 1/2 degree change of pitch (B). 100 ft/min change of vertical speed (C). One knot change of airspeed (D). Both A and B are correct
A
D). Both A and B are correct
41
Q
- (480). The altitude alert system will provide an aural alert if the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude by: (A). 200 feet (B). 100 feet (C). 50 feet (D). 300 feet
A
A). 200 feet
42
Q
- (390). If the aircraft is in ALTS or ALT mode and an overspeed occurs: (A). The AFCS automatically reverts to IAS/MACH mode, the speed bug synchronizes to Vmo/Mmo - 5 knots (B). The autopilot will automatically disconnect to initiate pilot control (C). The overspeed clacker will sound but the aircraft will not leave selected altitude, the pilot must reduce speed manually (D). A higher preselected altitude will be selected by the FCC and the aircraft will pitch up to capture the new altitude while reducing speed
A
C). The overspeed clacker will sound but the aircraft will not leave selected altitude, the pilot must reduce speed manually
43
Q
- (210). Auto changeover from IAS to Mach occurs at 31,600 ft. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
44
Q
- (240). The autopilot servomotors control: (A). The aileron (B). The elevator (C). The rudder (D). Both A and B are correct
A
D). Both A and B are correct
45
Q
- (310). Operations with an ILS glidepath angle that exceeds ________ degrees are prohibited. (A). 4.0 (B). 3.5 (C). 3.0 (D). 3.25
A
B). 3.5
46
Q
- (370). Half bank is activated manually by pressing the 1/2 bank button on the FCP and automatically when climbing through 31,600 ft. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
47
Q
- (300). How must the ATC transponder be set for operation in to RVSM airspace? (A). The transponder must be selected to #1 (B). The transponder must be selected to #2 (C). The transponder must be selected to the same side as the autopilot coupled ADC source (D). The transponder must be selected to the opposite side as the autopilot coupled ADC source
A
C). The transponder must be selected to the same side as the autopilot coupled ADC source
48
Q
- (20). There are ____ FCCs which process _______. (A). 2, ADC information only (B). 2, IRS and ADC information (C). 3, IRS and ADC information (D). 4, AHRS heading information and ADC information
A
B). 2, IRS and ADC information
49
Q
- (220). In order to engage the autopilot, which of the following conditions must exist? (A). At least one yaw damper must be engaged (B). Both FCCs must be operational (C). At least one IRS and one ADC must be available (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
50
Q
- (40). Pressing the XFR button on the FCP will: (A). Select which flight director is active (B). Revert the FD to its original setting upon capturing the onside localizer (C). Selects the operable flight director if the active FD has failed (D). Both A and C are correct
A
D). Both A and C are correct
51
Q
- (80). Use of thrust reversers on the ground to slow taxi speeds is: (A). Approved with no restrictions (B). Not approved (C). Approved on uncontaminated surfaces (D). Approved during two engine taxi
A
B). Not approved
52
Q
- (10). What is the overall height of the CRJ 900? (A). 24’1” (B). 25’6’ (C). 24’10” (D). 28’
A
A). 24’1”
53
Q
- (40). What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 deg. turn for the CRJ 900? (A). 80’ (B). 90’ (C). 57’ (D). 75’
A
A). 80’
54
Q
- (50). Where is the antenna for ATC 1 located? (A). The tail (B). Lower forward fuselage (C). Upper forward fuselage (D). Upper aft fuselage
A
(C). Upper forward fuselage
55
Q
- (70). Miniumum crew required to taxi the aircraft are: (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(B). 2
56
Q
- (30). What is the overall length of the aircraft CRJ 900? (A). 119’4” (B). 118’11” (C). 76’3” (D). 110’
A
B). 118’11”
57
Q
- (20). What is the wingspan of the CRJ 900? (A). 75’ (B). 76’‘3” (C). 81’6” (D). 106’8”
A
C). 81’6”
58
Q
- (100). The beacon must be on for all pushback or towing operations unless “dark” aircraft operations have been approved at that airport. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
59
Q
- (60). Towbarless Towing is not approved with the CRJ 900. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
60
Q
- (110). A special logbook entry is required when: (A). Go around is completed (B). Engine airstart (C). Touch and go landings are completed (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
61
Q
- (190). The APU utilizes its own oil cooler to maintain oil temperatures within an acceptable range. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
62
Q
- (150). The APU fuel pump receives its power from: (A). AC BUS (B). DC BUS 1 (C). DC EMER BUS (D). BATTERY BUS
A
D). BATTERY BUS
63
Q
- (290). The EICAS caution message “APU FAULT” received in flight will always be followed by the APU automatically shutting down. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
64
Q
- (360). If the APU oil pressure switch has failed: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will shut down on the ground (C). The APU will continue to run on the ground (D). Both A and C
A
B). The APU will shut down on the ground
65
Q
- (180). The APU uses the air/oil heat exchanger of the left main engine. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
66
Q
- (250). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located in the aft equipment bay. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
67
Q
- (330). Loss of both EGT sensor channels in flight will cause the APU to shutdown. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
68
Q
- (210). What is required to start the APU? (A). AC power (B). DC power from the batteries (C). DC power from the batteries or external DC (D). DC power or external air
A
(B). DC power from the batteries
69
Q
- (80). The maximum ECS bleed altitude for the APU is: (A). 37,000’ (B). 41,000’ (C). 25,000’ (D). 21,000’
A
(C). 25,000’
70
Q
- (240). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located on the defuel/refill panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
71
Q
- (100). The fuel source for the APU is: (A). From the left collector tank (B). From the right main tank (C). From the right engine feed manifold (D). From the fuel transfer manifold
A
(A). From the left collector tank
72
Q
- (140). It is possible to manually select bleed air from the APU and a main engine. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
73
Q
- (370). If the APU door position sensor signal was lost: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will continue to run on the ground (C). The APU will shut down on the ground (D). Both A and C
A
D). Both A and C
74
Q
- (170). Choose the correct statement: (A). To prevent compressor surge, the APU uses VG stator vanes to control air flow through the compressor (B). To prevent compressor surge, the APU ECU decreases RPM to maintain airflow through the compressor (C). To prevent compressor surge, some compressor air is vented overboard by a surge control valve (D). To prevent compressor surge, the APU ECU increases fuel flow to burn with excess air in the compressor
A
(C). To prevent compressor surge, some compressor air is vented overboard by a surge control valve
75
Q
- (10). The APU compartment is ventilated by: (A). APU compressor by-pass air (B). APU exhaust eductor (C). A fan, mechanically driven from the APU gearbox (D). The APU compartment requires no ventilation
A
B). APU exhaust eductor
76
Q
- (120). The green AVAIL light in the APU start/stop switchlight means: (A). APU bleed air is available (B). APU is able to supply electrical loading (C). APU is running (D). APU BITE test is complete
A
(B). APU is able to supply electrical loading
77
Q
- (110). Fuel for the APU is provided via: (A). A cross-flow/APU pump drawing fuel from both wings (B). An APU pump drawing fuel from the left collector tank (C). Right engine fuel feed manifold through a negative g check valve (D). Both a and c are correct
A
(B). An APU pump drawing fuel from the left collector tank
78
Q
- (60). The maximum operating altitude for the APU is: (A). 37,000’ (B). 41,000’ (C). 25,000’ (D). 21,000’
A
(B). 41,000’
79
Q
- (260). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located on the external service panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
80
Q
- (400). An APU overspeed in flight will cause the APU to shut down. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
81
Q
- (40). What is the minimum time between APU start attempts that must be observed before another attempt is made? (A). 10 seconds (B). 90 seconds (C). 2 minutes (D). 20 minutes
A
(C). 2 minutes
82
Q
- (130). The EGT arc on the APU gauge changes with loading. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
83
Q
- (220). The APU door has only two positions on the ground. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
84
Q
- (390). The minimum battery voltage to start the APU is: (A). There is no stated minimum (B). 22 volts (C). 24 volts (D). 28 volts
A
(B). 22 volts
85
Q
- (50). What is the maximum number of APU start attempts that can be made in one hour? (A). 2 (B). 4 (C). 5 (D). None of the above
A
D). None of the above
86
Q
- (270). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located in the avionics bay. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
87
Q
- (380). To start the APU: (A). Only the Main Battery is required (B). Only the APU Battery is required (C). Both Main and APU batteries are required (D). The APU battery or External AC is required
A
C). Both Main and APU batteries are required
88
Q
- (280). The EICAS caution message “APU FAULT” received on the ground will be followed by the APU automatically shutting down. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
89
Q
- (300). Dashes in place of the APU door position indicate: (A). The door has failed open (B). The door has failed closed or is not in a commanded position (C). The door position is unknown (D). None of the above
A
(C). The door position is unknown
90
Q
- (90). The maximum main engine start altitude using bleed from the APU is: (A). 37,000’ (B). 41,000’ (C). 25,000’ (D). 21,000’
A
(D). 21,000’
91
Q
- (320). An ECU internal failure in flight will cause the APU to shutdown. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
92
Q
- (350). If the APU oil filter is in an impending bypass condition: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will shut down on the ground (C). The APU will continue to run on the ground (D). Both A and C
A
B). The APU will shut down on the ground
93
Q
- (200). Choose the correct statement: (A). The APU LCV will not be open if a main engine PRSOV is open (B). The APU can supplement bleed air pressure in the bleed air manifold during low thrust settings in flight (C). If the main engines are operating, the APU LCV will remain open until the APU is shutdown (D). Bleed air from the APU can be used for wing anti-icing during single engine operations
A
A). The APU LCV will not be open if a main engine PRSOV is open
94
Q
- (160). The APU generator is rated at: (A). 40 v, 115 Hz AC (B). 40 Hz, 28 VDC (C). 115 VAC, 28 VDC (D). 115 VAC, 40 kVA
A
D). 115 VAC, 40 kVA
95
Q
- (310). If an EGT overtemperature is sensed in flight: (A). The APU will shut down (B). The APU will continue to run (C). The APU will shut down, the fire bell will sound, and the FIREX bottle will be discharged (D). The APU will shut down and the fire bell will sound
A
B). The APU will continue to run
96
Q
- (70). The maximum starting altitude for the APU is: (A). 37,000’ (B). 41,000’ (C). 25,000’ (D). 21,000’
A
(A). 37,000’
97
Q
- (20). The primary function of the APU is: (A). To supply bleed air for main engine start (B). To supply bleed air for pressurization (C). To drive a 40 KVA generator (D). To augment thrust for take off
A
(C). To drive a 40 KVA generator
98
Q
- (410). If the APU’s oil pressure falls below a predetermined level: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will continue running in flight (C). The APU will continue running on the ground (D). None of the above
A
(B). The APU will continue running in flight
99
Q
- (340). High oil temperature will cause: (A). The APU to shutdown on the ground (B). The APU to shutdown in flight (C). The APU to continue to run in flight (D). Both A and C
A
(D). Both A and C
100
Q
- (230). Choose the correct statement: (A). In flight, the APU door is either open or closed (B). The APU intake door will open for ventilation if an overheat condition exists in the APU compartment (C). On the ground, the APU door position varies in response to intake air demand as determined by the ECU (D). In flight, the APU door position is variable depending on RPM and aircraft speed
A
(D). In flight, the APU door position is variable depending on RPM and aircraft speed
101
Q
- (30). What is the minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground? (A). +40°C (B). -40°C (C). ISA -35°C (D). -25°C
A
(B). -40°C
102
Q
- (500). The appropriate setup on the Audio Control Panel with the oxygen mask on is: (A). I/C selected, SPKR on, MASK selected (B). R/T selected, SPKR on, BOOM selected (C). I/C selected, SPKR on, BOOM selected (D). I/C selected, SPKR off, MASK selected
A
(A). I/C selected, SPKR on, MASK selected
103
Q
- (190). The 1/2 switch on the RTU is disabled when: (A). An RTU disable switch is selected (B). An RTU fails (C). AC Bus one has failed (D). All of the above
A
(B). An RTU fails
104
Q
- (440). Under normal circumstances what frequencies appear in the Backup Tuning Unit? (A). COM 1, NAV 2 (B). COM 1, NAV 1 (C). COM 2, NAV 1 (D). COM 1, COM 2
A
(B). COM 1, NAV 1
105
Q
- (250). When selected, the EMER (on the interphone control unit) switchlight flashes amber and a red light flashes on the mid-cabin overhead exit sign. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
106
Q
- (490). When ground service personnel are connected to the service interphone system, they will hear you: (A). Anytime you push the TX switch to transmit (B). Only when you use the hand mic (C). Anytime your headset is on hot mic (D). Only when you transmit on INT/SVC selection
A
(C). Anytime your headset is on hot mic
107
Q
- (40). How is the volume of the PA adjusted? (A). The PA volume knob on either ACP (B). Automatically for aircraft background noise (C). The PA volume knob at the flight attendant station (D). There is no volume adjustment
A
(B). Automatically for aircraft background noise
108
Q
- (10). How can the volume of the aural warning system be adjusted? (A). With the speaker volume knob on either ACP (B). With the HI/LO switch on the miscellaneous test panel (C). Automatically, with the engines running (D). It cannot be adjusted
A
(D). It cannot be adjusted
109
Q
- (130). To regain cross-side tuning with a failed RTU, the RTU INHIB switch corresponding to the operating unit must be pressed. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
110
Q
- (340). PA volume is adjusted automatically for the aircraft background noise. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
111
Q
- (410). The RTU 1 and RTU 2 INHIBIT switches located in the backup tuning unit: (A). Inhibit automatic FMS tuning of the main RTUs (B). Inhibit automatic FMS tuning if the backup turning unit (C). Permit cross-side tuning with one failed RTU (D). Allow the backup tuning unit to be used for communication
A
(C). Permit cross-side tuning with one failed RTU
112
Q
- (50). While on the RTU main page for COM 1, the pilot forgets to select RETURN, what will be the outcome? (A). COM 1 will be inoperative until RETURN is selected (B). The squelch will turn off after 20 seconds (C). The top page cannot be accessed until RETURN is selected (D). The RTU will automatically return to the top page after 20 seconds
A
(D). The RTU will automatically return to the top page after 20 seconds
113
Q
- (380). The volume of the aural warning system in the headsets is controlled by the INT/SERV knob. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
114
Q
- (350). The 1/2 button on the RTU is used for: (A). Tuning a failed RTU (B). Cross side tuning of an RTU (C). Shifting the FMS auto-tune function (D). None of the above
A
(B). Cross side tuning of an RTU
115
Q
- (180). In the event of a total loss of AC power, radio tuning will be allowed through the: (A). 1/2 Button (B). FMS (C). Backup Tuning Unit (D). RTU inhibit switch
A
(C). Backup Tuning Unit
116
Q
- (450). Not all of the switches on the observers Audio Control Panel are operative. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
117
Q
- (390). There is a speaker associated with all three of the Audio Control Panels. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
118
Q
- (300). COM 2 and NAV 2 can be tuned in the backup tuning unit. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
119
Q
- (70). When an RTU fails: (A). The display becomes blank (B). Cross-side tuning becomes inoperative (C). The RTU INHIBIT button should be pushed to regain cross-side tuning ability (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
120
Q
- (470). The ELT is located: (A). Foreword nose compartment (B). Left wingtip (C). Right wingtip (D). Aft equipment bay
A
(D). Aft equipment bay
121
Q
- (140). The power source for the Backup Tuning Unit is: (A). Essential AC (B). The Battery Bus (C). Essential DC (D). The Service Bus
A
(B). The Battery Bus
122
Q
- (460). Once the ELT switch on the ELT control panel is selected to ON, the ELT cannot be deactivated. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
123
Q
- (510). The FMS tune inhibit switch: (A). Prevents FMS DME tuning function (B). Inhibits the RTU’s from manual tuning (C). Prevents the RTU’s from being tuned by the FMS CDU (D). None of the above
A
C). Prevents the RTU’s from being tuned by the FMS CDU
124
Q
- (480). Placing the Emergency/normal switch to EMER on the Captain’s side ACP will: (A). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (B). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (C). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on ADF 1 and aural warnings (D). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 1 and aural warnings
A
D). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 1 and aural warnings
125
Q
- (20). What is the purpose of the EMER/NORM switch on the ACP? (A). Sets the transponder code to 7700 (B). Establishes communication when the oxygen masks are in use (C). Bypasses the electronic circuits of the integrating system and connects the captain’s headset to VHF 1 and NAV 1 (D). Renders the aural warning system inoperative
A
C). Bypasses the electronic circuits of the integrating system and connects the captain’s headset to VHF 1 and NAV 1
126
Q
- (230). While the flight attendant is making a PA announcement, the captain’s PA will override the flight attendants PA. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
127
Q
- (30). Which statement is true regarding the priority of the PA system? (A). The flight attendant has the highest priority (B). The flight attendant can interrupt the entertainment system and the pilot (C). The pilot has the highest priority (D). There is no priority to the PA system
A
(C). The pilot has the highest priority
128
Q
- (280). Pressing the DME-H button on the RTU will disable the RTU from being auto tuned. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
129
Q
- (370). The observer’s ACP does not have all of the same operative features as the pilot’s and copilot’s. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
130
Q
- (160). The FMS can be auto-tuned while in DME Hold. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
131
Q
- (290). The volume of the aural warning system is controlled by the volume knobs on the audio panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
132
Q
- (440). A three position switch behind the copilot’s seat allows the MFDs to present maintenance diagnostic computer data. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
133
Q
- (40). Power for EICAS CRTs: (A). Can come from the batteries and is limited to 5 minutes without AC power for cooling (B). Can come from the batteries and is limited to 5 minutes without packs running for cooling (C). Comes from the AC essential bus and is limited to 5 minutes operation without DC power for cooling (D). Is DC and has no restrictions
A
(A). Can come from the batteries and is limited to 5 minutes without AC power for cooling
134
Q
- (170). A red wing duct on the Anti- Ice synoptic page indicates: (A). Anti ice system is heating the wing normally to clear ice (B). Warning or exceeded parameter (C). Insufficient data to determine wing temperature (D). Invalid wing temperature data
A
(B). Warning or exceeded parameter
135
Q
- (50). Intensity for CRT displays is adjusted: (A). Independently with small adjustment knobs on each display unit (B). All together using DISPL knob on lighting panel (C). Adjusted bright or dim using the IND LIGHTS switch on the miscellaneous test panel (D). Both A and B
A
D). Both A and B
136
Q
- (110). Pressing the MASTER WARNING switchlight silences: (A). Fire bell (B). Triple chime (C). Both A and B (D). Neither A or B
A
(A). Fire bell
137
Q
- (330). The Flight Data Recorder records the last 48 hours of flight data. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
138
Q
- (300). Pushing the MASTER WARNING switchlight also silences the aural warnings except for: (A). Flap clacker, trim clacker, AP disconnect cavalry charge, landing gear warning horn. (B). Stall warbler, GPWS/TCAS, triple chime, overspeed clacker (C). Configuration warnings, overspeed clacker, triple chime, stall warbler (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
139
Q
- (490). The CAS button on the EICAS control panel will not allow the “boxing” of caution messages until: (A). Oil pressures are green (B). The main generators are operating and online (C). No associated warning messages are present (D). All of the above
A
(B). The main generators are operating and online
140
Q
- (200). Choose the correct statement: (A). Warning messages can be removed from view by pressing the CAS button on the ECP (B). Warning messages always are accompanied by a triple or single clime (C). Warning messages cannot be removed from view unless the applicable failure has been rectified (D). Caution messages can be removed by pressing the CAS button on the ECP provided that one main generator is operating and online
A
C). Warning messages cannot be removed from view unless the applicable failure has been rectified
141
Q
- (310). Caution messages will always appear as a ____ message on the CAS. (A). White (B). Amber (C). Red (D). Green
A
(B). Amber
142
Q
- (270). A white Hydraulic fluid level indication on the Hydraulic synoptic page indicates: (A). Fluid level is less than 45% (B). Fluid level is more than 85% (C). Considered a normal condition, abnormal conditions would be amber (D). Either A or B
A
(D). Either A or B
143
Q
- (500). Magenta coloring on the Synoptic pages indicates: (A). Insufficient data (B). Normal operations (C). Failed item (D). Commanded position
A
(A). Insufficient data
144
Q
- (90). Pressing a flashing master warning switchlight: (A). Silences the chime (B). Extinguishes the flashing switchlight (C). Will not silence the fire bell (D). Both B and C
A
(B). Extinguishes the flashing switchlight
145
Q
- (240). If the ED1 CRT display should fail: (A). ED1 will automatically be transferred to copilot’s MFD position (B). ED1 data is not displayed until a new display for ED1 is selected on the Source Select panel (C). ED1 will automatically be transferred to ED2 (D). ED1 can only be displayed by using the STEP button and ED2display
A
C). ED1 will automatically be transferred to ED2
146
Q
- (70). The lamp test switch only tests switchlight annunciators. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
147
Q
- (380). The most important EICAS message always appears at the top of its associated list. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
148
Q
- (560). Pushing the MASTER WARNING switchlight will silence the overspeed clacker. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
149
Q
- (470). When warning messages are displayed, they will be accompanied by: (A). Flashing master caution and aural alert (B). Steady master caution and aural alert (C). Flashing master warning, aural alert or triple chime if applicable (D). Flashing master warning and aural warning
A
(C). Flashing master warning, aural alert or triple chime if applicable
150
Q
- (350). Certain caution (amber) messages are inhibited for both takeoff and landing. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
151
Q
- (10). Messages displayed on EICAS are strictly in the order they occurred. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
152
Q
- (20). Cooling for the CRTs is provided by: (A). 3 DC powered fans (B). The conditioned air that ventilates the displays (C). AC powered fans (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
153
Q
- (100). Pressing the MASTER WARNING switchlight silences: (A). Overspeed clacker (B). AP Disconnect cavalry charge (C). Both A and B (D). Neither A or B
A
(D). Neither A or B
154
Q
- (420). The DCU’s will process inhibit logic to minimize spurious or distracting warning/caution messages during: (A). During takeoff phase only (B). During initial & final takeoff and landing phases only (C). During initial and final takeoff and cruise flight (D). During landing phase only
A
(B). During initial & final takeoff and landing phases only
155
Q
- (360). The flight data recorder will begin to record when: (A). BEACON or STROBE switch is selected on (B). Electrical power is supplied to the aircraft (C). The passenger seat belt is ON (D). The FDR EVENT pushbutton is pressed
A
(A). BEACON or STROBE switch is selected on
156
Q
- (480). If the EICAS control panel microprocessor fails, _____ manual selections are still operational. (A). Two (B). Three (C). Four (D). One
A
(C). Four
157
Q
- (120). A flashing amber master caution indication is accompanied by: (A). A single chime and an aural warning (B). A single chime (C). A triple chime (D). A red EICAS message
A
(B). A single chime
158
Q
- (290). A half-intensity magenta pump indication on the Hydraulic synoptic page means: (A). The pump is not operating (B). Invalid data (C). The pump cannot be used (D). None of the above
A
(B). Invalid data
159
Q
- (210). Advisory messages can be cleared. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
160
Q
- (430). The display reversionary panel allows the MFD to be reconfigured. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
161
Q
- (160). Thrust limit carets and thrust mode annunciation (N1 reference) information is derived from: (A). Manually entering the N1 in the FMS PERF page (B). Phase of flight based on bleed air position (C). Provided by FMS for full thrust settings (D). All of the above
A
(B). Phase of flight based on bleed air position
162
Q
- (250). Several pages can be displayed on the PFD using reversionary modes. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
163
Q
- (340). An EICAS aural alert that continues after the condition no longer exists can be stopped by: (A). Pressing the disable switchlight on the audio warning panel (B). Selecting the aural warn test switch to “off” (C). Reselecting the master warning switchlight (D). Pressing the FDR event button
A
A). Pressing the disable switchlight on the audio warning panel
164
Q
- (180). When numerous caution messages are displayed they are arranged by: (A). Order of importance based on a pre-defined scheme (B). Alphabetical order (C). Order in which they occurred (D). Effected system
A
(C). Order in which they occurred
165
Q
- (130). MASTER WARNING and MASTER CAUTION switchlights cannot be dimmed. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
166
Q
- (220). When more caution messages are generated than can be displayed on one screen: (A). Less important caution messages are cleared to make room (B). Oldest caution messages are cleared to make room (C). Multiple pages of messages are generated (D). Caution messages overflow onto ED2
A
(C). Multiple pages of messages are generated
167
Q
- (460). If the EICAS control panel microprocessor fails there are manual selections that are still available. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
168
Q
- (390). In the event of an ED 2 failure: (A). ED 2 should transfer to ED 1 (B). ED 1 should transfer to MFD (C). ED 1 should transfer to ED 2 (D). None of the above is correct
A
(D). None of the above is correct
169
Q
- (450). In the event of an ED1 CRT failure: (A). ED 2 will transfer to ED 1 (B). ED 1 will transfer to ED 2 (C). ED 1 will transfer to MFD (D). ED 1 will transfer to PFD (E).
A
B). ED 1 will transfer to ED 2 truB?
170
Q
- (280). The buttons that can be manually controlled on the EICAS control panel are: (A). MENU, UP, DN, STEP (B). PRI, STAT (C). PRI, STAT, STEP (D). PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP
A
D). PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP
171
Q
- (190). Green EICAS messages are _________ messages. (A). Advisory (B). Warning (C). Status (D). Caution
A
(A). Advisory
172
Q
- (230). Certain EICAS messages are inhibited during specific phases of flight. The three phases are: (A). Takeoff, approach & landing (B). Initial takeoff, Final takeoff, Landing (C). Takeoff, Final approach, Taxi (D). Cruise, Final approach, Taxi
A
(B). Initial takeoff, Final takeoff, Landing
173
Q
- (150). Should the EICAS control panel (ECP) fail: (A). Some buttons are hard wired and allow access to all of the EICAS information (B). Synoptic pages can be paged by using the STEP button (C). Status and caution messages can be cleared (boxed) (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
174
Q
- (80). Pressing a flashing master warning switchlight: (A). Silences the chime (B). Extinguishes the flashing switchlight (C). Silences the aural warning (D). Both B and C
A
D). Both B and C
175
Q
- (140). All aural warnings are accompanied by a red warning message displayed on EICAS. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
176
Q
- (550). All caution messages will appear on the initial takeoff phase. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
177
Q
- (520). Warning messages will always appear as a____message on the CAS. (A). White (B). Red (C). Amber (D). Green
A
(B). Red
178
Q
- (410). The four levels of CAS messages in order of importance are: (A). Warning, caution, advisory, status (B). Caution, warning, status, advisory (C). Warning, caution, status, advisory (D). Caution, warning, advisory, status
A
(A). Warning, caution, advisory, status
179
Q
- (320). It is possible to remove all caution messages from view when: (A). There are more than 5 cautions messages (B). Engines are stabilized at idle (C). There are no warning messages (D). Caution messages cannot be cleared
A
(B). Engines are stabilized at idle
180
Q
- (60). The DCU’s primary function is to: (A). Transmit flight data in a concentrated form to ground personnel (B). Detect system malfunctions and initiate automatic EFCS corrections (C). Provide information to the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) (D). Control APU automatic fire protection sequencing
A
(C). Provide information to the engine indication and crew alerting system
(EICAS)
181
Q
- (260). While in cruise you press the FDR event button. You have: (A). Marked the FDR memory with a timestamp (B). Cleared the FDR data if you held the button for 5 or more seconds (C). None of the above (D). Both A and B
A
(A). Marked the FDR memory with a timestamp
182
Q
- (530). The lamp driver unit: (A). Receives information directly from the AHRS bus (B). Controls panel and glareshield light illumination (C). Sends information directly to the FDR (D). Sends information to the IAPS
A
(B). Controls panel and glareshield light illumination
183
Q
- (400). To protect the cockpit CRT displays, ground operations with DC power only are limited to: (A). 2 minutes (B). 5 minutes unless the STDBY mode of the display fan has been selected (C). 5 minutes unless low pressure ground air is active (D). 5 minutes
A
(D). 5 minutes
184
Q
- (510). Status messages can be cleared by pressing the: (A). CAS button (B). STAT button (C). CLEAR button (D). MENU button
A
B). STAT button
185
Q
- (130). The aircraft AC generators are rated at: (A). 120 VAC, 400 HZ at 35 KVA (B). 115 VAC, 400 HZ at 40 KVA (C). 115 VAC, 400 HZ at 35 KVA (D). 115 VAC, 30 HZ at 400 KVA
A
(B). 115 VAC, 400 HZ at 40 KVA
186
Q
- (310). At the gate, with the passenger door open and only the APU generator on line, the batteries are not being charged. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
187
Q
- (260). The ADG supplies AC power to: (A). 1B hydraulic pump and AC service bus (B). 2B hydraulic pump and AC bus 1 (C). ADG Bus and AC ESS bus (D). 3B hydraulic pump and AC service bus
A
(C). ADG Bus and AC ESS bus
188
Q
- (140). The DC EMER BUS is always displayed on the DC ELECTRICAL synoptic page. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
189
Q
- (370). With external AC connected, and the IN USE light illuminated on the external services panel (no other power source in operation): (A). All DC buses are powered (B). The aircraft batteries are being charged (C). The AC SERV bus is being powered (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
190
Q
- (40). If an IDG is disconnected in flight by pressing the IDG 1/2 DISC switchlight, deselecting the switchlight will re-connect the IDG. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
191
Q
- (90). The ADG Bus provides power to: (A). Hydraulic pump 3B (B). Pitch Trim Ch 1 (C). Both A & B (D). Neither A or B
A
(A). Hydraulic pump 3B
192
Q
- (270). Deployment of the ADG will supply power to the DC ESS bus via: (A). The SERV TRU (B). The ESS TRU 1 (C). Both A and B (D). None of the above
A
(B). The ESS TRU 1
193
Q
- (550). The engine or APU generator output is tripped off and removed from the bus system for which of the following: (A). Under voltage, over frequency, generator or bus over current (B). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults (C). Overvoltage, over frequency, generator or bus undercurrent (D). Under voltage, under frequency, generator or bus over current
A
(B). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults
194
Q
- (30). The APU battery is: (A). 24 volts rated at 43 ampere hours (B). 24 volts rated at 17 ampere hours (C). 12 volts rated at 17 ampere hours (D). 12 volts rated at 43 ampere hours
A
(A). 24 volts rated at 43 ampere hours
195
Q
- (490). The batteries supply DC electrical power to the following buses: (A). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC EMER BUS, SERV BUS (B). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC BUS 1, DC BATT BUS (C). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC BATT BUS (D). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC EMER BUS, DC BATT BUS
A
(D). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC EMER BUS, DC BATT BUS
196
Q
- (530). Pressing the FDR EVENT pushbutton on the miscellaneous test panel will: (A). Cause the flight data recorder to stop recording (B). Cause then flight data recorder to start recording (C). Time stamp the FDR and cause a advisory message to be displayed on the status page (D). Cause the FDR to record additional inputs
A
(C). Time stamp the FDR and cause a advisory message to be displayed on the status page
197
Q
- (170). What radios are tuned in the Back Up tuning unit? (A). COM 1, NAV 2 (B). COM 1, NAV 1 (C). COM 2, NAV 1 (D). COM 1, COM 2
A
(B). COM 1, NAV 1
198
Q
- (60). How is RTU cross-side tuning accomplished? (A). Through the use of the ½ key (B). Through the use of the course select button (C). Through the use of the BTU (D). Cross-side tuning is not possible
A
(A). Through the use of the ½ key
199
Q
- (310). To regain cross-side tuning with a failed RTU, the RTU INHIB switch corresponding to the failed unit must be pressed. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
200
Q
- (220). To determine if the squelch is OFF the pilot must: (A). View the main page of the RTU. There are no annunciations (B). Either view the main page of the RTU or look for an annunciation on the top page (C). Look for an annunciation on the standby RTU (D). Ask ATC if they think it is OFF
A
(B). Either view the main page of the RTU or look for an annunciation on the top page
201
Q
- (210). The Passenger Service Unit speakers are automatically adjusted for aircraft background noise. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
202
Q
- (330). The RTU will automatically revert back to the top page from the main page if no inputs have been made for 20 seconds. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
203
Q
- (100). When will the CVR start recording? (A). With weight off wheels (B). When the beacon is on (C). When electrical power is applied to the aircraft (D). When selected to record on the CVR panel
A
C). When electrical power is applied to the aircraft
204
Q
- (430). With an O2 mask on, the jump seat rider would not be able to communicate with the pilots via the overhead speaker. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
205
Q
- (320). The cockpit voice recorder will start recording when: (A). Electrical power is supplied to the aircraft (B). The landing gear is selected up (C). Thrust levers are advanced above 79% N1 (D). Weight is off wheels
A
(A). Electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
206
Q
- (90). The ELT transmits on what frequency? (A). 121.5MHz (B). 406.0 MHz (C). 243.0 MHz (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
207
Q
- (270). The CVR TEST button performs an internal test of the system. This button needs to be held for: (A). 2 seconds (B). 4 seconds (C). 10 seconds (D). 5 seconds
A
(D). 5 seconds
208
Q
- (360). With the aircraft on battery power only, radio tuning will be allowed through the: (A). RTU inhibit switch (B). Backup Tuning Unit (C). FMS (D). 1/2 Button
A
B). Backup Tuning Unit
209
Q
- (240). When the MECH/PUSH is pressed, both the light in the center console and the light in the external services panel will illuminate and a two tone chime sounds in the aircraft. Both lights remain on for 30 seconds then extinguish. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
210
Q
- (110). Where is the CVR located? (A). Beneath the pilot’s PFD and MFD (B). In the tail section of the aircraft (C). In the avionics bay (D). Behind the flight instrument panel
A
B). In the tail section of the aircraft
211
Q
- (80). If both RTUs fail or if there is a complete loss of AC power, what radios remain operative? (A). None (B). Only COM 1 through the BTU (C). Only NAV 1 through the BTU (D). COM 1 and NAV 1 are available
A
(D). COM 1 and NAV 1 are available
212
Q
- (400). The order of priority with regards to PA announcements is: (A). Flight attendant can override the entertainment system and pilots (B). Flight attendant can override the pilots but not the entertainment system (C). Pilot can override the entertainment system but not the flight attendant (D). Pilots can override the entertainment system and flight attendant
A
(D). Pilots can override the entertainment system and flight attendant
213
Q
- (520). Placing the EMER switch on the First Officer’s side ACP will: (A). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (B). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (C). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 1 and aural warnings (D). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on ADF 1 and aural warnings
A
(B). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings
214
Q
- (200). The volume of the aural warning system cannot be controlled by the pilots. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
215
Q
- (420). Which of the following will not operate on the observers ACP? (A). R/T (B). EMER/NORM (C). SPKR (D). B and C
A
(D). B and C
216
Q
- (150). The flight crew can communicate with ground personnel at the following locations: (A). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel only (B). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel, refuel/defuel panel (C). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel, external air connection (D). Aft equipment bay, external services panel, refuel/defuel panel only
A
(B). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel, refuel/defuel panel
217
Q
- (120). When will the FDR start recording? (A). When the beacon is on (B). When the strobe is on (C). Weight off wheels (D). Any of the above conditions
A
(D). Any of the above conditions
218
Q
- (350). Choose the correct statement: (A). The crew escape hatch can only be opened from the inside (B). The crew escape hatch can only be opened from the outside (C). The crew escape hatch is attached via hooks to allow the hatch to be completely removed (D). The crew escape hatch is hinged and cannot be removed
A
(C). The crew escape hatch is attached via hooks to allow the hatch to be completely removed
219
Q
- (200). The avionics bay door is located on the: (A). Top aft portion of the fuselage (B). Top front portion of the fuselage (C). Lower forward portion of the fuselage (D). Lower aft portion of the fuselage
A
(C). Lower forward portion of the fuselage
220
Q
- (190). The avionics bay door is monitored by the PSEU and appears on the EICAS DOORS synoptic page. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
221
Q
- (310). The handrails should be left extended when the jetbridge is utilized. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
222
Q
- (290). How many emergency exits (total exits) are provided for the passengers? (A). 2 (B). 3 (C). 4 (D). 6
A
(D). 6
223
Q
- (10). The aft equipment bay door is monitored by the PSEU. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
224
Q
- (140). The crew escape hatch is monitored by the PSEU and has indications on the EICAS DOORS synoptic page. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
225
Q
- (240). The maximum load capacity of the passenger door is: (A). 1,500 lbs or 4 people (B). 1,000 lbs or 4 people (C). There is no limit (D). 5 people
A
(B). 1,000 lbs or 4 people
226
Q
- (70). The Avionics Bay door is: (A). A plug type door and can only be opened from the inside (B). A plug type door and can only be opened from the outside (C). A plug type door and can be opened from both the inside and outside (D). Is located on the right side of the fuselage
A
(B). A plug type door and can only be opened from the outside
227
Q
- (170). The crew escape hatch is an outward-opening door, located on the flight deck upper fuselage. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
228
Q
- (120). An aural “Door” alert is associated with the: (A). The service door (B). The avionics bay door (C). The passenger door (D). All of the above
A
(C). The passenger door
229
Q
- (30). The crew escape hatch: (A). Can be opened from the inside and outside (B). Can only be opened from the inside (C). Can only be opened from the outside (D). Is hydraulically operated
A
(A). Can be opened from the inside and outside
230
Q
- (100). If the forward left over-wing emergency exit is unsafe: (A). A red L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed but no aural is sounded (B). A red L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed and an aural EMER DOOR OPEN is sounded (C). An amber L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed (D). An amber L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed and an aural EMER DOOR OPEN is sounded
A
(C). An amber L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed
231
Q
- (300). The main cabin door cannot be closed without the powered door assist. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
232
Q
- (150). In the event of an emergency the flight deck door can be removed by withdrawing the hinge pins from inside the flight deck. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
233
Q
- (110). The emergency exits can only be opened from the inside of the aircraft. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
234
Q
- (180). The flight deck door cannot be opened by occupants in the cabin. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
235
Q
- (60). What provides mechanical confirmation that the Galley/Service door is locked? (A). A green indicator located below the inner handle (B). A green indicator located below the outer handle (C). A green indicator located below both the inner and outer handle (D). A red indicator located below the inner handle
A
A). A green indicator located below the inner handle
236
Q
- (50). Passenger door closing from the inside: (A). Can only be accomplished manually (B). Can only be accomplished electrically (C). Is normally accomplished using DOOR ASSIST switch (D). Can only be accomplished if the APU SERV BUS is selected ON
A
(C). Is normally accomplished using DOOR ASSIST switch
237
Q
- (340). A PASSENGER DOOR warning message means: (A). The passenger door is closed (B). The passenger door is open or unsafe (C). The passenger door is broken (D). The passenger door assist motor is broken
A
(B). The passenger door is open or unsafe
238
Q
- (210). When opening the passenger door from the inside, pulling the handle up: (A). Unlatches the door (B). Ejects the external handle from its recess (C). Opens the pressurization vent (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
239
Q
- (90). An aural “DOOR” is sounded when? (A). Cargo door is open (B). Service door is open (C). Over-wing emergency exit is open (D). Passenger door is open or unsafe
A
(D). Passenger door is open or unsafe
240
Q
- (320). Which doors are not displayed on the DOORS synoptic page: (A). Crew escape hatch, aft equipment bay door (B). Crew escape hatch, aft equipment bay door, avionic bay (C). Aft equipment bay door, avionic bay (D). Left and right overwing EMER exits, crew escape hatch
A
(A). Crew escape hatch, aft equipment bay door
241
Q
- (130). What is the load limitation with regard to the passenger door? (A). 1000 lbs. (B). Four passengers (C). One passenger per step (D). A and B
A
D). A and B
242
Q
- (20). The maximum number of people permitted on the passenger door stairway is: (A). 2 (B). 3 (C). 4 (D). 5
A
(C). 4
243
Q
- (360). Which doors can only be opened from outside the aircraft? (A). Aft cargo door, avionics bay door, aft equipment bay door (B). All cargo doors, aft equipment bay door (C). Aft equipment bay door, forward cargo doors, avionics bay door (D). All cargo doors, avionics bay door, aft equipment bay door
A
D). All cargo doors, avionics bay door, aft equipment bay door
244
Q
- (230). In case of an emergency the flight deck door can be removed by the: (A). Hinge pins that are accessible from only the flight deck (B). Hinge pins that are accessible from the flight deck and cabin (C). Breaking the deadbolt that secures the door (D). All of the above are true
A
(A). Hinge pins that are accessible from only the flight deck
245
Q
- (220). You can ensure the crew escape hatch is properly latched by: (A). Stowing the inner handle (B). Checking the door synoptic page (C). There is no way to verify (D). Checking the two green indicators which line up with the hatch witness marks
A
(D). Checking the two green indicators which line up with the hatch witness marks
246
Q
- (260). A sudden loss of flight deck pressurization will: (A). Cause the dead bolt in the cockpit door to release (B). Release the hinge pins on the cockpit door (C). Require the crew to pull the latch on the decompression panel (D). Cause the decompression panel in the flight deck door to open
A
(D). Cause the decompression panel in the flight deck door to open
247
Q
- (330). The crew escape hatch can be opened from the inside and outside of the aircraft. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
248
Q
- (160). The following doors are monitored by the PSEU and have associated indications on DOORS synoptic page: (A). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, FWD & AFT EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO (B). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, FWD & AFT EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO, ESCAPE (C). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, EMER, AFT CARGO, FLT DECK (D). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO, AFT EQUIP
A
(A). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, FWD & AFT EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO
249
Q
- (280). The decompression panel is located on the: (A). Emergency exits (B). Flight deck door (C). Service door (D). Avionic equipment bay
A
(B). Flight deck door
250
Q
- (40). The passenger door rests on: (A). Two support wheels when the door is open (B). Two support plates when the door is open (C). One support wheel when the door is open (D). One support plate when the door is open
A
C). One support wheel when the door is open
251
Q
- (80). The aft cargo bay door is: (A). A plug type door installed on the right side of the fuselage that can only be opened from the outside (B). A plug type door installed on the left side of the fuselage that can only be opened from the outside (C). A hydraulically operated door installed on the right side of the fuselage (D). A hydraulically operated door installed on the left side of the fuselage
A
(B). A plug type door installed on the left side of the fuselage that can only be opened from the outside
252
Q
- (270). The motorized power assist component of the passenger door is activated when: (A). The door is opened from the outside (B). The door handle is pulled to the detent from the inside (C). When selected at the forward FA panel (D). All of the above
A
(C). When selected at the forward FA panel
253
Q
- (250). The aft equipment bay door is monitored by the PSEU and appears on the DOORS synoptic page. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
254
Q
- (390). A red CABIN ALT warning message indicates: (A). Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft. (B). Cabin altitude above 12,500 ft. (C). Cabin altitude above 14,000 ft. (D). Cabin altitude above 8,500 ft.
A
(A). Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft.
255
Q
- (600). The outflow valve is opened and closed through the use of: (A). Vacuum pressure from bleed air manifold (B). Electric motor (C). Mechanical spring loaded valves (D). None of the above
A
(B). Electric motor
256
Q
- (140). The CRJ 900 contains two independent air conditioning units that are identical in operation. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
257
Q
- (310). “DISPLAY COOL” message is present when: (A). The flight deck AC is not working (B). A cooling fan has failed (C). Low airflow is sensed at the displays (D). Both B and C are correct
A
(D). Both B and C are correct
258
Q
- (730). Avionics cooling air is discharged via two different routes, one for doors open, the other for doors closed. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
259
Q
- (530). A CARGO OVHT message will be removed when: (A). The overheat condition is removed (B). Placing the CARGO COND AIR switch to FAN position (C). The extinguishing agent is discharged into the compartment (D). Both A and B
A
(D). Both A and B
260
Q
- (90). The aural “CABIN PRESSURE” alert is associated with: (A). The cabin altitude exceeding 10,000 feet (B). Failure of the active pressurization controller (C). Differential pressure in excess of 8.6 psi (D). Both A and C
A
(D). Both A and C
261
Q
- (80). The active pressurization controller will send a signal to drop the passenger oxygen masks automatically at: (A). 14,000’ cabin altitude (B). 10,000’ cabin altitude (C). 8,000’ cabin altitude (D). 12,500’ cabin altitude
A
(A). 14,000’ cabin altitude
262
Q
- (100). DISPLAY COOL caution message is present: (A). When the cooling fan used for flight fails (B). When the fan is turned to standby (C). Low airflow is sensed at the CRT displays (D). All of the above
A
(A). When the cooling fan used for flight fails
263
Q
- (690). Cabin differential pressure will not exceed +8.7psi or -0 .5psi due to pressure relief valves. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
264
Q
- (410). How many cabin pressure controllers are on the CRJ 900? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(B). 2
265
Q
- (240). When the ram air shutoff valve is selected open, air is routed to provide: (A). Flight deck ventilation (B). Cabin ventilation (C). Hydraulic system heat exchangers (D). Both A and B
A
(D). Both A and B
266
Q
- (330). Cabin air outflow is controlled by: (A). CPAM (B). ARINC FAN (C). OUTFLW VALVE selector switch (D). Outflow valve
A
(D). Outflow valve
267
Q
- (450). A DISPLAY COOL caution message indicates that: (A). The flight deck AC is not working (B). A cooling fan has failed (C). Low airflow has been sensed at the displays (D). Both B and C are correct
A
(D). Both B and C are correct
268
Q
- (370). With RAM AIR selected OPEN, air comes through the scoop at the base of the vertical fin. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
269
Q
- (270). When the cabin pressurization control switchlight is pressed in: (A). It selects manual mode (B). It selects controller #3 (C). It selects controller designated as standby for that flight (D). It selects ADC #2
A
(A). It selects manual mode
270
Q
- (40). The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to __________ when the thrust levers are advanced to takeoff: (A). The scheduled cabin pressure (B). -50 ft. (C). -100 ft. (D). -150 ft.
A
(A). The scheduled cabin pressure
271
Q
- (130). When smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment: (A). The Aft cargo intake and exhaust SOVs close (B). Forward cargo intake and exhaust SOVs also close (C). Both bottles are discharge automatically (D). Both A and B
A
(A). The Aft cargo intake and exhaust SOVs close
272
Q
- (580). RAM AIR Ventilation is used when: (A). When performing an unpressurized takeoff or landing (B). Using the MAN temperature mode (C). When a single pack has failed (D). Both A and C
A
A). When performing an unpressurized takeoff or landing
273
Q
- (610). The manual cabin altitude switch, when selected up in the manual pressurization mode: (A). Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude (B). Causes the outflow valves to open and decrease cabin altitude (C). Causes the outflow valves to close and increase cabin altitude (D). Causes the outflow valves to close and decrease cabin altitude
A
(A). Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude
274
Q
- (150). The cabin pressure controllers: (A). Control all phases of pressurization in automatic mode (B). Control all phases of pressurization in manual mode (C). Are both active at one time (D). Both A and B
A
(A). Control all phases of pressurization in automatic mode
275
Q
- (50). The cargo bay heater is enabled through the: (A). Application of DC power (B). Left engine start (C). FAN switch position of the AFT CARGO switch (D). COND AIR switch position of the AFT CARGO switch
A
D). COND AIR switch position of the AFT CARGO switch
276
Q
- (250). The right hand pack primarily influences air to the: (A). Passenger compartment (B). Flight compartment (C). Aft equipment (D). Avionics bay
A
(A). Passenger compartment
277
Q
- (630). The outflow valve uses _______ to open and close. (A). An electric motor (B). Pneumatic pressure (C). Vacuum pressure from the bleed air manifold (D). None of the above
A
(A). An electric motor
278
Q
- (260). In flight, an inadvertent selection of the Man Alt toggle switch on the Cabin (A). Press panel will: (B). Cause the cabin pressure to rise if selected up (C). Cause the cabin pressure to fall if selected down (D). Have no effect unless the Press Cont switchlight has been selected to Man (E). Both A and B
A
(D). Have no effect unless the Press Cont switchlight has been selected to
279
Q
- (190). The right pack primarily influences air to the: (A). Passenger compartment (B). Flight deck (C). Cargo compartment (D). Avionics cooling
A
(A). Passenger compartment
280
Q
- (590). When the RAM AIR is selected open the air is used for: (A). Flight deck ventilation (B). EFIS cooling (C). EICAS cooling (D). All of the above
A
(A). Flight deck ventilation
281
Q
- (740). Cabin pressure is maintained by: (A). A single electrically actuated triple motored outflow valve (B). Two electrically controlled, pneumatically actuated outflow valves (C). A single electrically actuated inflow valve (D). Carefully managing the amount of stress among those occupying the cabin
A
(A). A single electrically actuated triple motored outflow valve
282
Q
- (280). Cabin exhaust air is routed: (A). Under floor to the outflow valve at aft pressure bulkhead (B). Under floor through the aft equipment bay (C). Passenger cabin gaspers (D). Flight deck gaspers
A
(A). Under floor to the outflow valve at aft pressure bulkhead
283
Q
- (400). Maximum pressure relief differential is: (A). 8.9 PSI (B). 8.1 PSI (C). 8.7 PSI (D). 8.5 PSI
A
(C). 8.7 PSI
284
Q
- (430). OVBD COOL caution message indicates: (A). Avionics cooling is not effective (B). The avionics fan designated as primary for that flight has failed or is providing inadequate airflow (C). CRT’s are not receiving adequate cooling airflow (D). That the ground valve has failed open in flight
A
(D). That the ground valve has failed open in flight
285
Q
- (750). The maximum altitude for single pack operation in a CRJ 900 is: (A). 41,000’ (B). 37,000’ (C). 31,000’ (D). 25,000’
A
(D). 25,000’
286
Q
- (620). An AUTO PRESS caution message indicates: (A). That the cabin pressure controller in use has failed (B). That the pressurization system is being used in the manual mode (C). That both of the cabin pressurization controllers have failed (D). That the ram air shut off valve is open
A
(C). That both of the cabin pressurization controllers have failed
287
Q
- (110). The low-pressure ground air connection supplies air directly to the: (A). Left and right pack (B). Bleed air manifold (C). Right pack only (D). Flight and passenger distribution systems
A
(D). Flight and passenger distribution systems
288
Q
- (500). How many cooling fans are available for the EFIS and EICAS CRT’s? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(B). 2
289
Q
- (160). Selecting the AFT CARGO switch to COND AIR: (A). Opens the SOVs and directs air through a heater (B). Opens the left pack SOV (C). Opens the ground valve (D). Both A and C
A
(A). Opens the SOVs and directs air through a heater
290
Q
- (60). “CABIN PRESSURE” aural warning will be heard when: (A). Cabin altitude is less than 8500 ft. (B). Cabin pressure is greater than 8.6 PSI (C). Cabin altitude is 10,000 ft or greater (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
291
Q
- (570). There are _____smoke detectors in the FWD cargo compartment. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(C). 3
292
Q
- (300). The flight abort mode of the automatic pressurization: (A). Is armed during the entire route (B). Alleviates the need to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight at any point along the route (C). Alleviates the need to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight below 6,000 feet and is armed or only 10 minutes (D). Both A and B are correct
A
C). Alleviates the need to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight below 6,000 feet and is armed or only 10 minutes
293
Q
- (10). The cargo compartment gets its conditioned air from: (A). Recirculated air (B). Air from the mixing manifold (C). Left pack (D). Both A and B
A
(D). Both A and B
294
Q
- (470). The cabin pressure control unit will shift from one controller to the other: (A). When the Press Cont switchlight is pressed twice (B). Shortly after landing (C). When the controller in use fails (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
295
Q
- (210). A FAULT light on the air conditioning panel illuminates: (A). Indicates that the pack has failed in both automatic and manual modes (B). Due to underpressure or overtemperature (C). Due to overpressure or undertemperature (D). Due to underpressure or undertemperature
A
(A). Indicates that the pack has failed in both automatic and manual modes
296
Q
- (20). The temperature of the cargo bay is controlled by: (A). The flight attendant (B). An automatic temperature controller (C). The temperature setting of the left pack (D). None of the above
A
(B). An automatic temperature controller
297
Q
- (510). The flight abort mode of the automatic pressurization system: (A). Is disarmed 15 minutes after takeoff (B). Is disarmed once the cabin altitude reaches 3000’ (C). Is disarmed once the aircraft altitude is greater than 6000’ (D). All of the above
A
(C). Is disarmed once the aircraft altitude is greater than 6000’
298
Q
- (220). Packs are cooled in flight by: (A). Fan power (B). Ram air (C). Bleed air (D). Hydraulics
A
(B). Ram air
299
Q
- (360). There are three cabin pressure controllers on the CRJ 900. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
300
Q
- (350). EMER DEPR switchlight when pressed in commands: (A). The outflow valve to close (B). Primary outflow valve to close (C). Secondary outflow valve to close (D). The outflow valve to open
A
(D). The outflow valve to open
301
Q
- (200). Maximum negative differential pressure control is: (A). - 0.2 psi (B). - 1.0 psi (C). - 1.5 psi (D). - 0.5 psi
A
D). - 0.5 psi
302
Q
- (170). Packs are cooled on the ground by: (A). Fan power (B). APU bleed air (C). Fuel (D). Hydraulics
A
(A). Fan power
303
Q
- (550). Switches on the forward FA panel allow for the manipulation of galley heating. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
304
Q
- (340). Low pressure ground air can be routed through bleed air manifold for engine starting. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
305
Q
- (460). The low pressure air connection is located on the: (A). Left side of aircraft aft the wing (B). Right side of aircraft aft the wing (C). Under the belly of aircraft (D). Right side of aircraft forward the wing
A
(B). Right side of aircraft aft the wing
306
Q
- (480). If the designated ground display cooling fan fails on the ground the FLT ALTN will automatically cool the CRT’s. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
307
Q
- (700). Following an aborted takeoff, cabin pressure will: (A). Equalize within 20 seconds (B). Equalize after opening cabin door (C). Not have to equalize, cabin is not pressurized until weight off wheels (D). Only equalize after pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight
A
(A). Equalize within 20 seconds
308
Q
- (420). Pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight at FL290 will: (A). Drive the outflow valve fully open (B). Allow the cabin to rise to approximately 14,500 ± 500 ft (C). Shut off both packs (D). Both A and B are correct
A
(D). Both A and B are correct
309
Q
- (70). ECS data is presented on the: (A). Primary, fuel and ECS synoptic page (B). Secondary, primary, ECS and anti- ice synoptic page (C). Primary, ECS and anti-ice synoptic page (D). Primary, secondary, and ECS synoptic page
A
D). Primary, secondary, and ECS synoptic page
310
Q
- (230). The left pack normally influences air to the: (A). Passenger compartment (B). Flight deck (C). Cargo compartment (D). Avionics cooling
A
B). Flight deck
311
Q
- (320). Pressing the EMER DEPR switchlight will cause: (A). The outflow valve to close (B). The ground valve to close (C). The both pack valves to close (D). The outflow valve to open
A
(D). The outflow valve to open
312
Q
- (180). Single pack operations are limited to what altitude? (A). 40,000’ (B). 25,000’ (C). 20,000’ (D). 30,000’
A
(B). 25,000’
313
Q
- (380). During ground operations, pneumatic air for the ECS can be obtained from the: (A). APU (B). Engines (C). External air cart (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
314
Q
- (540). There are two cabin pressure controllers on the CRJ 900. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
315
Q
- (640). Air temperature exiting the air conditioning packs is varied by: (A). Regulating the temperature of electric heaters (B). Mixing PACK air with ram air in air- to-air heat exchangers (C). Bypassing various stages of the cooling system (D). Regulating the amount of ram airflow over the PACK heat exchangers
A
(C). Bypassing various stages of the cooling system
316
Q
- (290). Pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight at 25,000’ will: (A). Cause the cabin pressure to rise to 25,000’ (B). Drive the outflow valve fully open (C). Cause the cabin pressure to rise to approximately 15,000’ (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
317
Q
- (660). When ram air is not available, air is circulated over the PACK heat exchangers by: (A). A fan electrically driven (B). A fan mechanically driven off of accessory gearbox (C). A fan mechanically driven by the APU (D). A fan mechanically driven by the air cycle machine
A
(D). A fan mechanically driven by the air cycle machine
318
Q
- (710). While at FL310, the EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed. Cabin altitude will: (A). Descend to 14,500’ ± 500’ (B). Equal pressure altitude (C). Climb to 14,500’ ± 500’ (D). Equalize to just below 8psi differential pressure to maintain structural integrity.
A
(C). Climb to 14,500’ ± 500’
319
Q
- (680). When smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment: (A). The compartment is automatically sealed and de-pressurized to extinguish the fire (B). The intake and exhaust shut off valves close (C). The cargo fan must be turned off to seal the compartment (D). Ram air is automatically directed into compartment to ventilate the compartment
A
(B). The intake and exhaust shut off valves close
320
Q
- (520). Manual temperature control has protection built into the temperature output. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
321
Q
- (560). There are _____smoke detectors in the AFT cargo compartment. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
B). 2
322
Q
- (440). If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet the active pressurization controller will: (A). Send a signal to deploy the oxygen masks for the passengers (B). Illuminate the Seat Belt/No Smoking signs (C). Trigger the oxygen system auto deploy to the flight compartment (D). Trigger the “CABIN PRESS” aural warning
A
(A). Send a signal to deploy the oxygen masks for the passengers
323
Q
- (490). The cooling air for the PACK air-to-air heat exchangers is supplied by: (A). Display fan (B). High pressure bleed air (C). Ram air scoop (D). ARINC fan (E)
A
(C). Ram air scoop?
324
Q
- (30). During ground operations pneumatic air for the ECS can be obtained from the: (A). APU (B). Engines (C). External air cart (D). All of the above are true
A
D). All of the above are true
325
Q
- (120). When in Manual (MAN) mode, the pressurization readouts are displayed on: (A). EICAS primary page (B). Anti-ice synoptic page (C). ECS synoptic page (D). Both A and C
A
(D). Both A and C
326
Q
- (180). The closure of DC tie contactors ESS, MAIN, and CROSS are all automatic functions. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
327
Q
- (570). If the DC SERVICE switch on the electrical power panel is selected ON, the DC service bus is powered from the MAIN battery direct bus. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
328
Q
- (160). Status of the AC external power is displayed on the: (A). Primary and secondary page (B). Primary and AC electrical synoptic page (C). DC electrical synoptic page (D). AC electrical synoptic page
A
(D). AC electrical synoptic page
329
Q
- (540). At the gate, with the passenger door open and only the APU generator on line, the batteries are being charged. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
330
Q
- (410). The TRU’s are max rated at: (A). 100 AMPS (B). 120 AMPS (C). 24 AMPS (D). 28 AMPS
A
(B). 120 AMPS
331
Q
- (380). In flight if a complete loss of AC power and a failure of the ADG, the battery will provide: (A). 30 minutes of emergency power (B). 15 minutes of emergency power (C). 10 minutes of emergency power (D). 5 minutes of emergency power
A
A). 30 minutes of emergency power
332
Q
- (330). Pressing the EXT AC switchlight on the external services panel connects AC power to: (A). The AC service bus (B). AC buses 1 and 2 (C). The battery chargers (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
333
Q
- (360). The IDG switchlight FAULT light illuminates when: (A). High oil temperature, low oil pressure is sensed (B). Low oil temperature, high oil pressure is sensed (C). The IDG has been disconnected (D). The IDG has been commanded to disconnect but failed to do so
A
A). High oil temperature, low oil pressure is sensed
334
Q
- (320). AC BUS 1 is located on Circuit Breaker Panel 1 which is located: (A). Behind the pilot’s seat (B). Behind the copilot’s seat (C). In the aft equipment bay (D). None of the above
A
A). Behind the pilot’s seat
335
Q
- (300). GEN 1(2) OVLD EICAS caution message indicates: (A). Associated generator load is > 40 KVA (B). Associated generator load is > 30 KVA (C). Associated generator load is > 25 KVA (D). Associated generator load is > 35 KVA
A
(A). Associated generator load is > 40 KVA
336
Q
- (670). DC BUS 2 can be powered following the failure of TRU 2 via the (A). MAIN DC TIE (B). CROSS TIE (C). ESS TIE (D). None of the above
A
A). MAIN DC TIE
337
Q
- (530). The IDG’s may be disconnected from the gearbox by: (A). Engine overspeed (B). Engine under speed (C). Deploying the ADG manually (D). Disconnect switchlights on the overhead panel
A
(D). Disconnect switchlights on the overhead panel
338
Q
- (640). DC power for normal flight operations can be provided by: (A). The ADG (B). Two nickel cadmium batteries (C). One nickel cadmium battery (D). None of the above
A
D). None of the above
339
Q
- (650). The engine or APU generator output is tripped off and removed from the bus system for the following conditions: (A). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults (B). Over/under voltage, over/under current, generator or bus over current (C). Over/under amperage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults (D). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus under current
A
(A). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults
340
Q
- (210). The power source priority for AC BUS 2 is: (A). GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, external power (B). GEN 2, GEN 1, APU GEN, external power (C). GEN 2, external power, GEN 1, APU GEN (D). GEN 2, APU GEN, GEN 1, external power
A
(D). GEN 2, APU GEN, GEN 1, external power
341
Q
- (630). The DC UTIL buses power: (A). Right cabin reading lights (B). The passenger cabin main lighting (C). The lavatory (D). All cabin lighting
A
(A). Right cabin reading lights
342
Q
- (430). In flight, pressing the AC ESS XFER switchlight will cause the AC ESS BUS to be powered by: (A). AC BUS 1 (B). AC BUS 2 (C). AC Service BUS (D). GEN 1
A
(B). AC BUS 2
343
Q
- (520). Gen 2 normally powers: (A). AC BUS 1, ESS BUS and SERV BUS (B). AC BUS 2, AC ADG bus, and service bus (C). AC BUS 2, ESS BUS and SERV BUS (D). AC BUS 2, ADG BUS, SERV BUS
A
(C). AC BUS 2, ESS BUS and SERV BUS
344
Q
- (120). The ADG Manual deploy handle is used to deploy the ADG should the ADG automatic deployment not occur. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
345
Q
- (80). The ADG can only supply power to: (A). AC Bus 1, AC essential, ADG Bus (B). AC Bus 2, AC essential, ADG Bus (C). 3B hydraulic pump, AC Buses No. 1 and No. 2, ADG Bus (D). AC essential, ADG Bus
A
(D). AC essential, ADG Bus
346
Q
- (390). The IDG FAULT light is illuminated when the: (A). Engine is on fire (B). CSD Oil temperature is excessive or if CSD oil pressure drops below a predetermined value (C). Engine fails (D). Over torque
A
(B). CSD Oil temperature is excessive or if CSD oil pressure drops below a predetermined value
347
Q
- (590). With external AC power active, deselecting AC on the electrical services panel without having another AC power source established will deploy the ADG. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
348
Q
- (190). 115 VAC is supplied to 4 TRU’s for DC static conversion, and the TRU’s are rated at: (A). 80 AMPS (B). 75 AMPS (C). 120 AMPS (D). 100 AMPS
A
C). 120 AMPS
349
Q
- (400). The priority for power to AC BUS 1 is: (A). GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN, EXT PWR (B). GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, EXT PWR (C). GEN 1, APU GEN, EXT PWR, GEN 2 (D). GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN, EXT PWR
A
B). GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, EXT PWR
350
Q
- (170). The primary purpose of the ADG is: (A). To supply power to the 3B hydraulic pump (B). To supply power to the 3A hydraulic pump (C). To supply power to the ADG bus and ESS AC bus (D). To supply power to the ESS DC bus
A
(C). To supply power to the ADG bus and ESS AC bus
351
Q
- (200). In flight, the ADG auto deploy function monitors the three main AC generators and main AC buses for: (A). Over voltage (B). Main generator failure (C). Complete AC power failure (D). Over frequency
A
(C). Complete AC power failure
352
Q
- (450). Pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button on the ADG CONTROL panel will: (A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to connect to the AC BUS 1 (B). Allow the AC BUS 2 to connect to the AC ESS (C). Allow the AC ESS BUS to connect to the AC SERV BUS (D). None of the above
A
(A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to connect to the AC BUS 1
353
Q
- (560). If the DC SERVICE switch on the electrical power panel is selected ON, the DC service bus is powered from the APU battery direct bus. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
354
Q
- (20). The air driven generator (ADG) is powered by a propeller that utilizes counterweights to control a constant speed. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
355
Q
- (610). The constant speed drive provides a means of converting: (A). Variable generator speed to constant engine speed (B). Variable frequency output from the generators (C). Variable engine speed to constant generator speed (D). Variable generator speed to variable engine speed
A
(C). Variable engine speed to constant generator speed
356
Q
- (510). The AC SERV BUS provides power to: (A). Service outlets for maintenance (B). On board thermal heater (C). Service outlets and flight deck lighting (D). Service outlets for passenger cabin and lavatory cleaning
A
(D). Service outlets for passenger cabin and lavatory cleaning
357
Q
- (680). The closure of a single DC tie will be indicated by: (A). A caution message (B). A status message (C). Illuminated switchlight on the ELECTRICAL POWER panel (D). None of the above
A
(B). A status message
358
Q
- (110). Power for 28 VDC is supplied by: (A). Transformer rectifier units (B). Batteries (C). Inverters (D). Static Inverters
A
(A). Transformer rectifier units
359
Q
- (240). The aircraft uses both ____ and ____ electrical power. (A). 120 VAC, 28 VDC (B). 115 VAC, 20 VDC (C). 115 VAC, 28 VDC (D). 115 VDC, 28 VAC
A
C). 115 VAC, 28 VDC
360
Q
- (580). With the ADG deployed, the 3B hydraulic pump can be shutdown. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
361
Q
- (220). The aircraft engine driven generators are rated at: (A). 40 KVA (B). 25 KVA (C). 30 KVA (D). 35 KVA
A
(A). 40 KVA
362
Q
- (50). IDG 1 (2) EICAS caution message indicates: (A). Associated IDG has been disconnected. (B). Associated IDG has a low oil pressure condition (C). Associated IDG has a high oil temperature. (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
363
Q
- (480). The IDG will automatically disconnect when: (A). Low oil pressure (B). Overtemp or overtorque condition (C). High oil temp (D). Overspeed/underspeed
A
B). Overtemp or overtorque condition
364
Q
- (230). Deployment of the ADG will automatically activate the 3B hydraulic pump regardless of switch position. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
365
Q
- (100). The air driven generator will provide power to the ADG bus until: (A). Airspeed falls below 155 kts (B). Airspeed falls below 135 kts (C). Airspeed falls below 100 kts (D). None of the above
A
(B). Airspeed falls below 135 kts
366
Q
- (660). DC BUS 1 can be powered following the failure of TRU 1 via the (A). MAIN DC TIE (B). CROSS TIE (C). ESS TIE (D). None of the above
A
A). MAIN DC TIE
367
Q
- (500). The IDG will be mechanically disconnected if: (A). The internal temp of the CSD exceeds a target value (B). The IDG switchlight is pressed (C). The shaft connecting the IDG to the CSD shears (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
368
Q
- (690). A “TRU 2 FAIL” status message will normally be accompanied by: (A). DC ESS TIE CLSD status message (B). DC CROSS TIE CLSD status message (C). DC MAIN TIE CLSD status message (D). AC ESS ALTN status message
A
(C). DC MAIN TIE CLSD status message
369
Q
- (460). How many TRU’s are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 4 (B). 5 (C). 6 (D). 7
A
A). 4
370
Q
- (150). The main battery is: (A). 12 volts 43 ampere hours (B). 24 volts 43 ampere hours (C). 12 volts 17 ampere hours (D). 24 volts 17 ampere hours
A
D). 24 volts 17 ampere hours
371
Q
- (620). The ADG can be automatically stowed by re-stowing the ADG Manual handle. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
372
Q
- (420). The external AC power receptacle is located: (A). Below the left engine pylon (B). Below the right engine pylon (C). Near the nose gear (D). At the right wing root
A
(C). Near the nose gear
373
Q
- (70). Once disconnected, the IDG: (A). Is automatically re-connected with engine shutdown (B). Can only be re-connected on the ground by maintenance (C). Can be re-connected in flight by reselecting the switchlight (D). Can be re-connected on the ground by reselecting the switchlight
A
(B). Can only be re-connected on the ground by maintenance
374
Q
- (60). The DC EMER BUS provides power to the: (A). Engine and APU fire extinguishers, fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves (B). Engine and APU fire extinguishers (C). DC essential items including the cabin lighting (D). DC power to the galley power
A
(A). Engine and APU fire extinguishers, fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves
375
Q
- (250). All 3 DC ties operate automatically. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
376
Q
- (600). Deployment of the ADG will supply power to the DC ESS bus via ESS TRU1. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
377
Q
- (10). In the event that both essential TRUs fail, the DC essential, battery and emergency bus will be powered by TRU 2 via: (A). The automatic MAIN TIE (B). The automatic CROSS TIE (C). The automatic ESS TIE (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
378
Q
- (440). With AC external power connected, pushing the Ext AC switchlight in the flight deck will power the: (A). DC buses 1 and 2 (B). AC service bus (C). DC essential bus (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
379
Q
- (280). The main and APU batteries are kept in a charged condition by battery chargers powered by: (A). AC BUS 1 and AC ESS bus (B). AC BUS 2 and AC SERV bus (C). AC BUS 1 and AC SERV bus (D). None of the above
A
C). AC BUS 1 and AC SERV bus
380
Q
- (340). AC BUS 2 is located on Circuit Breaker Panel 2 which is located: (A). Behind pilot’s seat (B). Behind copilot’s seat (C). In the aft equipment bay (D). None of the above
A
(B). Behind copilot’s seat
381
Q
- (350). An AC 1 AUTOXFER caution on the primary page indicates: (A). That AC BUS 1 is being powered by AC bus 2 (B). That AC BUS 1 is no longer powered (C). A fault has inhibited the normal bus priority system (D). Both B and C
A
D). Both B and C
382
Q
- (470). Pushing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE pushbutton on the ADG control panel will: (A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to be transferred back to its normal power source (B). Shutdown the ADG power source (C). Connects the DC EMER bus to the DC ESS bus (D). Overrides power from the ADG to the batteries
A
(A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to be transferred back to its normal power source
383
Q
- (140). Total, how many fire extinguishers are installed in the cabin of the CRJ 900? (A). 3 (B). 4 (C). 5 (D). 6
A
B). 4
384
Q
- (70). How many water fire extinguishers are located on the CRJ 900? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
A). 1
385
Q
- (110). ___ PBE (s) are located on the CRJ 900. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
D). 4
386
Q
- (80). The FWD F/A station contains: (A). Halon fire extinguisher (B). Water fire extinguisher (C). Smoke detector (D). Life line
A
A). Halon fire extinguisher
387
Q
- (50). The CRJ has ____ life line (s) located in the cabin. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
B). 2
388
Q
- (40). How many life vests for crew use are located on the CRJ 900 flight deck? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
C). 3
389
Q
- (160). Passengers have inflatable life vests installed under their seats that are to be used in the event of a water landing. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
390
Q
- (150). How many protective breathing equipment (PBE) devices are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 3 (B). 4 (C). 5 (D). 6
A
(B). 4
391
Q
- (10). The first aid kits are located: (A). Forward overhead bin (B). Forward flight attendant station (C). Aft overhead bin (D). Both B and C
A
D). Both B and C
392
Q
- (60). The smoke detector located in the lavatories can be tested. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
393
Q
- (130). How many Halon extinguishers are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 2 (B). 3 (C). 4 (D). 5
A
B). 3
394
Q
- (20). The PBE located in the flight deck is: (A). Behind the captain (B). Behind the first officer (C). On the sidewall alongside the first officer (D). In the flight deck closet
A
A). Behind the captain
395
Q
- (30). How many oxygen masks are located in the flight deck? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
C). 3
396
Q
- (90). Oxygen can be supplied to the passengers for _____ minutes via the drop down oxygen masks. (A). 60 minutes (B). 30 minutes (C). 15 minutes (D). 13 minutes
A
(D). 13 minutes
397
Q
- (120). The portable oxygen cylinder and masks are located in the: (A). Flight deck (B). Aft overhead compartment (C). Wardrobe Closet (D). Both B and C
A
(B). Aft overhead compartment
398
Q
- (100). The XMK is located in the: (A). Flight deck (B). Forward F/A station (C). Aft bulkhead (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
399
Q
- (90). The cargo fire extinguisher bottles are located: (A). In the right belly fairing of the aircraft (B). In the nose (C). In aft equipment bay (D). Inside each engine cowl
A
(A). In the right belly fairing of the aircraft
400
Q
- (430). The forward cargo compartment has ___ smoke detectors installed in the ceiling. (A). 1 smoke detector (B). 5 smoke detectors (C). 2 smoke detectors (D). 3 smoke detectors
A
(D). 3 smoke detectors
401
Q
- (10). Crew exposure to high levels of Halon vapors may result in dizziness, impaired coordination and reduced mental alertness. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
402
Q
- (360). The Halon fire extinguishers in the cargo bay discharge at different rates. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
403
Q
- (470). Both cargo fire extinguisher bottles discharge at the same rate. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
404
Q
- (350). The location of the cabin Halon fire extinguishers are as follows: (A). Two in the cabin and one in the flight deck (B). Two in the flight deck and one in the cabin (C). One in the cabin and one in the flight deck (D). Two in the cabin and two in the flight deck
A
(A). Two in the cabin and one in the flight deck
405
Q
- (280). Selecting the CARGO FIREX “BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH” switchlight fires: (A). 2 squibs (B). 1 squib (C). 4 squibs (D). 5 squibs
A
(A). 2 squibs
406
Q
- (130). A fire or overheat in the exhaust area of the engine is extinguished by shutting down that engine. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
407
Q
- (140). The engine fire extinguisher bottles are located: (A). In the right belly fairing of the aircraft (B). In the nose (C). In the aft equipment bay (D). Inside each engine cowl
A
(C). In the aft equipment bay
408
Q
- (440). There are smoke detection systems for the: (A). Lavatories and cargo compartments (B). Cargo compartments and galley (C). Galley and lavatories (D). Avionics bay, lavatories and cargo compartments
A
(A). Lavatories and cargo compartments
409
Q
- (270). Operation of mobile transceivers in close proximity to the smoke detectors, or exhaust fumes from ground handling equipment may cause a false smoke indication in the cargo compartment. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
410
Q
- (480). With an APU fire indication on the ground the automatic extinguishing will occur within: (A). 4 seconds (B). 2 seconds (C). 3 seconds (D). 5 seconds
A
(D). 5 seconds
411
Q
- (250). Fire detection and extinguishing is provided for the: (A). Left and right exhaust areas (B). Left and right pylon areas (C). Left and right wheel bin areas (D). Left and right nacelles and APU areas
A
(D). Left and right nacelles and APU areas
412
Q
- (420). A “FIRE SYS FAULT” caution message indicates: (A). Loss of redundancy in the FIDEEX system (B). The FIDEEX system has been tested and is operational (C). Loss of all AIRINC communication to the FIDEEX system (D). A successful test of the FIDEEX system
A
(C). Loss of all AIRINC communication to the FIDEEX system
413
Q
- (220). A SMOKE FWD/AFT LAV caution message indicates that: (A). A fire has been detected in the lavatory (B). Smoke has been detected in the lavatory (C). That the fire extinguisher has been activated in the lavatory (D). B and C
A
(B). Smoke has been detected in the lavatory
414
Q
- (310). An overheat condition in either the exhaust or the pylon area will be addressed by pressing the appropriate ENG FIRE push switchlight. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
415
Q
- (30). A single loop detection system is used to monitor the temperature in the main landing gear wheel bins. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
416
Q
- (330). If there is only one serviceable detector within a cargo compartment, the FIDEEX will automatically switch to single smoke detector operation. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
417
Q
- (80). Pressing the AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight: (A). Arms the squibs for both extinguishers (B). Closes the cargo SOVs for recirculated air, air conditioning, and exhaust (C). Illuminates the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
418
Q
- (50). ___smoke detector(s) are installed in the forward cargo compartment and ___ fire bottle(s) are installed in the aft equipment bay. (A). 2, 2 (B). 2, 1 (C). 3, 2 (D). 1, 2
A
C). 3, 2
419
Q
- (210). Fire detection and extinguishing is provided for the left and right wheel bay areas. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
420
Q
- (20). Pressing the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight on the CARGO FIREX panel will discharge both of the fire extinguishers. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
421
Q
- (60). Halon vapors are nontoxic. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
422
Q
- (400). If smoke is detected in the either cargo compartment: (A). The FWD/AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight will illuminate (B). The aural “smoke” warning will sound (C). A SMOKE FWD/AFT CARGO warning message will appear on the primary page (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
423
Q
- (500). Dual loop fire and overheat detection is provided for the: (A). APU (B). Engine exhaust areas (C). Engine accessory section (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
424
Q
- (200). The fire detection system for the engines utilizes: (A). Single loop sensing element (B). Photo electric cell to monitor for smoke (C). Dual loop sensing elements mounted in parallel (D). Two loops mounted in series
A
(C). Dual loop sensing elements mounted in parallel
425
Q
- (100). The main landing gear is protected by a dual loop detection system. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
426
Q
- (170). ENG BOTTLE 1 (2) LO messages are display on: (A). EICAS primary page (B). EICAS status page (C). Pilot’s PFD (D). Pilot’s MFD (E).
A
(A). EICAS primary page
427
Q
- (390). SMOKE FWD/AFT LAV caution message indicates: (A). A fire in the lavatory waste bin (B). A smoke indication in lavatory (C). An overheat detection in lavatory (D). None of the above
A
(B). A smoke indication in lavatory
428
Q
- (240). Fire and overheat detection is provided for: (A). Engines, APU, main landing gear (B). Engines, cargo compartments, APU, main & nose landing gear (C). Engines, APU, cargo compartments (D). Engines, APU, main landing gear, cargo compartments
A
(D). Engines, APU, main landing gear, cargo compartments
429
Q
- (120). Halon vapors have no effect on animals or humans. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
430
Q
- (70). The dual loop fire and overheat protection system will detect a bleed air leak in the pylon area. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
431
Q
- (460). An APU FIRE FAIL caution message indicates: (A). A failure to detect a fire indication (B). A failure of the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight (C). APU fire/overheat detection loop A or B has failed (D). A failure of the APU detection system
A
(D). A failure of the APU detection system
432
Q
- (300). In flight when a fire is detected in the APU, the APU will: (A). Shutdown (B). Shutdown and extinguish automatically (C). Do nothing (D). Remain operating with a Fire Bell annunciation
A
(A). Shutdown
433
Q
- (450). When the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed; both bottles squibs are armed but, only the onside BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight illuminates. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
434
Q
- (230). An APU fire detected on the ground will: (A). Only fire the bottle (B). Shutdown the APU but will not fire bottle (C). Shutdown the APU and display a message on EICAS but will not fire bottle (D). Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the fire extinguisher and display an EICAS message
A
(D). Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the fire extinguisher and display an EICAS message
435
Q
- (150). Selecting the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight on the CARGO FIREX panel will: (A). Activate one of the squibs on one of the cargo bottles (B). Activate both squibs on one of the cargo bottles (C). Activate both squibs on both of the cargo bottles (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
436
Q
- (260). The fire bell can be silenced by pressing the: (A). Master caution switch light (B). Master warning switch light (C). Left or right eng fire switch light (D). Bottle armed to discharge switch light
A
(B). Master warning switch light
437
Q
- (110). On the ground with an APU fire indication the APU will: (A). Trigger an APU FIRE warning message, fire bell and illuminate the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight (B). Shutdown (C). Discharge the bottle (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
438
Q
- (410). A successful test of the FIDEEX system will: (A). Generate a FIRE SYS OK advisory message (B). Generate a FIRE SYS OK status message (C). Generate a FIRE SYS FAULT status message (D). None of the above
A
(A). Generate a FIRE SYS OK advisory message
439
Q
- (290). When SMOKE is detected in the aft cargo compartment, airflow through the compartment is automatically stopped. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
440
Q
- (340). When smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment: (A). Shut off valves automatically close to isolate the compartment (B). Shut off valves automatically open to ventilate the compartment to prevent the smoke from entering the passenger cabin (C). Fire extinguishers automatically discharge in to the compartment (D). Both A and C
A
(A). Shut off valves automatically close to isolate the compartment
441
Q
- (180). Dual loop detection is provided for the: (A). Jet exhaust area and pylons (B). Engines (C). APU (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
442
Q
- (320). Normally, two cargo detectors must detect smoke to issue a cargo compartment smoke warning. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
443
Q
- (160). The lavatory fire extinguisher bottle is discharged via: (A). Heat sensitive capsules automatically (B). A switch on FA panel (C). A switch on the pilot’s glareshield (D). Switches on the CARGO FIREX panel
A
(A). Heat sensitive capsules automatically
444
Q
- (40). Fire extinguishing in the lavatory waste compartment is carried out manually. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
445
Q
- (490). L FIRE FAIL caution message indicates: (A). A failure to detect a fire indication (B). A failure of the associated FIRE PUSH switchlight (C). A normal test of the FIDEEX system (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
446
Q
- (380). ENG BTL 1 (2) LO caution message indicates: (A). Respective bottle has been discharged (B). Respective bottle has failed (C). Halon pressure in the bottle is low (D). Squib 1 (2) has faulted
A
(C). Halon pressure in the bottle is low
447
Q
- (370). When the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed: (A). Both extinguisher squibs are armed (B). Fuel and hydraulic SOV’s are closed (C). Bleed air shutoff valves close (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
448
Q
- (510). As long as smoke is detected in the cargo bay: (A). The associated CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight will remain illuminated (B). The aural “smoke” warning will persist (C). The CARGO SMOKE warning message will remain on the primary page (D). Both A and C
A
(D). Both A and C
449
Q
- (470). In the event of a mechanical failure of the slats/flaps control lever: (A). The slats/flaps will operate at half speed (B). The slats/flaps will fail in their present position (C). The slats/flaps will retract to 0° (D). An emergency flap switch will allow limited slat and flap selection
A
(D). An emergency flap switch will allow limited slat and flap selection
450
Q
- (580). Operation of the rudder trim will cause rudder pedal deflection in the direction trim was applied. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
451
Q
- (50). VFE for flaps 30 is: (A). 230 KIAS (B). 220 KIAS (C). 185 KIAS (D). 170 KIAS
A
(C). 185 KIAS
452
Q
- (390). To ensure adequate maneuvering margins, the flight spoilers should not be used at speeds below: (A). The approach speed (B). Vref plus 10 kts (C). The recommended approach speed plus 10 KIAS (D). VFE slats/flaps 45 speed
A
(B). Vref plus 10 its
453
Q
- (180). The aileron is trimmed trough the use of an aileron trim tab located on the left wing. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
454
Q
- (280). Pulling the ROLL DISC handle separates the control wheel interconnect and: (A). Establishes a cross-side aileron/spoileron relationship (B). Illuminates a Master Warning ROLL SEL (C). Gives the pilots control of both spoilerons (D). Automatically disables spoileron control on jammed side
A
(A). Establishes a cross-side aileron/spoileron relationship
455
Q
- (150). If YD 1 fails, the autopilot will disengage. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
456
Q
- (600). The spoilerons operate on both wings in a turn. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
457
Q
- (80). In the event of a dual engine failure with the APU off, how are the primary flight controls powered? (A). Hydraulic system 2 via ACMP 2B (B). Hydraulic system 3 via ACMP 3B (C). Hydraulic systems 1 and 3 (D). Hydraulic systems 2 and 3
A
B). Hydraulic system 3 via ACMP 3B
458
Q
- (30). VFE for flaps 1 and 8 is: (A). 250 KIAS (B). 230 KIAS (C). 235 KIAS (D). 185 KIAS
A
B). 230 KIAS
459
Q
- (550). Flutter dampers are installed on each aileron to: (A). Aid in gust lock protection on the ground (B). Prevent aileron control surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight (C). Provide artificial feel force loads (D). Both A and B
A
D). Both A and B
460
Q
- (250). In flight the purpose of aileron and elevator flutter dampeners is: (A). To provide flight gust lock when hydraulics are not applied (B). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU’s (C). To eliminate the onset of MACH tuck (D). To prevent over extension of the control surfaces in excess of their stops
A
(B). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU’s
461
Q
- (560). Each aileron and spoileron is powered by three hydraulic systems. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
462
Q
- (420). Pulling the ROLL DISC handle separates the control wheel interconnect and establishes a cross side aileron/spoileron relationship. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
463
Q
- (140). How many PCUs actuate the rudder? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
C). 3
464
Q
- (430). Each elevator is actuated: (A). By 3 PCU(s) (B). Mechanically through cables (C). By 2 PCU(s) (D). By 1 PCU(s)
A
(A). By 3 PCU(s)
465
Q
- (110). Pulling the roll disconnect handle isolates the left control wheel and associated cable system from the right aileron system. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
466
Q
- (590). The flaps are electronically controlled by the: (A). SFECUs (B). FCCs (C). PDUs (D). IRSs
A
A). SFECUs
467
Q
- (330). If the horizontal stabilizer is in motion at the high rate of trim for more than___, a clacker will activate. (A). 2 seconds (B). 3 seconds (C). 4 seconds (D). 5 seconds
A
B). 3 seconds
468
Q
- (100). What is the purpose of the flutter dampers? (A). Prevent control surface flutter with a hydraulic fluid is loss at the PCU in flight (B). Assist with turn coordination (C). Provide gust lock protection (D). Both A and C are correct
A
D). Both A and C are correct
469
Q
- (120). Selecting the ROLL SEL switch on the controlling side following the memory items associated with an aileron jam will provide: (A). Off side multi-function spoilers (B). Control of all spoilerons (C). Restoration of all aileron control (D). Only a reminder that the captain is controlling the ailerons
A
B). Control of all spoilerons
470
Q
- (370). The auto trim function of the horizontal stabilizer occurs: (A). At all times during flight operations (B). Only when the autopilot is on (C). When the flaps are moving between 0-20 degrees (D). Above 250 KIAS
A
(C). When the flaps are moving between 0-20 degrees
471
Q
- (60). VFE for flaps 45 is: (A). 230 KIAS (B). 220 KIAS (C). 185 KIAS (D). 170 KIAS
A
D). 170 KIAS
472
Q
- (200). The flaps are actuated by: (A). Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 (B). A dual motor power drive unit (C). Hydraulically through a mechanical linkage (D). Secondary flight control PCUs
A
B). A dual motor power drive unit
473
Q
- (400). The ‘clacker’ associated with the stabilizer trim will sound: (A). If the mach trim has run for more than 5 seconds (B). If the elevator is jammed (C). To alert the pilot to a potential trim runaway (D). All of the above
A
(C). To alert the pilot to a potential trim runaway
474
Q
- (610). Utilizing the stab trim with the autopilot engaged will disconnect the autopilot. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
475
Q
- (70). The second spoiler inboard from the wingtip is: (A). A roll spoiler (B). A flight spoiler (C). A ground spoiler (D). A multi-function spoiler
A
(D). A multi-function spoiler
476
Q
- (210). If a single flap PDU channel fails, the flaps will still operate but at a reduced speed. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
477
Q
- (540). The ground lift dumping system is controlled by: (A). FCC 1 and 2 (B). SFECU 1 and 2 (C). SSCU 1 and 2 (D). IRS 1 and 2
A
(C). SSCU 1 and 2
478
Q
- (440). Use of the slats/flaps is prohibited: (A). Above 15,000 feet (B). When a FLAP HALFSPEED message is displayed (C). En-route (D). Both A and C
A
D). Both A and C
479
Q
- (320). The flutter dampers installed on each aileron prevent: (A). Surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost on the ground (B). Surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight (C). Surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost on the ground or in flight (D). Prevent surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight and provide a gust lock function on the ground
A
(D). Prevent surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight and provide a gust lock function on the ground
480
Q
- (20). The selecting the EMER FLAP switch to DEPLOY will: (A). Extend the slats/flaps regardless of airspeed (B). Extend the slats and flaps to 20 degrees (C). Fully extend the slats and not move the flaps (D). Leave the slats retracted and extend the flaps to 20 degrees
A
(B). Extend the slats and flaps to 20 degrees
481
Q
- (360). The stabilizer trim priority is: (A). Manual trim, autopilot trim, auto trim, mach trim (B). Autopilot, manual trim, auto trim, mach trim (C). Autopilot, auto trim, mach trim, manual trim (D). Auto trim, mach trim, manual trim, autopilot.
A
(A). Manual trim, autopilot trim, auto trim, mach trim
482
Q
- (340). A “STALL FAIL” caution message indicates: (A). The stall protect pusher is deactivated or failed (B). One channel of the stall protection computer has failed (C). An angle of attack sensor has failed (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
483
Q
- (380). In flight, the purpose of the elevator flutter dampeners is: (A). To eliminate the onset of MACH tuck (B). To prevent over extension of the control surfaces in excess of their stops (C). To provide gust lock protection in moderate or greater turbulence (D). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU’s
A
(D). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU’s
484
Q
- (530). Both STALL PTCT PUSHER switches must be in the “ON” position for stick pusher activation. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
485
Q
- (310). In the event of a jammed rudder: (A). The bungee breakout will aid the pilots control inputs (B). The anti-jam breakout mechanism allows for rudder control requiring additional pedal force (C). 2 of the 3 PCU’s will overpower jammed condition (D). There is no jam protection
A
(B). The anti-jam breakout mechanism allows for rudder control requiring additional pedal force
486
Q
- (300). The rudder and elevators are powered by all three hydraulic systems. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
487
Q
- (90). Movement of the primary flight controls is through: (A). Cable and/or pushrods to the PCUs which hydraulically move the flight controls (B). Exclusively through fly-by-wire technology (C). Hydraulic lines running from the control column to the control surface (D). Electric signals sent by the FECU
A
(A). Cable and/or pushrods to the PCUs which hydraulically move the flight controls
488
Q
- (260). What aides the crew in directional control during a jammed rudder condition? (A). Bungee cord breakout (B). Rudder cable input summing mechanism (C). Anti-jam mechanism (D). Spoileron and rudder anti-jam interconnect
A
C). Anti-jam mechanism
489
Q
- (10). When the flap lever is set to 1: (A). The slats will move to 20 degrees and the flaps will remain at 0 degrees (B). The slats will move to 1 degree and the flaps will move to 1 degree. (C). Inboard slats will move to 20 degrees and outboard slats will move to 10 degrees. Flaps will remain at 0 degrees. (D). Electrically activated flap/slat brakes disengage. Flaps and slats will not move until lever is greater than 8.
A
(A). The slats will move to 20 degrees and the flaps will remain at 0 degrees
490
Q
- (500). A SPOILERON ROLL caution message indicates: (A). ROLL DISC handle is pulled with both ROLL SEL pushed (B). ROLL DISC handle is pulled with no ROLL SEL pushed (C). Spoileron fault (D). Both A and B
A
D). Both A and B
491
Q
- (170). How many PCUs actuate each elevator? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
C). 3
492
Q
- (290). Deployment of the ADG will provide hydraulic pressure for: (A). The primary flight controls (B). The secondary flight controls (C). Aileron and rudder only (D). Both A and B
A
(A). The primary flight controls
493
Q
- (490). Choose the correct statement regarding the EMER FLAP switch: (A). Selecting NORM will restore normal flap operation using the Slats/Flaps control lever (B). Selecting DEPLOY will extend the slats/flaps to 30° (C). Selecting DEPLOY will extend only the flaps to 20° (D). Selecting DEPLOY will not override the flap selection of the Slats/Flaps control lever
A
(A). Selecting NORM will restore normal flap operation using the Slats/Flaps control lever
494
Q
- (220). The stick pusher cannot be overridden or disabled. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
495
Q
- (240). The rudder is hydraulically powered by: (A). 1 PCU(s) (B). 2 PCU(s) (C). 3 PCU(s) (D). 4 PCU(s)
A
(C). 3 PCU(s)
496
Q
- (160). If the pitch disconnect is pulled, the captain’s control wheel controls: (A). The left elevator (B). The right elevator (C). Both elevators (D). Neither elevator
A
A). The left elevator
497
Q
- (460). Two gates are associated with the slat/flap lever quadrant at: (A). Slats/Flaps 1 & 8° (B). Slats/Flaps 8 & 20° (C). Slats/Flaps 20 & 30° (D). Slats/Flaps 30 & 45°
A
B). Slats/Flaps 8 & 20°
498
Q
- (350). The flaps can be retracted following a “FLAPS FAIL” caution message: (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
499
Q
- (450). The POM prohibits the use of flight spoilers at altitudes below: (A). 1500’ AGL (B). The FAF (C). 300’ AGL (D). 1000’ AGL
A
(D). 1000’ AGL
500
Q
- (510). How many PCUs are installed on each aileron? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(B). 2
501
Q
- (410). The yaw damper responds to inputs from the: (A). DCU (B). FCCs (C). IAPS (D). AHRS
A
(B). FCCs
502
Q
- (270). After pulling the ROLL DISC handle, selecting the illuminated ROLL SEL switchlight provides the controlling pilot with: (A). The on-side aileron and ground spoilers (B). Control of all spoilerons (C). The on-side aileron (D). The cross-side aileron
A
(B). Control of all spoilerons
503
Q
- (520). Mach Trim is active when: (A). MACH TRIM is selected on (B). At or above 31,600’ (C). When hand flying the aircraft (D). Both A and C
A
(D). Both A and C
504
Q
- (40). VFE for flaps 20 is: (A). 250 KIAS (B). 230 KIAS (C). 220 KIAS (D). 200 KIAS
A
(C). 220 KIAS
505
Q
- (130). During an aileron PCU runaway, the SSCU will command the spoilerons on both sides to respond to control wheel inputs. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
506
Q
- (480). In cruise flight at 290 KIAS, the EMER FLAP switch is inadvertently selected to DEPLOY. The flaps will: (A). Deploy to 45° (B). Deploy to 20° (C). Not deploy unless the aircraft is slowed to 230 KIAS or less (D). Not deploy unless the aircraft is slowed to 250 KIAS or less
A
(C). Not deploy unless the aircraft is slowed to 230 KIAS or less
507
Q
- (570). Moving the aileron trim will cause control wheel rotation. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
508
Q
- (190). What is the purpose of clacker activation with trim movement exceeding 3 seconds? (A). Trimming must be stopped momentarily or the stab trim motor will overheat (B). To warn the pilot that the stab trim is operating at half speed (C). To alert the pilot of a possible stab trim runaway (D). To warn of a possible trim overspeed condition
A
(C). To alert the pilot of a possible stab trim runaway
509
Q
- (50). The pitot static system provides input to: (A). ADC 1 and ADC 2 (B). Cabin pressure control panel (C). Integrated standby instrument (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
510
Q
- (10). Which of the following navigation formats may be selected on the Multifunction Display (MFD)? (A). HSI (B). NAV sector (C). FMS map (D). FMS plan map (E). All of the above
A
(E). All of the above
511
Q
- (120). What is the purpose of the DSPL CONT switch on the Source Sector Panel? (A). Selects one DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure (B). Selects the active MFD in the event of a failure (C). Selects one ADC in the event of a failure (D). Both a and c are correct
A
(A). Selects one DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure
512
Q
- (300). An amber GS flag on the PFD indicates: (A). That the glideslope signal has been lost (B). That the glideslope has not been captured (C). That there is a difference between the glideslope indications (D). That the aircraft has deviated from the glideslope
A
(C). That there is a difference between the glideslope indications
513
Q
- (320). In the event of a Display Control Panel (DCP) failure, an alternate source for the failed unit can be selected via the: (A). Source Select Panel (B). EFIS Reversionary Panel (C). Display Control Panel (D). Air Data Reference Panel
A
(A). Source Select Panel
514
Q
- (30). How can cross-side NAV source be displayed on the MFD? (A). Through the format knob on the Display Control Panel (B). By pressing the X-Side button on the Air Data Reference Panel (C). By pressing the NAV Source knob on the Display Control Panel (D). Cross-side NAV data cannot be displayed
A
(C). By pressing the NAV Source knob on the Display Control Panel
515
Q
- (60). The ADCs calculate vertical speed. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
516
Q
- (70). The digital readout for radio altitude displays: (A). 0 to 2,500 ft MSL (B). 0 to 2,500 ft AGL (C). 0 to 1,100 ft AGL (D). 50 to 200ft AGL
A
(B). 0 to 2,500 ft AGL
517
Q
- (180). Pressing the center of the BARO knob located on the FCP will: (A). Select either hPA or Hg display on the PFD
A
(B). Change the altimeter setting to
518
Q
29.92 inches of mercury (C). Clear the altimeter readout on the PFD (D). Cause the altimeter readout to indicate what the ADC senses
A
(B). Change the altimeter setting to 29.92 inches of mercury
519
Q
- (230). The low speed awareness indicator (green line) informs the flight crew that: (A). They have a 25% margin above the stick shaker activation speed that is based on the current flight conditions (B). The stick shaker will activate below that green line (C). They are at the recommended cruise speed for that altitude (D). The onside ADC has failed
A
(A). They have a 25% margin above the stick shaker activation speed that is based on the current flight conditions
520
Q
- (250). A flashing amber “PIT” flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (B). A difference of more than 3 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture (D). A difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture and less than 3 degrees after glideslope capture
A
(C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture
521
Q
- (280). In the event of a Display Control Panel failure (DCP), both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the Source Selector Panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
522
Q
- (150). EFIS COMP INOP caution message indicates: (A). A computer failure in EFIS system (B). Comparator information for one or both PFDs is not available (C). A data process has failed to compute (D). EFIS failure in compensation
A
(B). Comparator information for one or both PFDs is not available
523
Q
- (260). IRS initialization takes approximately: (A). 70 seconds (B). 10 minutes (C). 10 seconds (D). 7 minutes
A
(D). 7 minutes
524
Q
- (20). Weather Radar can be displayed over the HSI format on the MFD. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
525
Q
- (210). The airspeed trend vector indicates the predicted airspeed in: (A). 10 seconds (B). 20 seconds (C). 5 seconds (D). 15 seconds
A
A). 10 seconds
526
Q
- (350). An EFIS COMP MON caution message coupled with an amber HDG flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 6 degrees between the two heading indicators (B). A difference of 6 degrees between the two heading indicators (C). A difference of 3 degrees between the two heading indicators (D). A difference of 2 degrees between the two IRUs
A
A). A difference of more than 6 degrees between the two heading indicators
527
Q
- (140). A flashing then steady amber “ROL” flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (B). A difference of more than 3 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture (D). A difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture and less than 3 degrees after glideslope capture
A
(C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture
528
Q
- (160). With an EFIS COMP MON caution message coupled with an amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 10 knots with the IAS of more than 90 KIAS exists (B). A difference of more than 15 knots between each PFD (C). An IRS has failed (D). A difference of more than 7 knots between each PFD
A
(A). A difference of more than 10 knots with the IAS of more than 90 KIAS exists
529
Q
- (270). Should IRS 1 fail, attitude information from IRS 2 can be displayed on both PFDs by: (A). Selecting IRS 1 with the ATTD HDG knob on the source select panel (B). Selecting IRS 2 with the ATTD HDG knob on the source select panel (C). Selecting “PUSH X-SIDE” button in the NAV SOURCE knob on the side with the failed IRS (D). Selecting “PFD” on the Display Reversionary Panel on the side with the failed IRS
A
(B). Selecting IRS 2 with the ATTD HDG knob on the source select panel
530
Q
- (170). An amber YD on the PFD indicates: (A). That one of the yaw dampers has disengaged (B). That both of the yaw dampers are disengaged (C). That the FCC has detected a rudder mistrim (D). A fault has been detected in the yaw damp system
A
(B). That both of the yaw dampers are disengaged
531
Q
- (80). In what condition will the PFD declutter? (A). As a load shedding function if a generator fails (B). During unusual attitudes (C). During windshear warnings (D). During ILS approaches
A
(B). During unusual attitudes
532
Q
- (330). In the event that a PFD fails, the PFD information can be displayed on the MFD using the Source Selector Panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
533
Q
- (190). In the event of a Display Control Panel failure (DCP), both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the Display Reversionary Panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
534
Q
- (220). An EFIS COMP MON caution message coupled with an amber ROL flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (B). A difference of more than 3 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture (D). A difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture and less than 3 degrees after glideslope capture
A
(C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture
535
Q
- (110). How are captured/active modes and armed modes displayed on the FMA? (A). Active modes are indicated in green, armed modes are indicated in white (B). Active and armed modes are indicated in white (C). Active modes flash continuously; armed modes are indicated in white (D). Active modes are in blue, armed modes are in white
A
(A). Active modes are indicated in green, armed modes are indicated in white
536
Q
- (380). Weather radar can be overlaid on the MFD in which of the following modes: (A). Nav Sector (B). FMS Map (C). TCAS (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
537
Q
- (40). What is the purpose of the DSPL CONT knob on the Source Select Panel? (A). Permits the operable DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure (B). Permits the operable ARP to control both EFIS displays in the event of an ARP failure (C). Permits the operable FCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a FCP failure (D). None of the above
A
A). Permits the operable DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure
538
Q
- (340). The Radio Altitude tape indicates altitudes from 0 to: (A). 2500 ft. (B). 1225 ft. (C). 1100 ft. (D). 999 ft.
A
(B). 1225 ft.
539
Q
- (240). The standby attitude indicator has both localizer and glideslope indications: (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
540
Q
- (360). An amber ALT flag on the PFD indicates: (A). An altitude difference exists between the primary altimeters (B). An altitude difference between the IRS (C). A failure of the ALTS capture mode (D). That the aircraft is 300’ below the selected altitude
A
A). An altitude difference exists between the primary altimeters
541
Q
- (310). Radio Altitude will be displayed on the PFD below: (A). 2500 ft. AGL (B). 2500 ft. MSL (C). 1500 ft. AGL (D). 1500 ft. AFL
A
(A). 2500 ft. AGL
542
Q
- (130). An EFIS screen that is dark with a red DISPLAY TEMP message on it indicates that the screen has overheated. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
543
Q
- (90). What is the significance of a red boxed “ATT” annunciation on the PFD? (A). Determines the selected heading reference (B). The heading source is invalid (C). The onside or both inertial reference systems have failed (D). The alternate push to talk has been activated
A
(C). The onside or both inertial reference systems have failed
544
Q
- (290). The Mach number will be displayed when the aircraft speed increases above: (A). 200 kts. (B). 250 kts. (C). .5 Mach (D). .45 Mach
A
(D). .45 Mach
545
Q
- (370). Operating the IRS in ATT mode can allow the heading to drift over time. To correct this: (A). Select NAV mode on the MSU then reselect ATT mode (B). Update the heading in the FMS (C). Update the heading in the EICAS Control Panel if the FMS’s are not available (D). Both B & C
A
(D). Both B & C
546
Q
- (20). The FMS uses only the signal from satellites to update its own position. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
547
Q
- (140). Adding a pilot waypoint such as a VDP between two GPS approach waypoints is encouraged to enhance pilot situational awareness during a GPS non-precision approach. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
548
Q
- (40). The HOLD function key of the FMS control display unit will: (A). Bring up the HOLD pages, where holds can be displayed or modified (B). Command the airplane to enter a hold (C). Command the airplane to exit a hold (D). Place a hold on the active flight plan
A
(A). Bring up the HOLD pages, where holds can be displayed or modified
549
Q
- (70). On which FMS page would we disable a GPS receiver if the MEL directed us to? (A). FMS Control page (B). GPS Control page (C). IRS Control page (D). VOR Control page
A
(B). GPS Control page
550
Q
- (120). The FMS provides an automatic transition to an ILS course. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
551
Q
- (110). ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF and MLS approaches are prohibited using the FMS. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
552
Q
- (30). When AUTOTUNE is selected on the FMS radio page: (A). The FMS is assigned control of the navigational radios (B). The FMS is assigned control of the CDU (C). The FMS is assigned control of the audio control panels (D). All of the above
A
(A). The FMS is assigned control of the navigational radios
553
Q
- (10). Should both FMSs be unavailable, a flex thrust takeoff can still be performed by: (A). Manually setting the flex N1 during the takeoff roll without N1 carets (B). Setting the flex N1 setting on the ARP (C). Setting the assumed temperature via the EICAS MENU page on the EICAS control panel (D). None of the above
A
(C). Setting the assumed temperature via the EICAS MENU page on the EICAS control panel
554
Q
- (90). FMS range and fuel management information is advisory only. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
555
Q
- (80). Within 2NM of the FAF on a GPS approach we must verify: (A). TERM is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD (B). GPS APPR is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD (C). MSG is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD (D). The associated ground based NAVAID is tuned and identified
A
(B). GPS APPR is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD
556
Q
- (130). The pilot must verify FMS approach waypoints for accuracy by referencing current publications: (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
557
Q
- (100). During the initialization process of the FMS, database currency is verified on the: (A). STATUS 1/2 page (B). PERF INIT page (C). POS INIT 1/2 page (D). POS INIT 2/2 page
A
(A). STATUS 1/2 page
558
Q
- (50). The FMS tune inhibit switch on the backup tuning unit can: (A). Disable the use of the backup tuning unit (B). Disable the use of RTU 1 and RTU 2 (C). Disable the remote tuning function of the FMS only when the ATC transponder is selected to ADC 1 (D). Disable the remote tuning function of the FMS
A
(D). Disable the remote tuning function of the FMS
559
Q
- (60). We are required to verify the SCID number during FMS initialization to ensure the proper performance database is installed. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
560
Q
- (280). Fuel transfer begins automatically when the wing tank quantity falls to ________ and stops when it reaches ________. (A). 97%, 93% (B). 93%, 97% (C). 97%, 50 lbs above the opposite wing tank (D). 93%, 50 lbs above the opposite wing tank
A
(B). 93%, 97%
561
Q
- (40). The main ejectors: (A). Supply fuel to the APU (B). Move fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks (C). Provide fuel to the engines (D). Provide motive flow for the scavenge and transfer ejectors
A
(C). Provide fuel to the engines
562
Q
- (460). The boost pumps move fuel from the: (A). Center tank to the wing tank (B). Collector tank to the engines (C). Wing tank to the center tank (D). Main ejectors to the engines
A
(B). Collector tank to the engines
563
Q
- (430). If the fuel imbalance is greater than 200 lbs., but less than 800 lbs., the gravity crossflow can be open for takeoff. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
564
Q
- (10). A FUEL IMBALANCE caution message will appear when an imbalance between wing tanks exceeds: (A). 600 lbs. (B). 800 lbs. (C). 200 lbs. (D). 1000 lbs
A
(B). 800 lbs.
565
Q
- (70). Takeoff with the engine fuel temperatures below _____ is prohibited: (A). +5C (B). -5C (C). -40C (D). -30C
A
(A). +5C
566
Q
- (160). The boost pumps: (A). Are used only in starting the APU (B). Create motive flow (C). Back up the main ejectors during engine starts and main ejector failures (D). Back up the scavenge ejectors during engine starts and ejector failures
A
C). Back up the main ejectors during engine starts and main ejector failures
567
Q
- (250). Choose the correct statement: (A). If the powered crossflow system fails, the boost pumps can maintain wing tank fuel balance (B). If the powered crossflow system fails, the main ejectors can maintain wing tank fuel balance (C). If the powered crossflow system fails, gravity crossflow must be selected to OPEN for the duration of the flight to maintain wing fuel balance. (D). If the powered crossflow system fails, gravity crossflow can be used to maintain wing tank fuel balance
A
(D). If the powered crossflow system fails, gravity crossflow can be used to maintain wing tank fuel balance
568
Q
- (320). Only the right boost pump will operate on battery power. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
569
Q
- (220). The minimum fuel for go- around per wing tank is: (A). 400 lbs. (B). 450 lbs. (C). 600 lbs. (D). 800 lbs.
A
(C). 600 lbs
570
Q
- (80). How many magnetic level indicators are there and where are they located? (A). 3, one under each tank (B). 7, two under each wing tank, one under the center tank, and one under each collector tank (C). 5, two for each wing and one under the center tank (D). 6, two under each wing tank, one under the center tank, and one under collector tank
A
(C). 5, two for each wing and one under the center tank
571
Q
- (380). In the event of an APU fuel pump failure: (A). The APU will perform an auto shutdown (B). The APU will continue to run using suction feed (C). The APU will continue to run using fuel from the left main ejector (D). The APU will shut down unless the left boost pump is manually selected on
A
(B). The APU will continue to run using suction feed
572
Q
- (350). What EICAS message alerts you that a fuel asymmetry condition exists between the main tanks? (A). FUEL IMBALANCE (B). L/R XFLOW SOV (C). L/R AUTO XFLOW ON (D). AUTO XFLOW INHIB
A
(A). FUEL IMBALANCE
573
Q
- (410). Either the left or the right boost pump will operate on battery power. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
574
Q
- (120). In the event of an APU pump failure, how will be supplied to the APU? (A). The APU has a suction feed capability (B). The left of right engine main ejector pump (C). The right engine fuel line (D). The right engine scavenge ejector pump
A
(A). The APU has a suction feed capability
575
Q
- (330). Takeoff with engine fuel temperatures below ___ is prohibited. (A). -5 degrees C (B). +5 degrees C (C). -40 degrees C (D). -29 degrees C
A
B). +5 degrees C
576
Q
- (360). The APU’s source of fuel is: (A). The left wing tank (B). The right wing tank (C). The APU collector tank (D). The center tank
A
(A). The left wing tank
577
Q
- (170). The boost pumps are driven by: (A). AC power (B). DC power (C). Both AC and DC power (D). Motive flow
A
(B). DC power
578
Q
- (50). Takeoff with a fuel load in excess of 500 lbs in the center tank is not permissible unless each wing tank has: (A). 4200 lbs. .(B). 4400 lbs (C). 4760 lbs. (D). 4488lbs.
A
(B). 4400 lbs
579
Q
- (230). Bulk fuel temperature is detected by a sensor in the: (A). Left wing tank (B). Right wing tank (C). Center tank (D). Engine fuel filter
A
(B). Right wing tank
580
Q
- (440). The scavenge ejectors transfer fuel: (A). From the wing tank to the collector tank (B). From the collector tank to the main tank (C). From the main tank to the engine (D). From wing tank to wing tank
A
(A). From the wing tank to the collector tank
581
Q
- (310). An amber depiction of the powered crossflow pump on the fuel synoptic page would indicate: (A). The pump is not selected on (B). The pump is operating normally (C). The pump has failed (D). Invalid data to determine pump function
A
(C). The pump has failed
582
Q
- (100). Transfer ejectors are operated by: (A). Electric boost pumps (B). Motive flow (C). Main ejectors (D). Gravity feed
A
B). Motive flow
583
Q
- (20). The GRAVITY/XFLOW switch turns on the crossflow fuel pump automatically. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
584
Q
- (190). What maintains fuel symmetry between the main tanks? (A). Automatically controlled transfer ejector pumps (B). Automatically controlled scavenge ejector pumps (C). Automatically controlled transfer/APU pump and associated shut-off valves (D). Automatically or manually controlled powered crossflow pump
A
(D). Automatically or manually controlled powered crossflow pump
585
Q
- (240). What component in the fuel system carries fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks? (A). Main ejectors (B). Scavenge ejectors (C). Transfer ejectors (D). Boost pumps
A
(C). Transfer ejectors
586
Q
- (260). The boost pumps operate continuously in flight to serve as a back up to the main ejectors in the event of a failure. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
587
Q
- (150). If fuel is carried in the center tank, fuel is transferred directly to the collector tanks until the center tank is empty. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
588
Q
- (200). The minimum fuel for go- around per wing tank is: (A). 450 lbs. (B). 400 lbs. (C). 800 lbs. (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
589
Q
- (400). The APU fuel feed shutoff can be closed by the: (A). APU FIRE PUSH switchlight (B). PWR/FUEL switchlight (C). APU SOV switchlight (D). Both A and B are correct
A
(D). Both A and B are correct
590
Q
- (390). High level detectors located at the top of each fuel tank prevent overfilling the fuel tanks during refueling operations. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
591
Q
- (290). Both the powered crossflow and the gravity crossflow must be inhibited for takeoff. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
592
Q
- (370). The APU will shut down if its dedicated fuel pump fails. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
593
Q
- (130). The engines cannot be started if the engine fuel temp is less than 5C. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
594
Q
- (90). What source is the APU fuel supplied from? (A). From the right engine fuel feed line (B). Directly from the left collector tank by the APU fuel pump (C). Gravity feed from the main fuel tanks (D). The right main tank through the APU fuel pump
A
(B). Directly from the left collector tank by the APU fuel pump
595
Q
- (270). The left boost pump is available with battery power only. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
596
Q
- (450). The fuel synoptic page shows valve position. Should a valve appear in amber it indicates that the valve: (A). Did not attain the commanded position (B). Is not closed (C). Is open (D). All of the above
A
(A). Did not attain the commanded position
597
Q
- (140). How are the collector tanks kept full? (A). By the main ejectors and gravity feed lines (B). Two electric fuel boost pumps and gravity feed lines (C). Scavenge ejectors utilizing motive flow (D). Cross-feed lines and the main ejectors from the main wing tanks
A
(C). Scavenge ejectors utilizing motive flow
598
Q
- (420). The fuel temp sensor that monitors bulk fuel temperature is located: (A). In the left wing tank (B). In the right wing tank (C). In the center wing tank (D). In the left and right wing tank
A
(B). In the right wing tank
599
Q
- (340). A GRAVITY XFLOW FAIL message indicates: (A). That the valve has failed to its default position (closed) (B). That the valve is not in its selected position (C). That the valve has failed to its default position (open) (D). That there is insufficient data to determine valve position
A
(B). That the valve is not in its selected position
600
Q
- (300). Transfer ejector pumps: (A). Transfer fuel from main tanks to collector tanks (B). Transfer fuel from center tank to wing tanks (C). Move fuel from the collector tanks to engine driven fuel pumps (D). Transfer fuel during defueling procedures
A
(B). Transfer fuel from center tank to wing tanks
601
Q
- (60). The scavenger ejector: (A). Maintains motive flow (B). Moves fuel from the center tanks to the main wing tanks (C). Transfers fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks (D). Supplies the engine driven fuel pump with fuel pressure
A
(C). Transfers fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks
602
Q
- (110). The minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff is -5°. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
603
Q
- (30). The powered crossflow must be off for takeoff. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
604
Q
- (180). What is used to backup the main ejectors? (A). Two electric boost pumps (B). Motive flow from the APU fuel pump (C). Gravity feed lines (D). Scavenge ejectors
A
(A). Two electric boost pumps
605
Q
- (300). Should a loss of all generated power occur followed by ADG deployment the: (A). ACMP 3A will be powered by the ADG BUS (B). ACMP 3B will automatically be powered by the ADG BUS (C). ACMP 3B will be powered only if selected to ON following ADG deployment (D). None of the above
A
(B). ACMP 3B will automatically be powered by the ADG BUS
606
Q
- (70). In cruise flight, failure of the left engine will: (A). Activate pump 1B (B). Activate pump 2B (C). Activate pump 3A (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
607
Q
- (210). System 3 hydraulic components are not in close proximity to any appreciable heat source and have no provision for cooling. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
608
Q
- (130). Indications shown on the hydraulic synoptic page include: (A). Reservoir quantity and temperature (B). Inboard and outboard brake pressure (C). System pressure and available systems (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
609
Q
- (240). Hydraulic Low Press message appears when the system pressure drops below (A). 1500 psi. (B). 800 psi. (C). 2950 psi. (D). 1800 psi.
A
(D). 1800 psi.
610
Q
- (290). Which hydraulic pump(s) is associated with the ADG? (A). 3A (B). 3B (C). 1B (D). 2B
A
(B). 3B
611
Q
- (80). The anti skid system becomes active when the wheels spin up to: (A). 25 knots (B). 35 knots (C). 20 knots (D). 40 knots
A
(B). 35 knots
612
Q
- (30). Upon landing, the anti-skid system becomes active: (A). Once a 35 kt. wheel spin-up signal has been generated (B). Once the thrust reversers have been deployed (C). 5 seconds after the WOW switch has been activated (D). Either A or C
A
(D). Either A or C
613
Q
- (110). After the detection of an overheated brake, the temperature readout and the box around it will remain red even after the temperature has cooled. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
614
Q
- (140). Loss of either Hydraulic system 2 or 3 will result in a ___ reduction in braking capability. (A). 25% (B). 10% (C). 75% (D). 50%
A
(D). 50%
615
Q
- (40). Maximum gear extension speed is: (A). 200 KIAS (B). 185 KIAS (C). 220 KIAS (D). 250 KIAS
A
C). 220 KIAS
616
Q
- (170). The max rated tire speed in knots for the CRJ 900 is: (A). 182 (B). 192 (C). 195 (D). 210
A
(C). 195
617
Q
- (160). The landing gear and nosewheel steering are actuated by: (A). Hydraulic system 1 (B). Hydraulic system 2 (C). Hydraulic system 3 (D). Hydraulic system 1 and
A
C). Hydraulic system 3
618
Q
- (100). The manual landing gear extension handle, when pulled: (A). Releases the landing gear uplocks & manual release actuator (B). Releases hydraulic pressure from extension and retraction circuits (C). Powers the MLG auxiliary actuators (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
619
Q
- (120). EICAS messages display the status of the emergency lights but do not display the status of passenger signs. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
620
Q
- (30). External emergency lighting provides for illumination of: (A). The passenger door area (B). The service door area (C). The exit window area (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
621
Q
- (70). With the emergency lights selected OFF in the cockpit, they will illuminate if they are selected on at the flight attendant panel. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
622
Q
- (110). The flight attendant can turn the emergency lights on and override the flight deck switch if it were selected OFF. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
623
Q
- (150). Which of the following controls the operation of the flight data recorder? (A). Beacon (B). Navigation lights (C). Taxi lights (D). Either A or C
A
(A). Beacon
624
Q
- (40). EICAS messages display the status of the emergency lights and passenger signs. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
625
Q
- (80). In the AUTO position, the seat belt signs will illuminate when: (A). The landing gear is extended (B). The slats/flaps are greater than 0 (C). The cabin altitude exceeds 8,500 ft. (D). Any of the above
A
(D). All of the above
626
Q
- (130). With the EMER LTS switch on the overhead panel in the ARM position, the interior and exterior emergency lights will illuminate: (A). With the loss of essential AC power (B). With the loss of essential DC power (C). When selected ON at the forward flight attendant panel, regardless of the cockpit panel switch position (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
627
Q
- (160). Which of the following will cause the emergency lights to illuminate if they are armed? (A). Power switching from generators to external AC (B). Selecting the external AC and battery switches to OFF at the gate (C). Operating with only battery power in flight (D). None of the above
A
(B). Selecting the external AC and battery switches to OFF at the gate
628
Q
- (10). Turning on either the BEACON or STROBE light will activate the cockpit voice recorder. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
629
Q
- (60). What will cause the emergency lights to illuminate when armed? (A). Loss of essential AC power (B). Loss of essential DC power (C). Impact deceleration (D). Either A or B
A
D). Either A or B
630
Q
- (100). Independent rechargeable battery packs are capable of powering the emergency lights for: (A). 10 minutes (B). 15 minutes (C). 30 minutes (D). 20 minutes
A
(A). 10 minutes
631
Q
- (20). An EMER LTS OFF caution message indicates that the EMER LTS switch is in the OFF position. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
632
Q
- (90). What is required to illuminate the NO PED lights? (A). Extension of the landing gear with the switch in the AUTO position (B). Extension of the slats/flaps out of the 0 position (C). Manually selecting them ON (D). Both B and C
A
(C). Manually selecting them ON
633
Q
- (140). The taxi lights must be off whenever the airplane is stationary for more than: (A). 12 minutes (B). 20 minutes (C). 10 minutes (D). 5 minutes
A
(C). 10 minutes
634
Q
- (50). With the emergency lights selected OFF in the cockpit, the lights will illuminate: (A). If smoke is detected in the lavatory (B). If smoke is detected in the cargo bay (C). When selected on at the flight attendant panel (D). None of the above
A
C). When selected on at the flight attendant panel
635
Q
- (190). The proper flight guidance display configuration for a VOR approach is: (A). PF FMS with PNF bearing pointer, PNF VOR (B). PF FMS with bearing pointer, PNF FMS with bearing pointer (C). PF FMS with PNF bearing pointer, PNF VOR with PF bearing pointer (D). None of the above
A
A). PF FMS with PNF bearing pointer, PNF VOR
636
Q
- (140). The Terrain Clearance Floor Database includes worldwide coverage of all airports with runways longer than: (A). 3500 feet (B). 4000 feet (C). 4500 feet (D). 5000 feet
A
(A). 3500 feet
637
Q
- (240). To display the cross side NAV data the pilot will have to select the: (A). BRG pointer button (B). FORMAT knob (C). 1/2 button on RTU (D). Push button in the center of the NAV SOURCE selector
A
D). Push button in the center of the NAV SOURCE selector
638
Q
- (10). A PAC alert is a yellow arc on the radar display that informs the crew of an area of severe attenuation. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
639
Q
- (180). Windshear Alert of Caution (increasing performance) will provide escape guidance. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
640
Q
- (20). Selecting both ABOVE and BELOW on the TCAS main page sets an altitude range of: (A). 5,500 feet above and below (B). 5,700 feet above and below (C). 5,500 feet above and below (D). 9,900 feet above and below
A
(D). 9,900 feet above and below
641
Q
- (230). The RTU’s can be tuned through the FMS radio page. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
642
Q
- (310). When receiving a PAC alert, the crew should avoid flight into the area between the displayed weather and the yellow PAC alert arc. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
643
Q
- (150). The use of VS mode is prohibited during approaches. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
644
Q
- (160). During normal operations, the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch is in the off (forward) position. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
645
Q
- (290). A windshear encounter on an ILS approach that occurs at a radio altitude of 2000’ will not be detected by the alert system. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
646
Q
- (260). A yellow PAC alert arc on the radar display informs the crew that the radar beam is being seriously attenuated. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
647
Q
- (220). A Windshear Caution will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
648
Q
- (270). In response to an RA with “adjust vertical speed” annunciated, the pilot should: (A). Pitch to nose level (B). Adjust climb or descent to the rate indicated on the VSI (C). Adjust climb rate to 1000 fpm. (D). None of the above
A
B). Adjust climb or descent to the rate indicated on the VSI
649
Q
- (200). The FMS can auto tune the navigation radios when DME hold is active. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
650
Q
- (50). A “sink rate” alert requires an immediate go-around. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
651
Q
- (280). The NORM range key on the TCAS main page sets an altitude range of: (A). 2,500 feet above and below (B). 2,700 feet above and below (C). 3,500 feet above and below (D). 4,000 feet above and below
A
(B). 2,700 feet above and below
652
Q
- (170). Sector scan on the radar control panel will allow for 2 selections: (A). 60 degrees or 20 degrees (B). 60 degrees or 45 degrees (C). 45 degrees or 15 degrees (D). 60 degrees or 30 degrees
A
(D). 60 degrees or 30 degrees
653
Q
- (120). If an additional corrective TCAS resolution advisory is issued (ex. a reversal), the maneuver must be initiated within: (A). 3 seconds (B). 2 seconds (C). 2.5 seconds (D). 5 seconds
A
(C). 2.5 seconds
654
Q
- (60). Weather radar and terrain information cannot be displayed at the same time. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
655
Q
- (210). A “Terrain” warning can be ignored when the aircraft is established on a valid glideslope. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
656
Q
- (80). When a conflicting terrain or obstacle is detected, the terrain overlay automatically appears on the MFD. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
657
Q
- (110). The auto tuning function of the FMS ceases to function when: (A). Selecting “Green” needles (B). When DME hold has been selected (C). Selecting a manually tuned frequency in the RTU (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
658
Q
- (130). Windshear Detection and Recovery system monitors for windshear during the approach from: (A). 1500 to 10 feet AGL (B). 1500 to 10 feet radio altitude (C). 2500 to 0 feet radio altitude (D). At all altitudes
A
(B). 1500 to 10 feet radio altitude
659
Q
- (300). Using the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch allows the pilot to cross tune the RTU’s. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
660
Q
- (70). There are ___ DME transceivers in the CRJ 900 and each one can track ____ DME stations simultaneously. (A). 2, 2 (B). 2, 3 (C). 3, 2 (D). 3, 3
A
B). 2, 3
661
Q
- (90). Pressing GCS (ground clutter suppression) on the radar control panel will activate the mode for: (A). 10 seconds (B). 20 seconds (C). Until its deselected (D). 12 seconds
A
(D). 12 seconds
662
Q
- (100). The ADF can only be tuned on the RTU. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
663
Q
- (250). Traffic advisories alert the crew to aircraft within____ seconds of intrusion. (A). 20 (B). 30 (C). 35 (D). 60
A
(C). 35
664
Q
- (40). Windshear detection is active at all altitudes. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
665
Q
- (30). When the EGPWS computer detects a windshear warning the autopilot will disengage. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
666
Q
- (130). If for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his duty station. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
667
Q
- (70). The external gauge for the flight deck oxygen should be checked on the preflight. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
668
Q
- (80). The passenger oxygen system will deploy the masks automatically when: (A). Cabin altitude is above 12,500 feet (B). Cabin altitude is above 8,000 feet (C). Cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet (D). Cabin altitude is above 14,000 feet
A
(D). Cabin altitude is above 14,000 feet
669
Q
- (100). The ACMP 3B automatically starts after ACMP 3A failure. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
670
Q
- (200). With the ACMP 3B switch in AUTO; the 3B pump is normally not active during what phase of flight? (A). Taxi (B). Takeoff and landings (C). Approach (D). Cruise
A
(D). Cruise
671
Q
- (180). System 3 is powered by ____ EDP(s). (A). 0 (B). 1 (C). 2 (D). 3
A
(A). 0
672
Q
- (220). A HYD SOV 1 OPEN caution message: (A). Indicates that we must manually close the hydraulic shutoff valve after a normal engine shutdown (B). Indicates that the shut off valve is open with a left engine fire indication (C). Indicates that the valve has been opened during an engine start (D). None of the above
A
B). Indicates that the shut off valve is open with a left engine fire indication
673
Q
- (120). With the respective switches in the Auto mode, pumps 1B and 2B are: (A). Activated by gear operation (B). Activated by flap operation (C). Activated by stab trim operation (D). All of the above
A
(B). Activated by flap operation
674
Q
- (140). Hydraulic system 1 and 2 are cooled by: (A). Ram air, fluid heat exchanger (B). Fuel heat exchanger (C). Ram air (D). Pack air over primary heat exchanger
A
(A). Ram air, fluid heat exchanger
675
Q
- (190). System 1 is powered by ___ AC motor pump(s). (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
A). 1
676
Q
- (20). What ACMP can be powered directly from the ADG? (A). 1B (B). 2B (C). 3A (D). 3B
A
D). 3B
677
Q
- (80). On the ground, the cooling of system 3 is assisted by a fan. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
678
Q
- (160). The outboard brake pressure readout will turn white to indicate pressure below 1800 psi. (A). True (B). False
A
B). False
679
Q
- (50). On the ground, the cooling of systems 1 and 2 is assisted by a fan. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
680
Q
- (10). What hydraulic pumps are engine driven? (A). 1A and 3A (B). 3A and 2A (C). 1A and 2A (D). 3B and 2A
A
(C). 1A and 2A
681
Q
- (110). Hydraulic pump 1B or 2B will automatically start after an associated engine or EDP failure. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
682
Q
- (90). A HYD SOV 1 OPEN caution message indicates: (A). That EDP 1 has failed and the valve did not close (B). That the left engine hydraulic shut off valve is open with an associated engine fire (C). That the left engine has been shut down and the valve did not close (D). That the interlock circuit has failed
A
(B). That the left engine hydraulic shut off valve is open with an associated engine fire
683
Q
- (260). The hydraulic system 1 shutoff valve can be closed by: (A). Moving the engine thrust levers to SHUT OFF (B). Pressing the left ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight (C). Selecting the L/R HYD SOV switchlights to closed (D). Both B and C
A
D). Both B and C
684
Q
- (60). Deployment of the ADG will cause pump 3B to operate regardless of switch position. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
685
Q
- (250). The hydraulic system 1 or 2 shutoff valve can be closed by: (A). Moving the engine thrust levers to SHUT OFF (B). Selecting all ACMP switches to OFF (C). Selecting the L or R HYD SOV switchlight to closed (D). All of the above
A
(C). Selecting the L or R HYD SOV switchlight to closed
686
Q
- (280). What is the normal range for the hydraulic reservoir quantity? (A). 60-100% (B). 35-85% (C). 45-85% (D). Above 40%
A
(C). 45-85%
687
Q
- (170). The outboard brake pressure readout will turn amber to indicate inadequate pressure. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
688
Q
- (270). All three hydraulic systems power: (A). The left ailerons, the elevator and the rudder (B). The elevator and rudder (C). Both spoilerons, the rudder and the elevator (D). None of the above
A
(B). The elevator and rudder
689
Q
- (30). How are hydraulic systems 1 and 2 cooled? (A). Hydraulic lines running through fuel tanks (B). Independent air coolers (C). Heat exchanger in the fuel tanks (D). Ram air/hydraulic fluid heat exchanger
A
(D). Ram air/hydraulic fluid heat exchanger
690
Q
- (150). On the ground, ACMPs 1B and 2B can be operated without engine driven generator power. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
691
Q
- (40). System 3 is powered by ____ AC motor pump(s). (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(B). 2
692
Q
- (60). Wing anti-icing ducts appearing in amber on the Anti-ice synoptic page with the wing anti-ice selected on indicate: (A). Low temperature (B). Low pressure (C). The wing anti-ice valve has failed closed (D). Either A or C
A
(D). Either A or C
693
Q
- (150). How many Ice detectors are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4
A
(B). 2
694
Q
- (50). When operating a cold- soaked aircraft, the thrust reversers must remain activated until they deploy and stow within: (A). 2 seconds (B). 5 seconds (C). 10 seconds (D). 15 seconds
A
(A). 2 seconds
695
Q
- (170). At or above what indicated airspeed in icing conditions can we turn the wing anti-ice off? (A). 200 (B). 230 (C). 250 (D). 290
A
(B). 230
696
Q
- (110). With the PROBE LH and RH switches in the OFF position, the air data probes are not heated in flight. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
697
Q
- (220). With the wing anti-ice switch selected on, the valves: (A). Modulate open to maintain a constant temperature (B). Open and close on the command of the AILC (C). Remain fully open unless an overheat or bleed air leak is detected (D). None of the above
A
(B). Open and close on the command of the AILC
698
Q
- (160). When operating at 290 kts with an ICE advisory message, the wing anti-ice can be off. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
699
Q
- (210). The wing anti-icing system must be tested prior to every flight. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
700
Q
- (300). One the ground with the engine generators online, which of the following is heated with the PROBES switches selected OFF? (A). LH & RH pitot probes (B). AOA vanes (C). TAT probe (D). Static ports
A
(A). LH & RH pitot probes
701
Q
- (100). While the wing anti-ice is in use, N2 must remain above the amber arcs depicted on the N2 gauges. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
702
Q
- (120). In flight, the cowl anti-ice system must be on: (A). When in icing conditions (B). When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system (C). Both A and B (D). None of the above
A
C). Both A and B
703
Q
- (140). In flight, the wing anti-ice system must be on: (A). When in icing conditions at any speed (B). When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system (C). Both A and B (D). None of the above
A
(B). When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system
704
Q
- (70). POM guidance for dealing with a cracked windshield is located in: (A). 7.12 Doors and windows (B). 7.9 Ice and rain protection (C). 7.13 Emergency procedures (D). 7.7 Air conditioning and pressurization
A
(B). 7.9 Ice and rain protection
705
Q
- (20). An ICE advisory message indicates: (A). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (B). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (C). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected off (D). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected off
A
(A). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally
706
Q
- (260). When operating in icing conditions, the wing anti-icing system must be on when ICE is annunciated, or when operating at speeds below: (A). 220 kts. (B). 230 kts. (C). 250 kts. (D). 215 kts.
A
(B). 230 kts.
707
Q
- (10). Selecting FROM RIGHT on the WING A/I CROSS BLEED selector will: (A). Open the wing cross bleed valve and close the right wing anti-ice valve (B). Close the left wing anti-ice valve leaving only the right wing heated (C). Open the wing cross bleed valve and close the left wing anti-ice valve (D). None of the above
A
(C). Open the wing cross bleed valve and close the left wing anti-ice valve
708
Q
- (240). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selection is prohibited with the APU selected as the bleed source in manual mode. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
709
Q
- (30). An ICE caution message indicates: (A). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (B). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (C). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected off (D). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected off
A
(D). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected off
710
Q
- (80). The following components are electrically heated: (A). Windows, windshields, and air data probes & sensors (B). Wing leading edges and engine cowls (C). Wing leading edges and air data probes and sensors (D). Windows, windshield and window wipers
A
(A). Windows, windshields, and air data probes & sensors
711
Q
- (270). Electrical heating power to the T2 probe is controlled by: (A). The AILC (B). The FADEC (C). Cowl anti-ice switch (D). Ice detectors
A
(B). The FADEC
712
Q
- (190). Choose the correct statement regarding the windshield wiper system: (A). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the captain’s selection will override the first officer’s (B). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection (C). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the lowest selection will override the other (D). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the higher speed selected will override the other
A
(B). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection
713
Q
- (230). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selection is allowed with the APU selected as the bleed source in manual mode. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
714
Q
- (90). With the wing anti ice switch in the ON position: (A). The AILC will fully open the wing anti-ice valves to heat the wings (B). The AILC will fully open the wing anti-ice valves if ice is detected (C). The AILC will modulate the wing anti-ice valves open and closed as necessary to prevent ice formation (D). None of the above
A
C). The AILC will modulate the wing anti-ice valves open and closed as necessary to prevent ice formation
715
Q
- (180). The wing anti-ice cross bleed valve allows: (A). Both wings to be heated by one engine (B). Both wings and cowls to be heated by one engine (C). The engines to be cross bleed started (D). Both A and C
A
(A). Both wings to be heated by one engine
716
Q
- (310). Choose the correct statement regarding the windshield wiper system: (A). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the highest selection will override the other (B). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the lowest selection will override the other (C). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, each side will operate at their selected speed (D). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection
A
D). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection
717
Q
- (250). The ice detector probes are constantly heated during flight. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
718
Q
- (200). The maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation is: (A). 200 (B). 220 (C). 182 (D). 250
A
(D). 250
719
Q
- (130). The wing and cowl anti-icing valve icons on the Anti-ice synoptic page: (A). Indicate the commanded position (B). Indicate the actual position (C). Appear in amber if the valve is not in the commanded position (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
720
Q
- (290). Which of the following are heated after takeoff with the PROBES switches selected OFF? (A). Pitot probes (B). TAT probe (C). AOA vanes (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
721
Q
- (280). Which of the following are heated on the ground with the probe switches selected on? (A). LH PROBES (B). RH PROBES (C). AOA vanes (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
722
Q
- (50). The fusible plugs protect the main wheel against a tire burst that could occur under heavy braking. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
723
Q
- (90). Maximum gear retraction speed is: (A). 200 KIAS (B). 250 KIAS (C). 215 KIAS (D). 185 KIAS
A
(A). 200 KIAS
724
Q
- (10). With the hydraulic systems selected off and the parking brake set, both the inboard and outboard brakes will hold for prolonged period of time. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
725
Q
- (20). During a crew change, it is noticed that one of the brake temperatures is 3 in red, surrounded by a red box. This indicates: (A). That the brake had overheated but has now cooled (B). That the brake is hot regardless of the number (C). That there is a fault in the BTMS (D). That there is insufficient data available to determine the brake temp
A
(A). That the brake had overheated but has now cooled
726
Q
- (70). The auxiliary actuator used in an alternate gear extension is hydraulically powered by system: (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). Both 1 and 3
A
B). 2
727
Q
- (120). If the brake temperatures are normal, BTMS readout will be removed when the landing gear and slats/flaps position indications are removed. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
728
Q
- (180). The BTMS can only be reset if: (A). The brake overheat condition no longer exists (B). The BTMS OVHT WARN RESET button is pressed for more than 5 seconds (C). Both generators are offline and the passenger door is open (D). None of the above
A
(A). The brake overheat condition no longer exists
729
Q
- (190). The PARKING BRAKE warning message indicates: (A). Pressure is adequate and parking brake is selected on (B). The park brake shutoff valve has failed to open (C). The parking brake or associated shut off valve has failed (D). The parking brake is set with the airplane configured for takeoff or in the air
A
(D). The parking brake is set with the airplane configured for takeoff or in the air
730
Q
- (150). Tiller steering will deflect the nosewheel up to __ degrees on either side of center. (A). 50 (B). 60 (C). 70 (D). 80
A
D). 80
731
Q
- (60). Green range on the BTMS scale is: (A). 00 to 05 (B). 00 to 06 (C). 00 to 07 (D). 00 to 10
A
(B). 00 to 06
732
Q
- (200). Amber dashes in the brake pressure readout on the hydraulic synoptic page indicate: (A). The parking brake is on and system pressure is adequate (B). Pressure exceeds 3200 psi (C). Invalid data (D). Pressure is less than or equal to 1800 psi
A
(C). Invalid data
733
Q
- (130). Rudder pedal movement will deflect the nosewheel up to __ degrees on either side of center: (A). 20 (B). 10 (C). 8 (D). 5
A
(C). 8
734
Q
- (160). When in use, the oxygen generators can emit an odor similar to scorched cloth which does not affect the purity of the oxygen and is not a fire hazard. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
735
Q
- (20). The flight attendant masks use oxygen from the compressed oxygen calendar located behind the entrance storage compartment. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
736
Q
- (170). Passenger oxygen is supplied by the O2 cylinder that the flight deck crew utilizes. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
737
Q
- (30). The flight attendants utilize the same type of oxygen system as the passengers. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
738
Q
- (110). At cabin altitudes above 30,000 feet, the flight deck O2 masks supply pure oxygen regardless of the N/100% lever position. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
739
Q
- (120). The oxygen generators located above the seats in the cabin will supply: (A). 13 minutes of oxygen (B). 20 minutes of oxygen (C). A variable amount of oxygen based on altitude (D). The amount of oxygen supplied varies with the number of masks being used
A
(A). 13 minutes of oxygen
740
Q
- (10). The passenger drop down masks can be deployed: (A). By pressing the PASS OXY switchlight at the forward flight attendant station (B). With the loss of AC power with the emergency lights armed in the flight deck (C). With a key located in the Entrance Compartment (D). Automatically when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000’
A
(C). With a key located in the Entrance Compartment
741
Q
- (50). The portable oxygen cylinders and masks are located in the: (A). Flight deck (B). Entrance compartment (C). Aft bulkhead (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
742
Q
- (150). If the flight deck oxygen bottle exceeds its pressure limit: (A). The over-pressure disc will turn red (B). The over-pressure disc will be missing (C). There will be an OXY LOW PRESS caution message (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
743
Q
- (90). An OXY LO PRESS caution message is displayed when: (A). Passenger oxygen is low (B). Flight deck O2 is at or below 1410 psi (C). A passenger mask has been deployed (D). Flight deck O2 is unusable
A
(B). Flight deck O2 is at or below 1410 psi
744
Q
- (60). The flight deck oxygen system consists of one cylinder and three quick donning masks. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
745
Q
- (40). Oxygen can be supplied to the passengers for _____ minutes. (A). 60 minutes (B). 30 minutes (C). 15 minutes (D). 13 minutes
A
(D). 13 minutes
746
Q
- (100). When operating at altitudes above FL250, if at any point there is only one pilot on the flight deck, the remaining pilot must put on and wear the crew oxygen mask. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
747
Q
- (230). What is the AT for a takeoff weight of 79,500 lbs? 30R 8200 FT DT H299 AT N1 FLAP 20 38 84.3 7525O36 36 85.0 7672O37 34/85.7 7824O38 32 86.3 7983O40 31 86.6 8059O40 HW/10KT 80 0 TW/10KT -423 -5 BLCL .7 112 1 (A). 36 (B). 34 (C). 32 (D). 31
A
(C). 32
748
Q
- (240). Reference the TLR reduced thrust section below. You leave the gate at a weight of 75,300 lbs and burn 250 lbs of fuel on the way to the runway. What will your reduced N1 be? 18L/S4 7600 FT DT H178 AT N1 FLAP 20 42 87.0 6947O30 40 87.7 7100O31 38/88.4 7242O32 36 89.1 7378O34 34 89.8 7519O35 HW/10KT 108 1 TW/10KT -432 -5 BLCL .7 116 1 (A). 89.8 (B). 89.1 (C). 88.4 (D). 87.7
A
A). 89.8
749
Q
- (30). The revision section of the TLR is used for last minute changes such as MEL/CDL items that were not included in the original TLR: (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
750
Q
- (250). Using the TRL report heading below, choose the correct statement: APT PRWY POAT PWIND PQNH PMRTW FLP MAXV1 PTOW MFPTW MEM 18C 30.0 000/00 29.67 8697 8 140 7183 78825 (A). You cannot takeoff with a weight greater than 78,825 lbs (B). You can load the airplane greater than 78,825 lbs as long as your MRTW is greater than 78,825 lbs (C). You cannot have a ramp weight greater than 78,825 lbs (D). All of the above
A
(A). You cannot takeoff with a weight greater than 78,825 lbs
751
Q
- (190). Under normal conditions, all landing distance calculations are determined using factored distances. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
752
Q
- (60). APU bleed air is controlled by a modulating LCV that allows air into the left side of the bleed air manifold. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
753
Q
- (190). With the APU generator ON, and the APU supplying bleed air, the LCV modulates to ensure that there is adequate power to run the generator. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
754
Q
- (200). A bleed air leak in the cowl anti-ice ducting: (A). Is detected using the same type dual loop sensors utilized elsewhere in the bleed air system (B). Would be detected by the AILC if at least one loop sensor detected the overheat condition (C). Requires both sensing loops to detect the bleed air leak (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
755
Q
- (210). The ISOL valve is not automatically commanded open and closed during engine starts. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
756
Q
- (10). The bleed air pneumatic ducting utilizes a dual loop sensing system. The purpose of a dual loop system is to: (A). Provide redundancy (B). Minimize false overheat indications (C). Provide an increased ability to dispatch the aircraft (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
757
Q
- (90). If both electrical and bleed air demand on the APU increase above its capacity to handle both at the same time, the APU will sacrifice _______ to maintain __________. (A). Electrical output, bleed air output (B). Bleed air output, electrical output (C). Electrical and bleed air output, fuel flow (D). None of the above
A
(B). Bleed air output, electrical output
758
Q
- (120). The PRSOV closes when the associated ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
759
Q
- (50). In a dual loop bleed air detection system, only one loop needs to detect a leak for a warning to be generated. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
760
Q
- (130). A BLEED MISCONFIG caution message indicates: (A). That the bleed air system is in manual mode (B). An overheat condition exists in the bleed air system (C). That the HPV failed to open when commanded (D). An impossible bleed configuration is selected in manual mode
A
(D). An impossible bleed configuration is selected in manual mode
761
Q
- (230). With the isolation valve closed, the right side of the bleed air manifold can be pressurized by: (A). The APU (B). An external air source (C). The right engine (D). B and C
A
(C). The right engine
762
Q
- (250). Cowl anti-ice bleed air leaks would be detected by a ________ . (A). Single sensing loop (B). Dual sensing loop (C). Pressure sensor (D). Temperature sensor
A
(C). Pressure sensor
763
Q
- (110). A bleed air pressure displayed in amber on the ECS synoptic page: (A). Indicates bleed pressure is normal (B). Indicates bleed pressure is high or low (C). Indicates invalid data (D). Indicates the bleed source is not on
A
B). Indicates bleed pressure is high or low
764
Q
- (140). The amber arcs that appear on the N2 gauges when the WING anti-ice switch is ON are not an indication of anti-ice valve operation. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
765
Q
- (220). The left side of the bleed air manifold can be pressurized by: (A). The left engine (B). The APU (C). An external air source (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
766
Q
- (170). A DUCT MON FAULT status message indicates: (A). A normal indication following an overheat caused the system to close a shut off valve (B). Loss of redundancy in the bleed air leak detection system (C). Failure of the bleed air leak detection system (D). Failure of the AIRINC system linking the detection loops to the AILC
A
(B). Loss of redundancy in the bleed air leak detection system
767
Q
- (180). The APU LCV interlock protection: (A). Maintains positive flow through the cabin air distribution system (B). Prevents bleed air manifold pressure from damaging the APU compressor (C). Is overridden in MANUAL mode (D). Both B and C
A
(B). Prevents bleed air manifold pressure from damaging the APU compressor
768
Q
- (70). If the APU and engines are running on the ground, what is the bleed source for the packs with the system in AUTO mode? (A). The APU (B). The left engine (C). The right engine (D). Both engines will provide bleed air for their respective pack
A
(A). The APU
769
Q
- (150). The wing anti-icing ducts are: (A). Monitored by single loop system (B). Monitored by dual loop system (C). Monitored by thermal probes located in strategic locations (D). Not monitored within the fuselage
A
(B). Monitored by dual loop system
770
Q
- (40). When the 6th stage air pressure is high enough to satisfy the requirements of the pneumatic system: (A). The active pressurization controller will command the HPV closed (B). The ACSC will command the HPV open (C). The ACSC will command the HPV closed (D). The ACSV will command the associated PRSOV closed
A
(C). The ACSC will command the HPV closed
771
Q
- (20). To open the ISOL valve in the bleed air manifold: (A). Select the ISOL switch to OPEN (B). The BLEED VALVES must be in MANUAL (C). The BLEED VALVES must be in CLSD (D). Both A and B
A
(D). Both A and B
772
Q
- (30). An ANTI-ICE DUCT warning indicates: (A). A wing overheat condition (B). A bleed leak has been detected in the wing anti-ice ducting or piccolo tubes (C). A loss of heating ability on the leading edge of the wing (D). An overpressure condition exists in the anti-icing ducts
A
(B). A bleed leak has been detected in the wing anti-ice ducting or piccolo tubes
773
Q
- (240). The amber arcs that appear on the N2 gauges when the WING anti-ice switch is ON: (A). Indicate that the switch is in the ON position (B). Indicate that the associated valves are operating (C). Remind the crew to never reduce thrust in to the amber arcs under any icing condition (D). A and B
A
A). Indicate that the switch is in the ON position
774
Q
- (140). To operate the Air Turbine Starter, the following power requirements need to be met: (A). DC power, and pneumatic pressure (B). 115VAC and pneumatic pressure (C). Pneumatic pressure (D). DC power
A
(A). DC power, and pneumatic pressure
775
Q
- (50). After ‘dry motoring’ the engine for 90 seconds, a cooling time of __ must be observed before a start attempt can be made. (A). 1 minute (B). 5 minutes (C). 30 seconds (D). 2 minutes
A
(B). 5 minutes
776
Q
- (470). Reverse thrust is accomplished by redirecting the core airflow forward through a series of cascade vanes. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
777
Q
- (420). For N1 synchronization to be enabled, the left engine N1 must be within 2% of the right engine N1. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
778
Q
- (70). The engine fuel system in addition to providing fuel for combustion is used to: (A). Control and actuate the VG compressor linkage (B). Cool the engine oil (C). Actuate and lubricate fuel system components (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
779
Q
- (120). On the ground, engine ITT must be below __ before fuel can be introduced during start. (A). 90C (B). 115C (C). 120C (D). 100c
A
(C). 120C
780
Q
- (20). A second start attempt must be followed by __ of cooling before another start can be attempted. (A). 2 minutes (B). 1 minute (C). 10 seconds (D). 5 minutes
A
(C). 10 seconds
781
Q
- (390). FADEC is powered by the aircraft electrical system until N2 reaches: (A). 50% (B). 55% (C). 20% (D). 79%
A
A). 50%
782
Q
- (360). Ignition B system is powered by the: (A). Respective DC buses (B). DC essential bus (C). AC essential bus (D). Battery bus via a static inverter
A
(D). Battery bus via a static inverter
783
Q
- (190). Automatic Performance Reserve System will become active if: (A). N1 decreases 10% below the takeoff thrust set (B). The thrust levers are pushed to the MAX POWER detent (C). N1 decreases 15% below the takeoff thrust set (D). Both B and C
A
(D). Both B and C
784
Q
- (500). What drives the articulating cowls of the thrust reversers? (A). Hydraulic pressure from systems 1 and 2 (B). Electrical power from the ESS AC bus (C). Pneumatic power from the bleed air duct (D). Hydraulic pressure from system 3
A
A). Hydraulic pressure from systems 1 and 2
785
Q
- (320). Continuous ignition must be used during: (A). Takeoff and landing on contaminated runways (B). Takeoff with crosswinds of 10 kts. or greater (C). Light rain and or turbulence (D). All of the above
A
(A). Takeoff and landing on contaminated runways
786
Q
- (200). On approach, the APR system is armed when: (A). Slats/flaps are greater than 8 (B). Landing gear is down (C). APR ARM is selected on the Miscellaneous Test Panel (D). Both A and B
A
(B). Landing gear is down
787
Q
- (280). If an engine failure occurs while the thrust levers are in the CRUISE detent: (A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power (B). Thrust will increase proportionately (C). Thrust will remain at climb power (D). None of the above
A
(B). Thrust will increase proportionately
788
Q
- (30). Via a clutch assembly, the air turbine starter (ATS) rotates the: (A). Accessory gear box that in turn drives the N2 core section (B). Accessory gear box that in turn drives the N1 fan section (C). Main gear box that in turn rotates the impellor to start airflow (D). N2 compressor section and initiates airflow to the turbine section
A
(A). Accessory gear box that in turn drives the N2 core section
789
Q
- (170). When a N1 vibration level exceeds a target value: (A). The gauge and pointer change from green to amber (B). VIB is displayed within the N1 gauge (C). The N1 gauge changes from green to red (D). There is a triple chime warning and VIB appears in the N1 gauge
A
(A). The gauge and pointer
790
Q
- (440). In the event of an engine fire, pressing the FIRE PUSH switchlight will disable both ignition systems on the affected engine. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
791
Q
- (350). The Automatic Performance Reserve can only be activated by FADEC should an engine fail and all arming parameters are met. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
792
Q
- (450). The engine fuel/oil heat exchanger is used to warm the engine fuel and cool the engine oil. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
793
Q
- (110). The CF34-8C5 is a dual assembly engine comprised of a fan rotor (N1), and a compressor rotor (N2). The N1 rotor is a: (A). Single stage fan connected through a shaft to a four stage low- pressure turbine (B). 10 stage axial flow compressor connected through a shaft to a two stage high pressure turbine (C). 10 stage axial flow compressor connected through a shaft to a two stage low pressure turbine (D). Single stage fan connected through a shaft to a single stage low pressure turbine
A
A). Single stage fan connected through a shaft to a four stage low-pressure turbine
794
Q
- (370). A fuel flow with amber dashes instead of appropriate numbers indicates: (A). Engine fuel temps are < 5°C (B). A malfunction of the of the VG system (C). Fuel flow data is invalid (D). Low fuel pressure is sensed during an engine start
A
(C). Fuel flow data is invalid
795
Q
- (90). The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) requires __ before another start can be attempted. (A). That N1 is less than 55% (B). That N2 is less than 55% (C). That engine rotation is completely stopped (D). That N2 is less than 45%
A
D). That N2 is less than 45%
796
Q
- (380). Fuel flow to the engine can be interrupted by shut off valves that are closed by: (A). Pushing the ENG FIRE PUSH switch (B). Moving the thrust levers to the SHUT OFF position (C). Turning the fuel pumps off (D). Both A and B are correct
A
(D). Both A and B are correct
797
Q
- (80). Reverse thrust is accomplished by blocking N1 bypass air and redirecting the airflow forward through a series of cascade vanes. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
798
Q
- (250). If an N2 core vibration occurs a VIB indication is shown on the respective N2 gauge. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
799
Q
- (260). The ATS disengages at approximately ____N2 during an engine start. (A). 45% (B). 50% (C). 55% (D). 20%
A
(B). 50%
800
Q
- (220). During subsequent starts the ATS requires the engine to completely stop before another attempted start. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
801
Q
- (180). If an engine failure occurs on a reduced thrust (Flex) takeoff: (A). Thrust will automatically increase to MCT (B). Thrust will automatically increase to APR power (C). The thrust levers must be pushed to the MAX POWER detent (D). None of the above
A
(B). Thrust will automatically increase to APR power
802
Q
- (60). Maximum V1 is: (A). Max V1 as indicated on the TLR (B). V2 minus 4 knots (C). V1 as calculated on the speed card (D). The lower of answer A or C
A
(D). The lower of answer A or C
803
Q
- (70). If the OAT is above the POAT the reduced thrust data must not be used: (A). If the OAT is greater than the AT (B). If the FMS and TLR thrust settings do not match (C). When the FMSs are inoperative (D). At any time
A
(C). When the FMSs are inoperative
804
Q
- (200). The landing distances that would be shown below the — LANDING FIELD LENGTH— section are: (A). For emergency use only (B). Factored (C). Unfactored (D). Both A and C
A
(B). Factored
805
Q
- (40). The MFPTW cannot be exceeded for takeoff (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
806
Q
- (160). Reduced thrust takeoff procedure must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use (B). On contaminated runways (C). When the anti-skid system is inoperative (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
807
Q
- (210). Reference the TLR reduced thrust section below. You may take off at a weight of 79,600 lbs as long as an AT of 40 is programmed into the FMS and the flex N1 indicated is 83.6% or greater. 04 11006 FT DT H043 AT N1 FLAP 8 44 83.2 7624O45 42/83.4 7794O46 40 83.6 7960O48 38 84.3 8124O49 HW/10KT 119 1 TW/10KT -435 -5 BLCL .5 133 1 (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
808
Q
- (20). Engine failure procedures indicated as DT H118 for runway 12L means: (A). Turn right heading 118 (B). Do not turn past heading 118 (C). Direct turn heading 118 (D). None of the above
A
(C). Direct turn heading 118
809
Q
- (50). In the reduced thrust section of a TLR, AT indicates: (A). Air temperature (B). Assumed Temperature (C). All temperatures (D). None of the above
A
(B). Assumed Temperature
810
Q
- (130). When calculating V1 on the speed card for a reduced thrust takeoff: (A). Use the POAT depicted on the TLR header (B). Use the AT that will be used in the FMS for reduced thrust calculations (C). Use the actual OAT from the most recent ATIS/AWOS (D). None of the above
A
B). Use the AT that will be used in the FMS for reduced thrust calculations
811
Q
- (110). When the FMS is inoperative, the reduced thrust data is not valid if the actual OAT is below the POAT. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
812
Q
- (170). Except for the Actual Landing Distance section, all weights presented on the Landing Report section of the TLR are factored. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
813
Q
- (10). MFPTW does not include the following: (A). Maximum takeoff weight (B). Maximum runway takeoff weight (C). Maximum enroute weight (D). Maximum landing weight
A
B). Maximum runway takeoff weight
814
Q
- (150). Reduced thrust takeoff procedure must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use (B). On dry runways (C). When the anti-skid system is operative (D). None of the above
A
(A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use
815
Q
- (90). EWAI of the corrections section is an acronym for which of the following: (A). Engine with automatic ignition (B). Engine (cowl) and wing anti-ice - ON (C). Engine (cowl) and wing anti-ice - OFF (D). Engine (cowl) or wing anti-ice - OFF
A
(B). Engine (cowl) and wing anti-ice -ON
816
Q
- (180). Unfactored (actual) landing distances should only be considered: (A). When landing on a dry runway (B). When wing/cowl anti-ice is not in use (C). During an abnormal or emergency situation when longer runways are not available (D). Upon ATC request to land and hold short of an intersection or runway
A
C). During an abnormal or emergency situation when longer runways are not available
817
Q
- (140). Reduced thrust takeoff procedure must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are not in use (B). On dry runways (C). When the anti-skid system is operative (D). None of the above
A
D). None of the above
818
Q
- (220). Using the TLR report header below, which of following would make the report invalid: APT PRWY POAT PWIND PQNH PMRTW FLP MAXV1 PTOW MFPTW MSP 17 2.0 000/00 29.90 7781 20 123 7750 78000 (A). An OAT of 1.0 (B). Wind greater than 000/00 (C). A QNH of 29.79 (D). A flap setting of 20 degrees
A
(C). A QNH of 29.79
819
Q
- (80). Reduced thrust takeoff must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice are in use (B). The runway is less than 25% wet (C). Crosswind in excess of 10 knots (D). All of the above are true
A
A). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice are in use
820
Q
- (120). The TLR PQNH indicates 29.92. What altimeter setting will make the report invalid? (A). 29.81 (B). 29.82 (C). 30.02 (D). 30.03
A
A). 29.81
821
Q
- (100). A contaminated runway report is only valid if the temperature is at or below the OAT on the report header. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
822
Q
- (80). The APU LCV modulation is governed by: (A). Fuel flow (B). Electrical draw (C). EGT (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
823
Q
- (160). The bleed air system utilizes a dual loop sensing system. The purpose of a dual loop system is to: (A). Provide positive identification of fire indications (B). Minimize false overheat indications (C). Increase the detection area (D). Increase the accuracy of temperature readouts
A
B). Minimize false overheat indications
824
Q
- (100). The APU control system ensures that priority is given to ____________ by reducing ______________ as necessary. (A). Pneumatic loads, electrical output (B). Engine starting, electrical output (C). Electrical loads, bleed airflow (D). Cabin temperature control, generator load
A
(C). Electrical loads, bleed airflow
825
Q
- (410). For N1 synchronization to be enabled, the right engine N1 must be within ______ of the ______. (A). 1.5%, left engine (B). 5%, target thrust setting calculated by the FMS (C). 1.5%, target thrust setting calculated by the FMS (D). 2.0%, left engine
A
A). 1.5%, left engine
826
Q
- (60). When a N2 core vibration occurs a VIB indication is shown on the respective N2 gauge. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
827
Q
- (240). Two independent AC ignition systems are provided for each engine. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
828
Q
- (270). If an engine failure occurs while the thrust levers are in the CLIMB detent: (A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power (B). Thrust will increase proportionately (C). Thrust will remain at climb power (D). None of the above
A
(D). None of the above
829
Q
- (430). Choose the correct statement regarding the ignition system: (A). The CONT switchlight continuously activates only the A ignition (B). Logic within the FADEC uses both igniters during engine starts (C). Logic within the FADEC alternates between both ignitions A and B on each successive start (D). Logic within the ATS uses the A ignition during battery and external air starts
A
C). Logic within the FADEC alternates between both ignitions A and B on each successive start
830
Q
- (400). The APR is armed for takeoff when: (A). N1 of both engines are within 18% of the takeoff N1 reference value (B). N1 of either engine is within 8% of the takeoff N1 reference value (C). N1 of both engines are within 8% of the takeoff N1 reference value (D). N2 of both engines is greater than 80% and takeoff thrust has been achieved
A
C). N1 of both engines are within 8% of the takeoff N1 reference value
831
Q
- (150). If an engine were to fail on a go-around, with the aircraft still in the landing configuration, the APR would not activate. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
832
Q
- (310). The fuel pump is located on the accessory gear box and is used to generate motive flow for the ejector pumps. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
833
Q
- (290). If an engine failure occurs while the thrust levers are in the TOGA detent: (A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power (B). Thrust will increase proportionately (C). Thrust will remain at climb power (D). None of the above
A
A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power
834
Q
- (100). The vane angle of Variable Geometry System is controlled by the: (A). FADEC to protect against over temping (B). FADEC to prevent compressor stalls and surges (C). FADEC to provides thrust reverse upon landing (D). AILC to prevent compressor stalls and surges
A
B). FADEC to prevent compressor stalls and surges
835
Q
- (160). Ignition system A is powered by the: (A). AC essential bus (B). DC essential bus (C). AC bus 2 (D). Battery bus
A
(A). AC essential bus
836
Q
- (340). A green APR icon will appear in the N1 gauge(s) when it is active. (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
837
Q
- (490). The thrust reversers will deploy when the thrust reverser levers are pulled up when: (A). Thrust reverser system is armed (B). Aircraft is on the ground (C). Wheel spin-up exceeds 20 kts (D). All of the above
A
(D). All of the above
838
Q
- (130). An ENGINE OVERSPD warning indicates: (A). An overspeed of N1 for more than 2 seconds (B). An overspeed of N2 for more than 2 seconds (C). An N1 or N2 has exceeded redline for more than four seconds (D). None of the above
A
C). An N1 or N2 has exceeded redline for more than four seconds
839
Q
- (300). When would we use the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switch on the Miscellaneous Test Panel? (A). During single engine operations (B). When the thrust lever is in the CRUISE detent (C). There is no operational procedure in which the use of the HIGH POWER SCHEDULE is required (D). After reducing thrust to the CLIMB detent after takeoff
A
(C). There is no operational procedure in which the use of the HIGH POWER SCHEDULE is required
840
Q
- (460). In the event of an engine failure the APR system increases thrust to: (A). 10000 lbs. (B). 9874 lbs. (C). 13,625 lbs. (D). 14,510 lbs.
A
D). 14,510 lbs.
841
Q
- (210). On approach, the APR system is armed when: (A). Slats/flaps are greater than 20 (B). Landing gear is down (C). APR ARM is selected on the Miscellaneous Test Panel (D). Both A and B
A
D). Both A and B
842
Q
- (480). A ‘dry motoring’ starter engagement is limited to: (A). 60 seconds (B). 90 seconds (C). 45 seconds (D). 2 minutes
A
B). 90 seconds
843
Q
- (230). With engines running and bleeds configured for takeoff, the crew must verify that the target N1 values correspond to the data presented in the TLR: (A). ± 1.0% (B). ± 0.5 % (C). ± 1.5 % (D). None of the above
A
A). ± 1.0%
844
Q
- (10). The variable geometry system changes the position of the guide vanes and: (A). The stator vanes on the all stages of the compressor (B). The position of the compressor section to obtain cooler airflow (C). The stator vanes on the first five stages of the compressor (D). None of the above
A
D). None of the above
845
Q
- (40). A ‘cold soaked’ engine must be motored for __ seconds before a start attempt can be made. (A). 90 (B). 60 (C). 30 (D). 45
A
(B). 60
846
Q
- (330). When the APR becomes active, ‘red line’ ITT becomes: (A). 1006 °C (B). 990 °C (C). 963 °C (D). 947 °C
A
A). 1006 °C
847
Q
- (80). Children under the age of three are classified as infants (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
848
Q
- (120). Manual weight and balance is calculated on a: (A). Stab trim sheet (B). Load manifest / control form (C). Cargo trim sheet (D). Takeoff and landing report
A
B). Load manifest / control form
849
Q
- (50). Ramp weight can be defined as: (A). Zero fuel weight plus fuel (B). Zero fuel weight plus payload (C). Zero fuel weight minus payload (D). Takeoff weight minus enroute burn
A
A). Zero fuel weight plus fuel
850
Q
- (130). The weight of a passenger is counted as 200 lbs from: (A). May 1st - Oct 31st (B). Nov 1st - April 30th (C). Oct 31st - May 2nd (D). April 30th - May 1st
A
A). May 1st - Oct 31st
851
Q
- (110). The weight of a heavy bag is:
A
852
Q
- (30). A jumpseat crewmember occupying the flight deck jumpseat weights:
A
853
Q
- (10). The weight of a standard bag is: (A). 10 lbs (B). 19 lbs (C). 34 lbs (D). 58 lbs
A
C). 34 lbs
854
Q
- (260). Takeoff Gross Weight is defined as: (A). Ramp weight minus ramp fuel (B). Ramp weight minus taxi fuel (C). Ramp weight minus Zero fuel weight (D). MRTW minus taxi fuel
A
B). Ramp weight minus taxi fuel
855
Q
- (180). Automatic weight and balance calculations on the CRJ 900 are performed using: (A). 2 zones (B). 3 zones (C). 4 zones (D). 6 zones
A
D). 6 zones
856
Q
- (290). When calculating the PAX INDEX PER ZONE on the Load Manifest / Control Form: (A). Count children and adults seated in that zone (B). Count only adults seated in that zone (C). Count adults, children, and infants seated in that zone (D). None of the abov
A
A). Count children and adults seated in that zone
857
Q
- (300). When calculating the stab trim setting on the Load Manifest / Control Form with a takeoff weight of 57,000 lbs and flaps 20°: (A). Round up to 58,000 lbs and use that stab trim setting (B). Round down to 55,000 lbs and use that stab trim setting (C). Interpolate between stab trim settings for less than or equal to 55,000 lbs and greater than or equal to 58,000 lbs (D). None of the above
A
C). Interpolate between stab trim settings for less than or equal to 55,000 lbs and greater than or equal to 58,000 lbs
858
Q
- (60). What age group classifies children? (A). 2-14 years (B). 2-12 years (C). All passengers under 12 years (D). Passengers that have not yet reached their 15th birthday
A
(B). 2-12 years
859
Q
- (230). The CRJ 900 does not allow carry-on baggage (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
860
Q
- (170). Manual weight and balance is calculated on the CRJ 900 using: (A). 2 zones (B). 3 zones (C). 4 zones (D). 6 zones
A
(C). 4 zones
861
Q
- (190). The weight of a standard passenger from May 1st - October 31st is: (A). 170 lbs (B). 184 lbs (C). 189 lbs (D). 200 lbs
A
D). 200 lbs
862
Q
- (90). Infants are considered the same weight as children for weight and balance computations: (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
863
Q
- (140). The weight of a passenger is counted as 205 lbs from: (A). May 1st - Oct 31st (B). Nov 1st - April 30th (C). Oct 31st - May 2nd (D). April 30th - May 1st
A
B). Nov 1st - April 30th
864
Q
- (20). The weight of a planeside checked bag is: (A). 10 lbs (B). 20 lbs (C). 30 lbs (D). 40 lbs
A
(B). 30 lbs
865
Q
- (220). The weight of a planeside checked bag is: (A). 19 lbs (B). 30 lbs (C). 40 lbs (D). 50 lbs
A
(A). 19 lbs
866
Q
- (210). Maximum Zero Fuel Weight is a limitation that must not be exceeded (A). True (B). False
A
A). True
867
Q
- (70). When calculating manual weight and balance for non-standard groups of passengers: (A). No carryon luggage is allowed (B). 16 lbs must be added for carry-on luggage if not weighed with the passenger (C). All carry-on luggage must be weighed individually (D). None of the above
A
B). 16 lbs must be added for carry-on luggage if not weighed with the passenger
868
Q
- (240). Choose the correct statement regarding weight and balance data received via radio: (A). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back (B). Tail number, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and passenger count must be read back (C). Flight number, passenger count, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back (D). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back
A
(A). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back
869
Q
- (280). The captain is responsible for ensuring that the Load Manifest / Control Form is accurate and the aircraft is loaded within the approved envelope. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
870
Q
- (40). Basic operating weight can be defined as: (A). The weight of the airplane for revenue flight plus usable fuel and payload (B). Zero fuel weight plus payload (C). The weight of the airplane for revenue flight minus usable fuel and payload (D). Maximum takeoff weight minus enroute burn
A
(C). The weight of the airplane for revenue flight minus usable fuel and payload
871
Q
- (250). Choose the correct statement: (A). Structural MTOW is always the limiting maximum takeoff weight (B). MRTW is always the limiting maximum takeoff weight (C). MRTW or MFPTW, whichever is less, will be the limiting maximum takeoff weight (D). MFPTW or MRTW, whichever is less, will be the limiting maximum takeoff weight
A
D). MFPTW or MRTW, whichever is less, will be the limiting maximum takeoff weight
872
Q
- (160). During manual weight and balance calculations, the cabin is separated into two zones: (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
873
Q
- (100). Choose the correct statement: (A). Children weights are not counted as part of the ZFW but noted as souls on board (B). Children weights are counted as part of the ZFW but are not noted for souls on board (C). Infant weights are not counted as part of the ZFW but noted as souls on board (D). Infant weights are counted as part of the ZFW but are not noted as souls on board
A
(C). Infant weights are not counted as part of the ZFW but noted as souls on board
874
Q
- (200). Standard passenger weights include an allowance for personal items: (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
875
Q
- (270). Non-standard passengers that weigh less than standard weight passengers may be incorporated as standard weight passengers. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
876
Q
- (150). Choose the correct statement regarding weight and balance data received via radio: (A). Tail number, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and passenger count must be read back (B). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back (C). Flight number, passenger count, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back (D). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back
A
(B). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back
877
Q
- (30). The aft potable water system supplies water to: (A). Aft sink and aft toilet (B). Aft sink only (C). Aft sink and galley (D). None of the above
A
(B). Aft sink only
878
Q
- (70). Water drain masts are not heated on the ground. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
879
Q
- (80). How is the lavatory sink basin water heated? (A). Hot bleed air (B). Electric heaters which heat both potable water tanks (C). Electric heaters located under each lavatory cabinet (D). Warm air from the ECS system
A
C). Electric heaters located under each lavatory cabinet
880
Q
- (90). The ON/OFF switches on the potable water system panel power: (A). Electric heaters (B). Compressor (C). Tank level indicators (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
881
Q
- (100). The diagnostic light will come on when the potable water/wash system: (A). Overheats (B). Is not selected on (C). A fault is detected in the system (D). A drain mast fault has occurred
A
(C). A fault is detected in the system
882
Q
- (60). How do we determine the water level of the potable water tanks? (A). There is no way to check the potable water tank levels in the CRJ 900 (B). A sight gauge located below each lavatory sink basin shows the water tank level (C). Indicator lights indicate the tank quantities when the system switches are on (D). Both B and C
A
C). Indicator lights indicate the tank quantities when the system switches are on
883
Q
- (40). The forward and aft potable water systems are independent except: (A). A common control panel located in the galley (B). The pressurization source from a common air supply or compressor (C). They are serviced from a single servicing panel on the right side of the fuselage (D). Both A and B
A
(D). Both A and B
884
Q
- (120). When flushed, contents of the toilet tank assembly are dumped overboard in flight via heated drain masts. (A). True (B). False
A
(B). False
885
Q
- (50). All components of the potable water system likely to freeze are heated or insulated to maintain temperatures above freezing. (A). True (B). False
A
(A). True
886
Q
- (10). The forward potable water system supplies water to: (A). Forward lavatory sink (B). Aft toilet (C). Aft sink (D). Both A and C
A
(A). Forward lavatory sink
887
Q
- (20). The forward potable water system supplies water to: (A). Forward toilet (B). Coffee maker (C). Forward lavatory sink (D). All of the above
A
D). All of the above
888
Q
- (110). What has occurred when a Drain Fault light illuminates in the forward galley? (A). A drain mast fault has occurred (B). The potable water service panel selector is in the drain position (C). This is a normal indication on the ground with full potable water tanks (D). None of the above
A
(A). A drain mast fault has occurred
