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Leutenants Test > WMFR SOPs > Flashcards

WMFR SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

SOP 101 change procedure
Where should proposals be submitted?

A

To dep chief of ops through chain of command

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2
Q

SOP 101 change procedure
How should change be submitted?

A

As red line doc with suggested additions and deletions along with memo addressing need for change
chief of operations 

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3
Q

SOP 102 Operational procedures
What is the definition of the community assistance portion of incident priorities?

A

Alleviate the loss and suffering due to emergency event

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4
Q

SOP 110 Staging
What is the difference between level 1 and level 2 staging?

A

Level 1: Engine companies in direction of travel toward incident, at hydrants, in PPE and prepared to receive assignment
Level 2: In predesignated staging area; first arriving officer assumes role of staging area manager

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5
Q

SOP 112 Lessons learned
When is a formal post-incident analysis required?

A

High-risk, low-frequency event or when IC determines there is a learning opportunity

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6
Q

SOP 112 Lessons learned
How should lessons learned doc be formatted?

A

Outline format; if document is lengthy, include executive summary not exceeding 2 pages

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7
Q

SOP 112 Lessons learned
Where should the lessons learned document be forwarded?

A

Training Division Chief for further distribution and posting

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8
Q

SOP 200 Incident command principles
What incident command courses are required?

A

Uniformed members: ICS-100 and 200, IS-700 and 800
Civilian members: ICS-100 and 200

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9
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
What are the 4 positions?

A

ISO, PIO, community relations/assistance, liaison officer

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10
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
What are the essential duties of the ISO?

A

1) Safety
2) Accountability
3) RIT
4) Rehab
5) Perimeter

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11
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
What are the responsibilities of the ISO?

A

1) Perform survey of scene and assess hazards, access/egress, and locations and activities of personnel
2) Anticipate and report hazardous or unsafe situations and activities
3) Monitor and communicate ongoing activities, progress and deterioration of incident scene
4) Alter, suspend or terminate any activity conflicting with WMFR risk management principles
5) Ensure personal accountability system is in place
6) Ensure RIT is in place and sufficient for incident
7) RIT group supervisor as necessary
8) Ensure rehab
9) Coordinate establishment of safety perimeter and public exclusion zone

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12
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
Who is authorized to distribute information about the incident to public or media?

A

PIO

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13
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
What are the 7 PIO responsibilities?

A

1) Coordinate with IC about appropriate info to release
2) Notify IC of media presence
3) Establish media info area as needed
4) Coordinate and conduct media briefings
5) Coordinate media movement within incident perimeter
6) Obtain info from media that may assist with incident planning
7) Obtain video and still images

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14
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
Who assumes role of community relations/assistance?

A

PIO or designee subordinate to PIO

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15
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
What are the duties for person in charge of community relations/assistance (which may be PIO or designee)?

A

1) Coordinate with victim’s assistance personnel
2) Provide telephone access
3) Provide shelter and comfort items
4) Identify where evacuees have been transported
5) Identify immediate medical/mental health needs
6) Determine location of valuables and necessities and coordinate their retrieval with IC
7) Coordinate walk-through of property (if approved by IC and fire investigator)

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16
Q

SOP 202 Command staff
What is the role of the liaison officer?

A

Point of contact between IC and outside agencies

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17
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the positions?

A

Operations
Planning
Logistics
Finance

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18
Q

SOP 206 General staff
Who is responsible for all tactical operations connected with incident objectives?

A

Operations section chief

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19
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the essential responsibilities of the OSC?

A

1) Tactics and strategy
2) Assign branches, divisions and groups if necessary
3) Maintain accountability
4) Establish level 2 staging

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20
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the 9 responsibilities of the OSC?

A

1) Utilize risk management to decide appropriate strategy and tactics
2) Brief and assign personnel according to IAP
3) Coordinate resources to accomplish IAP
4) Maintain accountability
5) Establish Level 2 staging when necessary
6) Identify need for additional resources
7) Identify resources available for demob
8) Assign branches, divisions and groups
9) Report progress and needs to IC

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21
Q

SOP 206 General staff
Who is responsible for collecting, evaluating, disseminating and using info about development of incident, status of resources and demobilization of resources?

A

Planning section chief (PSC)

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22
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the 6 responsibilities of the PSC?

A

1) Collect and process info for use by incident personnel
2) Supervise preparation of IAP
3) Conduct operational briefings, planning meetings, and manage the planning process
4) Maintain status of resources assigned to incident
5) Maintain status of incident situation
6) Create, collect and maintain incident documentation and records

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23
Q

SOP 206 General staff
Who is responsible for providing facilities, services and material in support of an incident?

A

Logistics section chief (LSC)

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24
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the 2 essential duties of LSC?

A

1) All service and support needs (including forecasts and coordination with IC and finance section chief)
2) Provide input into communications, medical and traffic plans

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25
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the 6 responsibilities of the LSC?

A

1) Identify service and support needs for planned and expected operations
2) Review IAP and forecast expected needs for next operational period
3) Advise command and general staff regarding current service and support capabilities
4) Coordinate and process requests for resources in support of incident
5) Provide input into communications, medical and traffic plans
6) Coordinate with IC and finance section chief to ensure fiscal coordination and accountability

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26
Q

SOP 206 General staff
Who is responsible for all financial, administrative and cost analysis aspects of an incident?

A

Financial section chief (FSC)
Uncommon position to fill but consider doing so if incident requires mutual aid resources beyond first operational period, outside vendor support or is subject to cost share agreements.

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27
Q

SOP 206 General staff
What are the 4 responsibilities of the FSC?

A

1) Managing and tracking all fiscal aspects of incident
2) Providing cost analysis as requested
3) Ensuring time records for equipment and personnel are maintained
4) Review contracts, mutual aid agreements, memoranda of understanding and cooperative agreements for incident impact and application

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28
Q

SOP 211 Divisions and groups
How are divisions typically named?

A

Alphabetic when distributed horizontally; numeric when distributed vertically

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29
Q

SOP 212 Radio reports
What are the 5 radio reports typically used by WMFR?

A

IRR
FRR
CAN
Command transfers
Change in strategy
(FICCC)

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30
Q

SOP 212 Radio reports
What are the 9 minimum elements of IRR on fire alarms or structure fires?

A

1) Address/location if different than dispatched
2) Building size
3) Building height
4) Type of occupancy
5) Event - conditions (nothing showing, smoke showing, working fire, defensive conditions) and location of problem
6) Command option (investigation, fast-attack, or command post and location)
7) Strategy (offensive, defensive, or defensive on fire unit and offensive on exposures)
8) IAP/resource assignment
9) Resource determination

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31
Q

SOP 212 Radio reports
What should be included in the FRR?

A

Findings of 360 - immediate rescues, fire conditions, presence/absence of basement, changes in IAP, accountability location, confirmation/change of incident priority and immediate safety concerns (e.g., power lines)

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32
Q

SOP 212 Radio reports
For a transfer of command, what should be communicated by transferring officer?

A

Situation status
Current assignments and actions
Tactical needs

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33
Q

SOP 212 Radio reports
During a transfer of command, what should officer receiving command communicate?

A

Acknowledgment of information received
Confirmation that command accepted
Announce strategy
Advise dispatch that command transferred

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34
Q

SOP 212 Radio reports
What should IC communicate to dispatch during incident?

A

Change in declared strategy
Incident benchmarks

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35
Q

SOP 213 Command options
Where should subsequent arriving units locate in investigative mode?

A

Level 1 staging

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36
Q

SOP 213 Command options
When in fast-attack mode for rescue or incident stabilization, if incident not stabilizing quickly, what should be done?

A

Command transfer

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37
Q

SOP 214 Benchmarks
What are the 5 benchmarks to be achieved and communicated to dispatch?

A

1) All clear
2) Water on fire
3) Fire under control
4) Loss stopped
5) Community assistance

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38
Q

SOP 214 Benchmarks
What is an all clear?

A

Primary search complete or high degree of confidence that no one in affected structure

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39
Q

SOP 214 Benchmarks
How does “water on fire” benchmark assist IC?

A

Decisions regarding flow path, coordinated tactical ventilation and search

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40
Q

SOP 214 Benchmarks
What does “fire under control” communicate?

A

Fire or hazard confined and controlled and salvage/overhaul underway.

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41
Q

SOP 214 Benchmarks
What is “loss stopped”?

A

No further damage due to fire/hazard, firefighting efforts or overhaul.

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42
Q

SOP 214 Benchmarks
What does the “community assistance addressed” benchmark entail?

A

Affected citizens’ needs have either been assisted directly by WMFR or referred to outside agency/group for assistance

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43
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What is the responsibility of the TLO?

A

Coordinating terrorist and other criminal intelligence info through Colorado Information Analysis Center (CIAC) and local law enforcement partners.

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44
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What is the multi-agency fusion center created to help prevent terrorism incidents in CO?

A

Colorado Information Analysis Center (CIAC)

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45
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What does the Unclassified/For Official Use Only (U/FOUO) designation mean?

A

Sensitive but unclassified information which warrants protection and control that meets the criteria for exemption from public disclosure under the Privacy Act, and state and federal Freedom of Information Acts.

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46
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What can the disclosure of FOUO affect?

A

A person’s privacy or welfare, the conduct of federal programs, or other programs or operations essential to national interest.

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47
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What does the Unclassified/Law Enforcement Sensitive (U/LES) designation mean?

A

Sensitive but unclassified information that is intended for law enforcement personnel only.

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48
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
Who appoints the TLO?

A

Fire chief

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49
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What is the scope of the TLO?

A

Local and global

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50
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What are examples of suspicious events or activities involving WMFR that should be reported to the TLO?

A

Lost or stolen keys, identification, uniforms, communications equipment, or specialized equipment.
Surveillance or photographing WMFR personnel, equipment or facilities.
Threats made against WMFR or its members.
Inquiries regarding District security measures or emergency procedures.
Threats involving sensitive or controversial community facilities.

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51
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
If an incident occurs that requires law enforcement, should the TLO be notified first?

A

No. Inform LE first then TLO.

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52
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
Does the TLO inform all WMFR personnel of criminal or terrorism related intelligence?

A

No, only those with “need-to-know”

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53
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What directives must be followed when handling U/FOUO or U/LES documents?

A

1) Not to be released to media, public or those without “need-to-know”
2) Only sent on official email address (not personal)
3) Not disseminated in any manner - orally, visually or electronically - to unauthorized personnel

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54
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
When unattended, how should FOUO or LES materials be stored?

A

Locked file cabinet (or any locked compartment) or in an area with sufficient physical access control

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55
Q

SOP 217 Threat liaison officer
What should be done with FOUO and LES material when no longer needed?

A

Destroyed

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56
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
What’s the minimum number of personnel that can work within a hazard zone?

A

2

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57
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
How shall team members in hazard zone remain in contact?

A

Touch, voice or vision

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58
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
Where should a company’s primary passports be placed on an incident?

A

Company officer should place them on Velcro strip inside engineer’s compartment door. IC will ensure they are collected and delivered to ICP.

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59
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
What is the purpose of the secondary passport?

A

Utilized by division/group supervisor. May also be used by staging and rehab.

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60
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
What is the purpose of the riding passport?

A

Remain on apparatus in the event that no other passport can be located

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61
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
Who’s responsibility is it to provide a passport if personnel are reassigned to another crew?

A

The individual’s

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62
Q

SOP 301 Accountability
Where should the remaining 3 passport tags be placed?

A

Underside of helmet

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63
Q

SOP 303 Personal protective equipment
When should bunkers, hoods, gloves and SCBA be worn?

A

Structural firefighting tasks including vertical vent
Vehicle, dumpster and trash fires
Fire alarms
Hazmat incidents (at a minimum)

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64
Q

SOP 304 Self-contained breathing apparatus
What should be carried when on SCBA?

A

Self-rescue rope bag

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65
Q

SOP 304 Self-contained breathing apparatus
When can SCBA use be discontinued at a fire incident?

A

When CO level less than 35 ppm and IC has authorized

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66
Q

SOP 304 Self-contained breathing apparatus
What are the 7 atmospheric conditions that necessitate use of SCBA?

A

1) Oxygen < 19.5% or > 23.5%
2) Below grade or confined space and unknown IDLH
3) Possibility for LEL greater than 10%
4) CO level above 35 ppm
5) Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) above 25 ppm
6) Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN) above 10 ppm
7) Volatile organic compound above 10 ppm

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67
Q

SOP 305 Withdrawal and abandonment
What are the similarities and differences between the two?

A

Both require PAR after exiting operating area.

Withdrawal - ordered by IC, bring hose and tools out

Abandonment - ordered by IC, SaM or division/group supervisor and followed by 3 sets of 3 continuous air horn blasts, leave hose and tools unless removal will not hinder abandonment

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68
Q

SOP 306 Personnel accountability report
Under what 6 circumstances shall an IC order a PAR?

A

1) Change in strategy
2) Report of a lost, missing or trapped firefighter
3) Hazardous event (e.g., collapse, flashover or water supply failure)
4) Change in comm plan
5) Every 30 minutes
6) Anytime IC deems necessary
(CCTHEA)

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69
Q

SOP 306 Personnel accountability report
What should company officer confirm on a PAR?

A

Unit, number of members, location

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70
Q

SOP 307 Mayday
What are examples of mayday circumstances?

A

Entrapment, entanglement, inability to exit IDLH, loss of air supply, fall through roof or floor, entrapment in area that has undergone collapse, flashover or backdraft.

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71
Q

SOP 307 Mayday
What should affected member do to assist in rescue?

A

Activate PASS device (after airing mayday)
Use air conservation practices
Monitor remaining air levels in own and other crew members
Utilize EBSS as needed
Turn on flashlight
Attempt self-rescue
Locate other means of egress

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72
Q

SOP 308 Two-in/two out
What is function of two-out crew on initial fire attack?

A

Initial RIT (IRIT) for two-in

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73
Q

SOP 308 Two-in/two out
Under what conditions can initial IC deviate from two-in/two out?

A

1) Imminent life threat where immediate action will prevent loss of life or serious injury
2) Fire in incipient phase where immediate action will stabilize incident
3) Fire involving vehicles, dumpsters, refuse or vegetation

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74
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival (reference)
What tools should be assembled by RIT?

A

Fast bag, irons, TIC, search rope bag, RIT bag

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75
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival (reference)
What should RIT focus on during 360 and size-up?

A

Access/egress
Personnel locations (current and future)
Building and fire conditions
Potential need for specialized tools or resources

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76
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival (reference)
What are the entry/search benchmarks to be reported to RIT group supervisor?

A

1) RIT entry and location
2) RIT location updates

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77
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival (reference)
What are the benchmarks to be reported to RIT group supervisor once ff is found?

A

1) FF located
2) Air supply secured
3) Packaging complete

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78
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival (reference)
What are the removal benchmarks to be reported to RIT group supervisor?

A

1) Removal in progress toward specific egress
2) FF and RIT out of building with PAR

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79
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival
What is the minimum number of personnel in RIT?

A

3 (combining medic with engine company is appropriate)

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80
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival
With whom should RIT group supervisor confer once he receives this assignment?

A

IC or relevant division supervisor about IAP

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81
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival
Where should RIT personnel be located?

A

3 corners of structure

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82
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival
Should RIT be reassigned?

A

Yes, to second-due tower company if not needed for tactical considerations.

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83
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival
Who should be assigned RIT supervisor in the event of a MAYDAY or other known emergency?

A

Chief or SaM typically but consider other subject matter expert on scene

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84
Q

SOP 309 Rapid intervention and firefighter safety/survival
Besides assigning a RIT group supervisor, what else should IC do upon RIT activation?

A

Call for additional alarm plus specialized resources
Consider moving original incident to another radio channel

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85
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
What certification is required to operate any type 1 or III engine and the tactical tender?

A

CMCB Driver-Operator Pumper

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86
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
What 2 conditions preclude us from having to put pts in safety restraint devices (including shoulder straps)?

A

Pt’s injuries
Barrier to pt care

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87
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
Under what 4 circumstances must vehicle operator bring vehicle to a complete stop?

A

1) Controlled intersection with stop light or yellow or red traffic signal
2) Uncontrolled railroad crossing
3) Stopped school bus with flashing warning lights
4) As directed by any law enforcement officer

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88
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
When and how should a backer be used?

A

Whenever available. At the rear of the vehicle, where he can be clearly seen by driver and in a location that helps avoid greatest hazard.

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89
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
What shall driver do before backing?

A

Roll down driver window and remove hearing pro.

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90
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
What should driver do if no backer is available?

A

First walk around vehicle and ensure no obstructions behind vehicle or in intended path of travel.

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91
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
What is the only circumstance in which a member can be on apparatus but outside cab when vehicle is moving?

A

Loading hose

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92
Q

SOP 310 Emergency vehicle operations
What are the conditions for member being in hosebed loading hose while vehicle is moving?

A

1) Safety observer present who has visual and voice contact with driver
2) Vehicle moves forward at a speed less than 5mph
3) Member shall not stand (only sit or kneel)

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93
Q

SOP 311 Highway incident scene protection
How should traffic safety unit be positioned?

A

1) Approximately 1 lane wider than incident
2) Wheels pointed in a direction that will cause it to travel away from scene if hit

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94
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
When should personnel perform self-rehab?

A

After depletion of one SCBA bottle or 20 min of physical labor without SCBA.

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95
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
What does self-rehab consist of?

A

Rehydration for at least 10 min

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96
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
When should formal rehab be performed?

A

Depletion of 2 bottles, 40 min of physical labor without SCBA or depletion of 1 bottle in encapsulating chemical protective suit

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97
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
What does formal rehab consist of?

A

20 min of rest, hydration, nourishment, cool-down and medical eval

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98
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
What are the vitals limits for HR and temp?

A

If HR greater than 110 and temp greater than 100.6F, ff shall not leave rehab except for further medical attention.

If HR greater than 100 but temp lower than 100.6F, extend rehab

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99
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
What are the vitals limits for BP?

A

BP must be below 160 sys and 100 dia before release from rehab

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100
Q

SOP 312 Rehabilitation
What are the vitals limits for pulse ox?

A

Between 95 and 100 after 20 min of rehab.

If below 95 after 20 min, extend rehab

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101
Q

SOP 313 Safety isolation zones
What does yellow “Fire line - do not cross” indicate?

A

Closed to public and non-essential personnel. May only enter if approved by IC and escorted by uniformed member.

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102
Q

SOP 313 Safety isolation zones
What does red and white striped flagging indicate?

A

Closed to everyone due to hazards like collapse or fall hazards.

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103
Q

SOP 314 Rule of air management (ROAM)
What defines a hazardous atmosphere?

A

Atmosphere which is or may be oxygen deficient or contains or may contain a toxic or disease producing contaminant.

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104
Q

SOP 314 Rule of air management (ROAM)
What is the point of no return?

A

The point at which team becomes part of problem

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105
Q

SOP 314 Rule of air management (ROAM)
What should be done when anyone reaches 50% air?

A

Officer or team lead notifies operational supervisor

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106
Q

SOP 314 Rule of air management (ROAM)
When should personnel plan to exit hazardous area?

A

Prior to Vibralert activation

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107
Q

SOP 314 Rule of air management (ROAM)
What should be done if crew has not exited before Vibralert activation?

A

Officer or team lead reports Vibralert activation to operational supervisor and advises of unit, location and estimate of time to exit.

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108
Q

SOP 314 Rule of air management (ROAM)
What happens if Vibralert activation without radio report?

A

It will be considered a MAYDAY emergency

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109
Q

SOP 316 Gas monitor use
In what 8 circumstances should gas monitors be used?

A

1) Confined space
2) Trench
3) CO incidents
4) Hazmat incidents
5) Flammable gas leak
6) MCIs that may be the result of gas or vapor release
7) Structure fire overhauls
8) Unknown medicals involving N/V, headache, dizziness, LOC or confusion

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110
Q

SOP 316 Gas monitor use
How often should RKI gas monitors be service tested?

A

Quarterly by qualified RKI service technician

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111
Q

SOP 316 Gas monitor use
When should RKI monitors be fresh air calibrated?

A

Once every shift and prior to entering potentially IDLH environment

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112
Q

SOP 316 Gas monitor use
How often should RKI monitors be calibrated?

A

Every 90 days by RKI qualified service technician

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113
Q

SOP 401 Rescue
What 4 things should IC consider when planning a rescue?

A

1) Evacuation status
2) Number, location and condition of victims
3) Potential effect of fire on victims
4) Personnel capability to enter structure to affect rescue, protect victims in place or control fire

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114
Q

SOP 401 Rescue
How should rescues be prioritized?

A

Most threatened
Most number
Remainder of structure
Exposures

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115
Q

SOP 402 Search
How many personnel are required for a large area search?

A

4

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116
Q

SOP 402 Search
What shall be used with large area searches?

A

Rope or hoseline (staffed hoseline required when fire is not confined or location unknown)

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117
Q

SOP 402 Search
In a complex structure with multiple rooms, how do we indicate that a primary search is underway?

A

Rubber doorknob hanger attached to both inner and outer doorknob
OR Single “/” on outside of door

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118
Q

SOP 402 Search
In a complex structure with multiple rooms, how do we indicate that a primary search is partially complete?

A

Doorknob hanger attached by one hole to outside doorknob

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119
Q

SOP 402 Search
In a complex structure with multiple rooms, how do we indicate that a primary search is complete?

A

Doorknob hanger attached by both holes to outside doorknob
OR “X” on outside of door

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120
Q

SOP 402 Search
In a complex structure with multiple rooms, how do we indicate that a secondary search is complete?

A

“X” with circle around it on outside of door

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121
Q

SOP 403 Offensive extinguishment
What is the minimum flow on a structure fire?

A

150 gpm hose line

300 gpm available

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122
Q

SOP 405 Defensive extinguishment
When should a defensive attack be established?

A

When the risk to responders outweighs benefit of offensive attack

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123
Q

SOP 405 Defensive extinguishment
If a defensive attack is established by first arriving engine company officer, what shall first arriving engine do?

A

Establish water supply with 5-in hose

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124
Q

SOP 405 Defensive extinguishment
What should IC and later arriving units do?

A

IC should identify alternate water supplies

Later arriving units should establish water supplies with these alternate sources

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125
Q

SOP 405 Defensive extinguishment
What 3 things should IC do when there’s a shift from offensive to defensive?

A

1) Order all personnel operating interior to abandon or withdraw
2) Conduct a PAR
3) Evaluate adequacy of water supply

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126
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What 3 ventilation tactics are supported by WMFR?

A

1) Coordinated vertical
2) Coordinated horizontal
3) Coordinated positive pressure (not to be a fire attack strategy)

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127
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What is considered a ventilation point?

A

The fire attack entry point

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128
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What 7 size-up factors should be evaluated when considering ventilation?

A

1) Supports IAP
2) Risk/benefit analysis
3) Location and degree of fire involvement
4) Location of firefighters and occupants
5) Building construction
6) Exposures
7) Environmental conditions (e.g., wind)

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129
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What is member in charge of vertical ventilation responsible for?

A

1) Roof size up
2) Coordination with attack crew

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130
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What should be established before vertical ventilation?

A

Secondary means of egress

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131
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What is an example of a defensive vertical ventilation tactic?

A

Trench cut

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132
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What does a trench cut tactic indicate?

A

Change in incident strategy to be coordinated with IC.

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133
Q

SOP 407 Ventilation
What must support a trench cut?

A

Coordinated fire attack.

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134
Q

SOP 409 Forced entry
What should be worn during forcible entry?

A

Full turnouts, gloves and eye pro

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135
Q

SOP 409 Forced entry
What should be done if crew can see or communicate with pt who is incapacitated?

A

1) Notify Jeffcom
2) Ask for LE
3) Force entry

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136
Q

SOP 409 Forced entry
What should be done if crew cannot see or communicate with anyone inside?

A

1) Contact Jeffcom and confirm address and ask for callback
2) Ask for LE
3) Wait for LE to force entry (if reasonable cause to gain access)

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137
Q

SOP 409 Forced entry
At non-ems calls, what are the circumstances which warrant forcible entry?

A

1) Smoke or fire
2) Water leaking under doors which may indicate broken pipes or sprinkler activation
3) Presence of hazardous material that could result in injury or property damage
4) Structure protection on vacant structure during wildland incident

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138
Q

SOP 409 Forced entry
Is forcible entry permitted when dispatched for fire alarm when there are no signs of smoke, fire, etc.?

A

No

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139
Q

SOP 409 Forced entry
What should be done after forcing entry in secured structure?

A

Re-secure or turn over to a responsible individual

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140
Q

SOP 410 Water supply for sprinklers and standpipe equipped buildings
Where should second due engine stage on reported fire, smoke investigation or fire alarm in a building with sprinklers or standpipes?

A

FDC

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141
Q

SOP 410 Water supply for sprinklers and standpipe equipped buildings
What should be done when sprinkler or standpipe system is charged?

A

Notify IC

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142
Q

SOP 410 Water supply for sprinklers and standpipe equipped buildings
To what pressure should sprinkler systems be charged?

A

150 psi with transfer valve set to volume

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143
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
What are the 2 modes fire apparatus can be in for relay operations?

A

1) Waterous pumps (2 stage pump) in volume
2) PUC pumps (single stage pump) in RPM mode unless otherwise directed by IC or operator of attack engine

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144
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
What fire apparatus should be at the water source when pumping from a static draft water source?

A

Largest capacity fire apparatus

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145
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
What is the order of charging apparatus?

A

Source pumper to attack pumper. Cessation of relay operation done in reverse order.

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146
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
Which apparatus controls the relay operations?

A

Attack pumper.

Intent is the balance the discharge pressures and engine speeds of all apparatus. Once balanced, only attack and source pumpers need to adjust pressure.

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147
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
What discharge pressure should not be exceeded by any apparatus?

A

185 psi

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148
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
What minimum income residual pressure should be maintained by each apparatus?

A

20 psi

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149
Q

SOP 411 Water supply for relay operations
What should be maintained in case of supply interruption or failure?

A

Keep apparatus tanks full

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150
Q

SOP 412 Vehicle fire
What is the minimum size attack line for vehicle fire?

A

1 3/4

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151
Q

SOP 412 Vehicle fire
Who is responsible for handling contaminated runoff?

A

IC who should order resources and report if necessary

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152
Q

SOP 413 High rise fire
What is the minimum size and capacity of hose line on a high rise fire?

A

2.5 in with 265 gpm

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153
Q

SOP 413 High rise fire
Who establishes lobby control?

A

Second due unit

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154
Q

SOP 413 High rise fire
What are the 8 responsibilities of lobby control?

A

1) Establish water supply
2) Support sprinkler and standpipe systems
3) Access fire control room and fire alarm panel
4) Gain control of elevators
5) Gain control or shut down HVAC systems
6) Establish building entry and exit control points
7) Establish stairway control
8) Institute accountability system

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155
Q

SOP 413 High rise fire
Where should staging be located?

A

2 floors below fire in an open area away from stairwell

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156
Q

SOP 414 Fire investigation
Who has the responsibility to provide for origin and cause determination at fires or explosions?

A

IC

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157
Q

SOP 414 Fire investigation
To what types of incidents will investigator be dispatched?

A

1) Fire or explosion where anyone is injured or killed
2) Fire or explosion that is complex enough to require additional investigative resources
3) Fire or explosion where cause cannot be determined by IC or it may be result of intentional act
4) Wildland fire, dumpster fire or other misc fire or explosion intentionally caused and viable suspect info available
5) Malicious fire alarm with available suspect info such as name, address or DOB
6) Tampering with fire detection or suppression system

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158
Q

SOP 414 Fire investigation
To what types of incidents will investigator be dispatched?

A

1) Injury or death
2) Complexity
3) Undeterminable cause
4) Intentional + suspect
5) Malicious fire alarm + suspect
6) Tampering with fire detection or suppression system

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159
Q

SOP 414 Fire investigation
What is IC responsible for if he cancels investigator?

A

1) Scene and evidence preservation
2) Victim and witness statement collection
3) Documentation (NFIRS)

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160
Q

SOP 414 Fire investigation
If fire investigator does investigation, what should IC put in applicable fields under the “All Fires” tabs?

A

“Under investigation” then investigator completes the NFIRS Investigation Report or Supplemental Report

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161
Q

SOP 414 Fire investigation
What is responsibility of IC if a juvenile under the age of 10 is involved in fire setting activities?

A

Complete the Juvenile Fire Setter Referral form and forward to investigator

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162
Q

SOP 415 Fire watch
What must IC do when a detection or protection system is not operable (or both in buildings with both).

A

Complete a fire code violation in mobile eyes

Initiate fire watch

Notify Life Safety by email (notify on-duty investigator if Life Safety will not receive email for several days)

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163
Q

SOP 415 Fire watch
What are the procedures for fire watch?

A

Minimum of one person (depending on size and situation)

Constant inspections (1 round every hour is ok)

Documentation of inspection in fire watch hourly log in systems logbook

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164
Q

SOP 415 Fire watch
What is required in NFIRS when fire watch is initiated?

A

Name, address and phone number of person(s) responsible for fire watch (verified by driver’s license)

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165
Q

SOP 415 Fire watch
What should be done when fire watch is necessary when an extreme life safety hazard exists (e.g., special event, overcrowded hotel)?

A

Notify Life Safety and Fire Investigations who will assume responsibility to enforce fire watch

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166
Q

SOP 416 Residential fire alarms
What shall be done if unable to reset fire alarm control panel?

A

Notify Jeffcom to contact fire alarm monitoring company to advise of status of fire alarm panel

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167
Q

SOP 416 Residential fire alarms
What shall be done if occupancy cannot be secured upon completion of incident and homeowner not available?

A

Contact Jeffcom to dispatch LE

Complete and leave the Residential Fire Alarm Letter

Document in NFIRS

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168
Q

SOP 416 Residential fire alarms
What should be done when responding to the same residence with the same false signal in the previous 24 hours?

A

Do not reset system

Have Jeffcom contact monitoring company and advise that system is not in functional condition

Include details in NFIRS narrative

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169
Q

SOP 419 Commercial fire alarms
What should be done if cause of fire alarm is somewhere other than the location indicated on fire alarm control panel?

A

Check entire premises

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170
Q

SOP 419 Commercial fire alarms
What should be done when responding to the same residence with the same false signal in the previous 24 hours?

A

Do not reset system

Have Jeffcom contact monitoring company and advise that system is not in functional condition

Issue a fire code violation in mobile eyes

Include details in NFIRS narrative

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171
Q

SOP 420 Flammable vapor emergencies
What are 4 size-up considerations?

A

1) Recognition/identification of escaping flammable vapor
2) Stage away from where vapors are collecting, preferably upwind
3) Create a hot zone
4) Establish command, consider evacuation profile, fire load, and needed water/resources

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172
Q

SOP 420 Flammable vapor emergencies
When is situation considered stable?

A

LEL reading drops below 10%

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173
Q

SOP 420 Flammable vapor emergencies
What are the vapor densities, LEL, and UEL for methane and propane?

A

Methane: 0.6, LEL 3.8%, UEL 17%
Propane: 1.5, LEL 2.1%, UEL 9.5%

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174
Q

SOP 420 Flammable vapor emergencies
What size hoselines should be staffed for exterior operations when Excel is mitigating the source?

A

1.75 for residential feeder lines
2.5 for commercial feeder lines
(Also secure water source)

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175
Q

SOP 420 Flammable vapor emergencies
What should be done if scene time exceeds 60 minutes?

A

IC should document in NFIRS contact info for all parties on scene

176
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What should be included in IRR?

A

Incident location
Estimated size (small < 1 acre; large > 1 acre)
Fuel type
Fire conditions

177
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What should be ordered for bigger incidents?

A

Type 1 or brush trucks in strike teams

Command support team

Full Wildland team activation

178
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the firefighter safety elements?

A

Risk assessment process
Look up, look down, look around
Standard firefighting orders
Watch out situations
LCES
Full wildland PPE including shelter

179
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What is entailed in incident stabilization?

A

1) Contain perimeter (containment objective)
2) Control movement of fire toward higher risk areas (Control objective)
3) Defend property (Structure defense)
4) Mop-up of entire fire area (Mop-up objective)

180
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What is entailed in incident stabilization?

A

1) Containment
2) Control
3) Structure defense
4) Mop-up objective

181
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What is the flame height limit for hand tools?

A

4 feet

182
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 3 strategies endorsed by the District?

A

Offensive
Defensive
Structure protection

183
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 9 offensive strategy tactics?

A

Anchor, flank and pinch (attack hottest flank)
Pincer (both flanks)
Tandem (one flank, leapfrog)
Envelopment (multiple anchor points)
Parallel (usually with burning out or burning unburned fingers along fire’s edge)
Mobile attack (from black with pump and roll and hand tools)
Construct hand line
Progressive attack (with blue and black bags)
Stationary (with red wildland bags)

184
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 9 offensive strategy tactics?

A

Anchor, flank and pinch
Pincer
Tandem
Envelopment
Parallel
Mobile
Hand line
Progressive
Stationary

185
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What does a defensive strategy entail?

A

Indirect attack

186
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the advantages of an indirect attack?

A

Less exposure to heat/flame/smoke
Use of natural fire barriers
Reduces slopover
Reduces irregularity of fire line

187
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 2 types of firing operations?

A

1) Back firing
2) Burning out

188
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 4 structure triage categories?

A

1) Defensible stand alone - safety zone that needs little assistance during fire front contact
2) Defensible prep and hold - sufficient safety zone
3) Non-defensible prep and leave - no safety zone
4) Non-defensible rescue drive-by

189
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 4 structure triage categories?

A

1) Defensible stand alone
2) Defensible prep and hold
3) Non-defensible prep and leave
4) Non-defensible rescue drive-by

190
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
How should one decide on structure protection tactics?

A

Number of structures
Number of structures in each triage category
Resources available
Time until fire front impact
Fire behavior

191
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 4 structure protection tactics?

A

1) Rapid mitigation - remove combustibles, construct line
2) Bump and run - extinguish spot fires and defend structures
3) Fire containment/control - direct attack with red bags
4) Patrol following fire front - searching for victims, perimeter control, hot spotting and ember control

192
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 4 structure protection tactics?

A

1) Rapid mitigation
2) Bump and run
3) Fire containment/control
4) Patrol following fire front

193
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the VHF channels?

A

VRedSW - south of I-70
VRedNW - north of I-70
VFire21 - secondary option
VFire22 - tertiary option and Douglas County air ops primary

194
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
Should patching 800mhz and VHF be done?

A

No, if at all possible.

195
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 3 uses of air support?

A

1) Reconnaissance (MMA - multi-mission aircraft) (can be ordered through Division of Fire Prevention and Control - DFPC)
2) Slow the fire spread
3) Protect values at risk

196
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
How should helicopter or SEAT support be ordered?

A

Jeffcom which will order from Office of Emergency Management

197
Q

SOP 500 Wildland fire
What are the 6 pieces of information IC should provide when ordering air support?

A

1) Incident name
2) Description of location in lat/long (degrees/decimal minutes)
3) Ground contact
4) Specific resource being ordered
5) Values at risk
6) Hazards in the area (e.g., power lines, towers, wind)

198
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should IC do regarding command post?

A

Uphill and upwind

199
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What isolation zone should be established?

A

330ft radius. Control all ignition sources in hot zone.

200
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should be done if solid, liquid or gas is unknown?

A

Attempt to identify with binoculars, drone or business/property owner.

201
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What types of resources should IC consider?

A

Hazmat response, Excel, property owner and drone

202
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should IC do with people and exposures?

A

Account for all exposures.

Evacuate or protect in place.

203
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should IC do regarding those who have been exposed?

A

Set up emergency decon

204
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
How should IC determine rescue or recovery?

A

Rescue - reliable witness information or line-of-site rescue for viable victims unable to self-rescue

Recovery - no reliable information and high likelihood that rescue efforts will be unsuccessful

205
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should rescuers be equipped with?

A

Full PPE and SCBA

Monitor, F paper and PH paper

206
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should be done if PH paper changes?

A

Continue rescue if line-of-site

207
Q

SOP 501 Hazardous materials incidents
What should be done if F paper changes?

A

Cease rescue because victims are not viable

208
Q

SOP 502 Flammable vapors - Methane (natural gas) and propane
Should Hazmat team be dispatched?

A

Not if known methane or propane. All other flammable vapor incidents, consult/dispatch Hazmat.

209
Q

Colorado Designated Emergency Response Authority
Who are the DERAs?

A

Municipality - fire authority
County - sheriff
Federal, state or county highways located outside of municipal city limits - CSP

210
Q

Colorado Designated Emergency Response Authority
May a DERA respond to incidents on private property?

A

Yes, if the property owner or operator does not act or, if in the judgment of the DERA, there exists an imminent danger to human health or the environment.

211
Q

Colorado Designated Emergency Response Authority
Will the DERA be reimbursed for response costs?

A

Yes. A public entity has the right to claim reimbursement for all reasonable and necessary emergency response costs from the person with care, custody and control of the hazardous substance.

212
Q

SOP 503 Flammable liquid spills - gasoline and diesel
Should Hazmat team be dispatched?

A

Not if known gasoline or diesel. All other flammable liquid spills, consult/dispatch Hazmat.

Yes, if spill beyond capabilities/resources of on-scene units or spill has entered a waterway.

213
Q

SOP 504 Weapons of mass destruction
Where should victims be taken?

A

Unaffected members to cold zone

Exposed victims to warm zone until decon

214
Q

SOP 504 Weapons of mass destruction
What 3 things should IC do (besides establishing incident command post, isolation area and evacuation)?

A

1) Unified command

2) Comm plan with multiple agencies

3) Personnel accountability

215
Q

SOP 504 Weapons of mass destruction
What 3 things should IC do (besides establishing incident command post, isolation area and evacuation)?

A

1) Plan for transition to unified command

2) Establish comm plan that allows for interoperability with multiple agencies

3) Provide for personnel accountability

216
Q

SOP 507 Swiftwater rescue
What is IC’s responsibility?

A

Report to last seen point (LSP)

Provide size-up with type of incident, LSP, the number and conditions of victims, access points and hazards to responders

217
Q

SOP 507 Swiftwater rescue
What is the containment area?

A

Area determined by LSP, speed of water and amount of time victim missing

218
Q

SOP 507 Swiftwater rescue
What should the spotters in the containment area be equipped with?

A

Radio and throw bag

219
Q

SOP 509 Vehicle extrication
What software is used to know hazards and challenges of modern vehicles?

A

Moditech Crash Recovery Software

220
Q

SOP 509 Vehicle extrication
What is the rule of thumb for distance from airbags to maintain?

A

5” from side impact
10” from steering column
20” from front passenger air bag

221
Q

SOP 510 Trench rescue
What should IC do upon arrival?

A

1) Size-up - extent of trench collapse, number/location/condition of victims, hazards and resources needs
2) Rescue or recovery
3) LSP
4) Elapsed time since collapse
5) Delegate medical care

222
Q

SOP 510 Trench rescue
What 4 things is rescue group responsible for?

A

1) Controlling access to trench and surrounding area
2) Air monitoring and ventilation
3) Building shores
4) Rescue or recovery

223
Q

SOP 510 Trench rescue
What is the limit to entering unshored trench?

A

Waist deep

224
Q

SOP 510 Trench rescue
What 2 things should be done with vehicles around trenches?

A

1) Parked at least 50 feet away from trench
2) Shut down

225
Q

SOP 510 Trench rescue
What 3 things should be done with heavy equipment around trenches?

A

1) Shut down
2) Locked out
3) Tagged out

226
Q

SOP 511 Confined space rescue
What 3 things should IC do upon arrival?

A

1) Size-up - obtain info about confined space, number/location/condition of victims, hazards and resources needs
2) LSP
3) Identify access and egress

227
Q

SOP 511 Confined space rescue
What 4 things is rescue group responsible for?

A

1) Controlling access to confined space and surrounding area
2) Air monitoring and ventilation
3) Construct and operate rescue operations
4) Rescue or recovery

228
Q

SOP 512 Structural collapse
What 4 things should IC do upon arrival?

A

1) Size-up - determine extent of structural collapse, number/location/condition of victims, hazards and resources needs
2) LSP
3) Identify and control hazards and utilities
4) Remove non-essential personnel from hazard area

229
Q

SOP 512 Structural collapse
What PPE is required?

A

Helmet, work gloves, eye pro and safety-toed boots

230
Q

SOP 513 Rope rescue
What 5 things should IC do upon arrival?

A

1) Size-up - nature and scope of incident, number/location/condition of victims, hazards and resources needs
2) Determine how victim is suspended or supported
3) Determine nature and extent of injuries
4) Determine if environment is high angle (greater than 40 degree slope) or low angle
5) Evaluate other methods and routes to access the victim

231
Q

SOP 513 Rope rescue
What are the 3 responsibilities for rescue group?

A

1) Rescue size-up evaluating needs, hazards and alternatives
2) Building and operating rescue systems
3) EMS in coordination with medical group

232
Q

SOP 513 Rope rescue
Which engines can perform low angle ops?

A

9, 11, 13 and 15

233
Q

SOP 513 Rope rescue
When should a single line rescue system be built on high angle rescues?

A

Only when the delay in building a 2-line system may result in loss of life or significant injury

234
Q

SOP 513 Rope rescue
What is the PPE requirement?

A

Helmet, work gloves and harness (if necessary)

235
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What distance away should one stay from power lines or wires?

A

10 feet

236
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What nozzle should be avoided with electrical equipment?

A

Smooth bore / straight stream

237
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
How should electrical fires be handled?

A

As class C fires. If not immediate threat, cut power and treat as Class A or B

238
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
How should photo voltaic systems be shut down?

A

Move both levers to “off” position on both the DC and AC disconnect boxes.

239
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
Where are the “rapid shut down” switches on newer photo voltaic systems?

A

Mounted and labeled on inverter

240
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
How should fire near a solar panel be fought?

A

At least 35 feet away using a 30-degree fog

241
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
How should downed power lines be treated?

A

As if they are energized. They can be re-energized remotely.

242
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What should be the isolation or exclusion zone?

A

1.5 times the full span between good power poles in all directions

243
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What should be done if downed line is causing a fire but exposures are not present or threatened?

A

Allow fire to burn out to a distance equal to 1.5 times the full span between good power poles before beginning fire attack

244
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
If downed line is contacting a vehicle, what should be done?

A

Remain 35 feet from the line

Tell victim to remain in car

If there is a hazard and victim needs to exit vehicle, have them jump clear of vehicle then take shuffle steps away from vehicle (to avoid step potential electrocution)

245
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What should be done if top of pole near transformer or electrical equipment is on fire?

A

Strategy should be defensive.

Call utility company to de-energize and give pole number or geographical area.

Expect pole to fail.

246
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What should be done if bottom of pole is on fire or involves ground cover near the pole?

A

Use 30 degree fog 35 feet away from utility lines

Expect pole to fail

247
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
How should substation/distribution station fires be treated?

A

Isolate and deny entry to substation/distribution station

30 fog 35 feet away from electrical equipment

Consult with utility company and hazardous materials specialist on IAP

248
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
How should pad mount transformer fires be treated?

A

Protect exposures with dry chemical extinguisher

If no other choice, use 30 degree fog from 35 feet away

249
Q

SOP 514 Electrical emergency guidelines
What should be done if there is a wildland fire around poles and transmission towers?

A

Spot fires may be attacked if heavy smoke or flame is not within 100 feet of powerlines

Maintain a distance of 35 feet from transmission towers

250
Q

SOP 601A Law enforcement blood draws
For which LE agencies do we do blood draws?

A

CSP, Edgewater, Jeffco, Lakeside, Lakewood, Morrison, Mountain View and Wheatridge

Shift commander may approve others

251
Q

SOP 601A Law enforcement blood draws
What should be done if blood draw is requested by LE on the scene of an accident?

A

New incident established

252
Q

SOP 601C EMS transport destination determination
What are the priorities of transportation destination?

A

1) Medical need
2) Pt, pt family or medical provider choice
3) Destination that allows quickest return to service in District

253
Q

SOP 601C EMS transport destination determination
What are the two situations that warrant emergent transport?

A

1) Pt has injury or illness beyond the scope of field providers
2) Benefit to pt outweighs risk to pt, providers and public

254
Q

SOP 601C EMS transport destination determination
What should be the destination for emergently transported pts?

A

Nearest hospital-based emergency department with capability of stabilizing pt. (Deviation from this requires consult with medical direction)

255
Q

SOP 601C EMS transport destination determination
What should be done if Wheat Ridge PD requests transport to WRPD or Jeffco jail due to safety concerns?

A

Jail transports are not allowed when coming from a medical facility.

Transport will not be approved when any form of restraint by EMS personnel is needed 

256
Q

SOP 601-I Chronic use of ems resources
What defines chronic use of ems resources?

A

6 or more times in 12 month period

257
Q

SOP 601-I Chronic use of ems resources
What are 4 examples of issues that are beyond normal ems intervention?

A

1) Poorly managed medical issues
2) Frequent calls for falls or other assistance
3) Poor living conditions
4) Exaggerated or imagined medical issues

258
Q

SOP 601-I Chronic use of ems resources
Who should be contacted in these situations?

A

Advanced resource medic one is responsible for initiating follow up and referral actions
(ARM) 1


259
Q

Active threat reference guide
What is the term for an individual or team of LE officers whose objective is to neutralize immediate threat through surrender, containment, arrest or use of force?

A

Contact team

260
Q

Active threat reference guide
What is the term for an LE member who serves as tactical supervisor for different floors of multi-level building?

A

Floor leader

261
Q

Active threat reference guide
What is the term for a stationary position occupied by LE to control key terrain?

A

Key hole

262
Q

Active threat reference guide
What is the command used to order a controlled tactical movement from current operating positions to a safer location?

A

“URGENT landslide/withdraw from structure”

263
Q

Active threat reference guide
What is the rule that the first 10 officers will engage and the remainder become support?

A

Rule of Ten

264
Q

Active threat reference guide
What are the 4 LE life priorities?

A

1) Hostage/victim
2) Citizens
3) Officers
4) Suspect

265
Q

Active threat reference guide
What are the 3 priority medical interventions that save lives in active threat situations?

A

Airway
Breathing
Hemorrhage control

266
Q

Ballistic PPE storage, use and replacement reference guide
When should PPE be donned?

A

Before entering apparatus

267
Q

Ballistic PPE storage, use and replacement reference guide
Is ballistic PPE mandatory?

A

Only when involved in rescue task force operations

268
Q

SOP 603
What are the five procedural steps in activating an MCI?

A

1 recognition. Any incident that will require five medics or more..

  1. Safety. Risks are best minimized by assessing patients quickly, removing them from harm and delivering them definitive care.
  2. MCI responses may be adjusted to the configuration and geography of the incident. An example would be more than one triage or treatment area.
  3. Assign a hospital resource officer. (HRO) this person is the link between the hospital and the scene is located at the hospital.
  4. There are four phases of an MCI
    Phase 1, identify
    Phase 2 triage
    Phase 3 transport
    Phase 4 wrap up 
269
Q

SOP 603 MCI
What are the responsibilities of the hospital resource officer? (HRO)

A

To be the link between the incident command and the hospital

To assist the hospital with resource requests

To facilitate patient movement among multiple hospitals 

270
Q

SOP 603 Mass casualty incidents
What triage system do we use ,
What do the triage flagging tape colors represent?

A

(RAMP) rapid assessment mentation and pulse

Red category Immediate
Green category Delayed
Black category Deceased 

271
Q

SOP 603 Mass casualty incidents
What are the duties of the transport unit leader

A

Begin transport as early as possible, even if triage activities are still occurring

Coordinate resources needed

Communicate with dispatch to notify hospitals

Confirmed the location of the transportation corridor and ambulance exchange point

Assign patients to transport units 

272
Q

SOP 603 Mass casualty incidents
If patient counts outpace transport units, what should the medical group supervisor do?

A


Appoint a treatment unit leader and establish treatment areas close to the ambulance exchange point 

273
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
Can chronic ems users be referred to the ARM car?

A

Yes.

274
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
Who is responsible for the District’s CIHCS program management?

A

Division chief of EMS

275
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
When is the ARM car available?

A

0800-1800 with WMFR APP and Dispatch Health mid-level provider
1800-800 with WMFR APP and another WMFR EMS provider

276
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
What are the 4 ways the ARM car may be assigned to calls?

A

1) Units en route may request ARM (2200-0700 - evaluate and get consent before assigning ARM1)
2) ARM may self-assign
3) ARM may be auto-assigned to calls at predesignated locations based on acuity type (e.g., skilled nursing, assisted living, chronic ems user)
4) ARM may generate an incident for scheduled or non-scheduled pt encounters or follow-up

277
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
What are the 2 options for transferring pt care to the ARM?

A

1) Direct hand-off to ARM
2) Pt refusal and incident open til ARM arrives

278
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
What should be done if abuse suspected?

A

APP collaborates with Dispatch Health providers and the EMS division to ensure mandatory reported is made.

279
Q

SOP 608 Advanced resource medic field operations
Can the ARM be requested out-of-district?

A

Yes, while attempting to minimize time out-of-district

280
Q

SOP 608-B Advanced practice paramedic field reference guide
What are the 4 responsibilities of the APP in consult with the CIHC provider?

A

1) Initial consumer assessment - evaluation, meds, social support systems, goals.
2) Identify if there’s a need for subsequent pt assessments - progress, goals, need for additional assessment
3) Provide a service plan - goal for discharge, limitations on consumer’s activities, equipment needed, goals
4) Discharge summary - evaluation of post-CIHCS care needs and goals, contact information, written instructions about self-care, follow-up care, modified diet, medications and signs/symptoms to be reported to consumer’s care provider

281
Q

SOP 700 CO emergencies
What is the CO level that requires 2-in/2-out?

A

200 ppm

282
Q

SOP 701 Elevator rescue and emergency operations
What 3 things should IC do or decide upon arrival?

A

1) Location of stalled car
2) Make contact with occupants
3) Decide whether to wait for elevator mechanic or enact rescue

283
Q

SOP 701 Elevator rescue and emergency operations
If rescue is decided upon, what 2 things should be done?

A

1a) Attempt to reset power supply or activate fire service override
1b) If reset or override doesn’t work, shut down power to elevator motor and use lock-out/tag-out to secure power supply (otherwise place ff at power supply)
2a) Access pt through hoistway door using elevator keys (mark or guard open hoistway doors; try to avoid using forcible entry tools to access elevator shaft)
2b) If inaccessible through hoistway, access pt through top hatch (maybe tech rescue)

*If elevator is shut down due to malfunction, keep out of service until elevator tech arrives

284
Q

SOP 701 Elevator rescue and emergency operations
During fire suppression operations, when should using an elevator be considered?

A

Buildings over 5 floors

285
Q

SOP 701 Elevator rescue and emergency operations
During fire suppression operations, in what mode should elevator be used?

A

In fire service override mode - phase II mode

286
Q

SOP 703 Witnessed accidents
What are the 3 considerations when deciding to continue to original incident or stop at the accident and tell dispatch to send different units to the original incident?

A

1) Nature and severity of original incident
2) Apparent severity of witnessed accident
3) Response time of other units to witnessed accident and the original incident

287
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
If involved in an accident involving a District vehicle, member must work with SaM2 to fill out what 1-3 forms?

A

WMFR Vehicle Accident Report
Firefighter Casualty (if necessary)
Property Damage or Loss Report (if necessary)

288
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Who is dispatch required to notify?

A

LE

District chief will send a page to the vehicle accident notification group Sam to Captain of health and safety division, chief of risk management division, chief of support services and deputy chief of operations, deputy cheapo admin services, manager, human resources, manager, and the fire chief 

289
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What 7 people/divisions are part of the WMFR Vehicle Accident Group Page?

A

SaM2
Division chief of risk management
Division chief of support services
Deputy chief of operations
Deputy chief of admin
Fleet services division
Fire chief.

290
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What 3 people should SaM2 notify?

A

Immediate supervisor, district chief and shift commander

291
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What should be included in the accident report?

A

Signatures from SaM2 and vehicle operator, photographs, findings of investigation, and recommendations for urgent action or preventative action to avoid future accidents

292
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Where and when should accident report and associated documents be stored?

A

Designated network folder by end of 24-hour shift on which the accident occurred.

293
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What 7 people should SaM2 email to notify that the reports are posted for further review?

A

Immediate supervisor
Human resource specialist
Human resource assistant
Division chief of risk management
Division chief of support services
Deputy chief of operations
Deputy chief of admin

294
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What will happen if vehicle inoperable?

A

Fleet services responds to scene

295
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Who notifies insurance?

A

Human resources specialist

296
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Who coordinates repair requirements?

A

Division chief of support services

297
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Who reviews and coordinates any follow-up on recommendations from district chief and company officer?

A

Shift commander

298
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
After shift commander reviews recommendations, what should he do next?

A

E-sign as needed and email division chief of risk management, the deputy chief of ops and the deputy chief of admin that the report is ready for review.

299
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What does deputy chief of admin do with report?

A

Review it, make recommendations and notify fire chief of findings.

300
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Where is report filed?

A

Member’s personnel file

301
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Where are related injury reports filed?

A

Member’s medical file

302
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
What should division chief of risk management do with report?

A

Review, note findings, make recommendations and e-sign

303
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
Is corrective action required?

A

Yes, if there is a violation of SOPs, APs or state/local law.

304
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
If member is responsible for paying deductible or any replacement/repair costs, what is the minimum level of corrective action?

A

All corrective action recommendations from the accident work group will be authorized by the division chief of risk management corrective action will follow admin procedure 1605 

305
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
When is chemical testing required?

A

When vehicle was in motion

306
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
After the accident, what happens if district chief observes physical or behavioral symptoms indicating member is under the influence?

A

Member shall be removed from duty and not allowed to return to duty until test results are reported

307
Q

SOP 704 Accidents involving District vehicles
See Vehicle accident investigation responsibilities flow chart for a breakdown of responsibilities.

A

SaM
DC
Divsion chief/Shift commander
Human resources division
Support services/fleet division
Admin chief
Division chief of risk management

308
Q

SOP 705 Persons seeking refuge
From what would a person be seeking refuge?

A

Real or threatened physical or mental abuse

309
Q

SOP 705 Persons seeking refuge
Who should remain with person seeking refuge?

A

2 firefighters in a public area of station

310
Q

SOP 705 Persons seeking refuge
What should company officer do?

A

Notify Jeffco and assign a unit to the incident

311
Q

SOP 705 Persons seeking refuge
With whom should uninjured individuals be placed in contact?

A

LE

312
Q

SOP 705 Persons seeking refuge
Who else should be notified?

A

District chief and provide contact info (individual and LE)

313
Q

SOP 706 Abandoned children
How old can child be to be surrendered to a firefighter?

A

Less than 72 hours

314
Q

SOP 706 Abandoned children
Besides caring for child, what should be done?

A

Contact Jeffcom to generate an incident and dispatch a medic unit, district chief and LE

315
Q

SOP 706 Abandoned children
If parent is willing, what info should be obtained?

A

Parent’s name, address and phone number
Child’s name and location, date and time of birth

316
Q

SOP 706 Abandoned children
Who will assume official custody of child?

A

LE

317
Q

SOP 709 Critical incident stress management
Who must attend debriefings?

A

Only members directly involved in incident (though they are not required to participate in discussion)

318
Q

SOP 709 Critical incident stress management
When should defusing take place?

A

3-4 hours after incident

319
Q

SOP 709 Critical incident stress management
When should debriefings take place?

A

24-72 hours following incident

There’s an educational component to stress management 

320
Q

SOP 709 Critical incident stress management
Who is responsible for determining if individual is fit to return to duty?

A

Individual’s

321
Q

SOP 800 Radio use
If member activates the emergency radio button and Jeffcom contacts member, what should member reply if everything is fine?

A

Code 4

322
Q

SOP 800 Radio use
How often will Jeffcom check-in if member requests this?

A

Every 4 minutes
“Code 4 for now” reply keeps ticker going
“Code 4” ends ticker

323
Q

SOP 801 LE talkgroups
Once unit enters level 2 staging, how can officer monitor LE channel?

A

Request channel from Jeffcom

324
Q

SOP 802 Simplex communications
Who should be added to response in the case of a fire alarm in a pre-designated simplex building?

A

District chief to facilitate comms

325
Q

SOP 802 Simplex communications
How should officer communicate size-up and assignments?

A

On assigned talkgroup then announce movement to simplex talkgroup

326
Q

SOP 802 Simplex communications
Who should monitor both the response talkgroup and the simplex talkgroup?

A

IC or designee

327
Q

SOP 802 Simplex communications
What simplex talkgroups are used?

A

Simplex 2 in “B” system for alarms
Simplex 3 in “B” system for confirmed structure fires

328
Q

SOP 802 Simplex communications
Can Jeffco monitor, and is there radio emergency button capability, in simplex talkgroups?

A

Only in the “B” system

329
Q

SOP 805 Network first talkgroups
What the 4 delineations of the North Central All-Hazards Region?

A

Southwest - south of I-70, west of I-25
Northwest - north of I-70, west of I-25
Northeast - north of I-70, east of I-25
Southeast - south of I-70, east of I-25

330
Q

SOP 806 Mobile data terminal use
What should be done with any necessary follow-up information regarding the incident?

A

Entered into call notes via MDT OR
Transmitted to Jeffcom over the radio prior to setting the disposition

331
Q

Protocol 83 auto accident

A

Closest Medica unit

332
Q

Protocol 83 confirmed structure fire

A

3 engines
1 truck
2 medics
Sam
1 DC

333
Q

Tactical, tender response

A

The tactical tender will not be automatically dispatched to First do vegetation fires or semi fires, but the crew should respond in tandem as situation dictates 

334
Q

Mutual aid
The maximum number of units available for mutual aid

A

Three engines
Two units
One truck


335
Q

Post incident analysis shall result in

A

 a lesson learned document

All lessons learn shall be forwarded to training division chief


336
Q

SOP 218 requesting Colorado-TR1

A

I’ll request Shelby made through county office of emergency management and will be forwarded to the Colorado State emergency operation center 

337
Q

Request not made through established ordering process

A

Will result in the requesting agency being liable for all costs

338
Q

Can specific increments of a task force be ordered?

A

Specific increments can be ordered through the co TF1 program manager
All costs are the responsibility of the requesting agency 

339
Q

What should be communicated if all members are not present on a par

A

Missing member last known location

340
Q

Where is the WMDPPE stored?

A

Haz May 5

341
Q

What items are made available for WMD bag?

A

Tyvek suit
Mask cartridge adapter
Air purifying cartridge
Chemical resistant gloves and boot covers and tape for seams
Laminated inventory and inspection guide
Instructions and fact guide for the scott P100 air purifying cartridge 

342
Q

When should thermal imaging cameras be used?

A

Tactical 360 size up
Offensive fire attack
Search and rescue
Overhaul
RIT operations 

343
Q

Other times a thermal imager may be helpful

A

Motor vehicle accident
Electrical emergencies
Police assist
Wild Land events 

344
Q

On both fleer and scott models NTI mode what should be noted

A

Color reference temperature bar on the right hand side 

345
Q

On the (FLIR) thermal image camera
What should the search and rescue mode be used for?

A

Tactical 360
Search and rescue
Locating the fire
Overhaul 

346
Q

On the FLIR Cammera in search and rescue mode what temperature will the screen turn red

A

300 degrees 

347
Q

On the FLIR Cammera in search and rescue mode what should be done when the screen turns red
And the environment exceeds 300°

A

Change to TI basic mode 

348
Q

ATV

A

Four wheeler single rider vehicle with handlebars for steering 

349
Q

UTV

A

Side-by-side off-road vehicle with a steering wheel and a capacity to carry 2 to 6 passengers 

350
Q

ATV Operations

A

ATV shall not be utilized for emergency operations.
Only operated by West Metro employees.
Only one person with a DOT helmet shall not be operated on public roadways.



351
Q

ITV Operation

A

Only to be operated by personnel with ROHVA certification 

352
Q

Standpipe system should be pumped at?

A

At an appropriate pressure to overcome friction, loss and elevation.
Adequate nozzle pressure
Deliver required fire flow .

353
Q

In the event of a working fire in a building equipped with sprinklers?

A

Standpipe system shall be supported by an engine or truck within the first alarm.

354
Q

SOP 411
In the absence of a hydrant system incident command should consider what three things

A

Relay operations
Nursing operations
Water shuttle operations 

355
Q

SOP 411
Single-family or small multifamily structures of 2500 ft.² or less

A

She have at least one patent water supply/hydrant

356
Q

SOP 411
Large single-family or multifamily structures above 2500 ft.²

A

Shall have two water supplies/hydrants

357
Q

SOP 411
Irregular or changing fuel, packages or rapidly expanding incident should consider

A

A water supply officer 

358
Q

Fire apparatus engaged in relay operations should be in one of what two modes

A

2 stage pump shall operate in volume

A single stage pump operate in RPM 

359
Q

Nursing operations should be conducted with what hose?

A

One or two 2 1/2 inch hoses

LDH shall never be used to supply from the tender 

360
Q

What are the components of a water shuttle?

A

1 dumpsite
2 fill site
3 travel
Time is saved on the efficiencies at the dumpsite, not travel speed !

361
Q

For extended operations, the ICC should assign the officer of the tender as the?

A

Water supply group supervisor 

362
Q

The water supply group supervisor duties include

A

Objectives and strategies
identify resources needed
Identified communication model
identify best option for a fill site
identify water dump and draft site
Monitor operations adequate water supply
Coordinate communications with the IC 

363
Q

There are two 2100 gallon folding frame portable tanks. How should they be placed?

A

Tank train should be placed at the lowest position of the portable tank to assist in draining

364
Q

When setting up a portable tank for night operations, what can be helpful?

A

Placing glow sticks on the edges of the portable tanks

365
Q

The first flexible, hard suction hose is intended to draft a water supply for the primary folding tech. What is the second one?

A

The second flexible, hard suction with a one and three-quarter inch line attached to a jet fight. Siphon is intended to be used as a transfer line to the second folding tank. 

366
Q

How should water be dumped or offloaded from the tender into a folding tank?

A

Through the 12 inch dump shoot this will take approximately 2 minutes

367
Q

Where should the 12 inch dump shoot be stowed for traveling

A

Parallel to the rear of the tender

368
Q

What is the primary consideration when choosing a fill site and set up?

A

Access to the Phil site and safety

369
Q

For larger operations with multiple tenders, what should be established?

A

Fill site manager

370
Q

Who does a fill site manager report to?

A

Water supply group supervisor

371
Q

What is the primary method of filling the tender for water shuttle operations?

A

By using one or both of the tank inlets at the rear of the tender

372
Q

Why are the tank fill inlets at the rear of the tender the preferred method?

A

It directly fill the tank without going through the pump
This is achieved using two 3 inch lines with 2 1/2 inch couplings attached to the 2 1/2 inch gate valve controls rate and can be used to turn off the water 

373
Q

What is the second method of filling a tender for a pressurized water source?

A

Through the pump, this is not recommended for water shuttle operations because the plumbing has a 1 inch pipe and this will be much slower 

374
Q

What should the hard flexible suction hose never be used for?

A

Filling through a pressurized water source such as a hydrant 

375
Q

Can large diameter hose be used for filling a tender?

A

No, it will damage the tank and must not be attempted.

376
Q

When filling a tank with portable pumps The high volume low pressure pump on the tinder should be used .

A

It is not recommended to use high pressure, low volume such as a wick or floating pump 

377
Q

What is the ratio for patch mixing foam in the tender?

A

1/2 gallon of class a foam into the tank .

378
Q

When should the tank be drained and how? 

A

The water tank should be drained through the rear 12 inch discharge.
It should be drained anytime a batch mix of class a foam is used or once per quarter as routine maintenance.

379
Q

What should the first arriving icy on a vehicle fire take into consideration

A

Scene protection and safety
Slope and wind, direction
Water supply
Need for rescue or trapped occupants
Potential for hazardous materials

380
Q

What does ALS-BASEstand for?

A

Attack
Lobby
Staging
&
Bass 

381
Q

Who is in charge of fire attack in a high-rise?

A

Division or group supervisor

382
Q

When is lobby control established?

A

As soon as the IC determines the group

383
Q

What is lobby control responsible for?

A

Command center
Building entry and exit control
Utilization of building system
HVAC, fire pumps,
, and emergency address system 

384
Q

Where should staging be established?

A

In a non-IDLH environment ideally two floors below the fire floor.

385
Q

What should be located at staging

A

On deck, Crews
Equipment and SCBA bottles
Rehab functions
Accountability and personal tracking

May as communications relay 

386
Q

Where is base located?

A

base is located outside away from the building were personnel and equipment or not at risk 

387
Q

What are the two primary strategic considerations?

A

Offensive exterior well lines are being organized.

Rescue versus protect in place 

388
Q

Where should a team be staged in a high-rise fire?

A

One floor below the fire floor 

389
Q

Aerial apparatus considerations include:

A

Truck company functions
Offensive exterior fire attack
Construction of a standpipe system
Defensive fire operations
Access and egress of floors and roofs
Forcible entry
RIT
Tactical ventilation
Salvage and overhaul 

390
Q

If the occupant is not available, and the occupancy cannot be secured normally what should be done

A

IC should notify Jeff and have law enforcement respond
IC shall document details in narrative.

391
Q

In the event that he premises could not be resecured. What details should be in the narrative?

A

Cirque circumstances found
Actions taken
Unit name and number
RP contact and phone 

392
Q

Exel Energy has changed their response policy and all blow by gas emergencies

A

Two XL trained employees will enter the trench to stop blow by a normal response. Could take up to 25 minutes.

393
Q

What is the vapor density of natural gas?

A

.6 %

394
Q

What is the favorite density of propane?

A

1.5 %

395
Q

What is the threshold for being on air?

A

Oxygen levels below 19.5% or greater than 23%

LEL reading of greater than 10% 

396
Q

What constitutes an extended scene time and what should be done?

A

Any scene time exceeding 60 minutes should be documented in the narrative, so the chief of operations can consider billing options 

397
Q

Any rescuer working adjacent to ice or water should have a PFD on within how many feet of the bank?

A

10 feet

398
Q

Personnel engaged directly in a water or ice rescue should be what

A

Tethered to a rescue rope

399
Q

Reach throw row go

Refers to what

A

Reach with a pole or inflated hose
Throw a rope or PFG
Row utilizing a boat
Go rescuers entering the water or going out onto the ice 

400
Q

Swiftwater Rescue
Personnel that have not received training in tethered Rescue

A

Shall not be attached to a rope during Swiftwater operation

401
Q

Deployment of ropes across moving water

A

Shall only be performed by train personnel 

402
Q

Vehicle extrication 509
What is the IC responsible for?

A

Size up, nature and scope of incident,
Number, location, and condition of victims . Hazards and resources needed.

403
Q

Vehicle extrication 509
What is the first do truck company officer usually assigned?

A

Extrication group supervisor.

404
Q

Vehicle extrication 509
What is the extrication group supervisor responsible for?

A

Establishing a plan for stabilization and extrication.
Addressing hazards associated with the vehicle, i.e. spills
Identifying and creating access points
Rescue inpatient safety
Disentangling patient from the vehicle .
Coordinating medical care and transfer of patient .

405
Q

Lithium ion batteries, 515

What are the ways a lithium on battery may vent or rupture

A

Thermal insult. Hotter cold temps
Physical insult Crushed pierced
Electrical variance Overcharging
Drying after being wet 

406
Q

What are the entities West metro has a memorandum of understanding with to do blood draws??

A

Colorado State patrol, Edgewater, Jefferson County, Lakeside, Lakewood, Morrison, Mountain View, and wheat Ridge

407
Q

Who’s responsibility? Is it to get the appropriate consent?

A

 The requesting agency 

408
Q

There are two circumstances when consent is not required. What are they?

A

1 If law enforcement has a warrant for a blood draw

2 a public safety worker has been exposed to blood or bodily fluids 

409
Q

Detox transport
Can a person in need of withdrawal management be released to law enforcement?

A

Yes, providing he will be transported to crisis services and following a thorough assessment 

410
Q

What are exclusionary criteria prohibiting us from sending a patient to detox?

A

Blood pressure systolic less than 90 or greater than 200 diastolic greater than 110

Pulse less than 50 or greater than 130

Respiration less than 10 or greater than 30

02 saturation less than 90

Temperature less than 95 or greater than 100.4

Blood sugar, less than 60 or greater than 250 

411
Q

What are exclusionary criteria prohibiting us from sending a patient to detox?

A

Not able to ambulate
Anticoagulant concerns
Has a complaint or an injury
Under 18
Patient prescribed O2 and does not have it available
Untreated seizures
History of complicated ETOH withdrawal
Pregnant

412
Q

What should be documented in the ER if a person is transported to detox

A

Thorough assessment was completed
Person met criteria for admission
Crisis service was consulted
Law enforcement transported the person 

413
Q

Mandatory reporting is required by what to entities

A

Colorado revised statute CRS

Denver Metro protocols

414
Q

Any West metro employees that become aware of or suspect abuse, or neglect or exploitation shall?

A

Contact law enforcement patient needs do not allow them within 24 hours

415
Q

Is notifying the ED staff sufficient for mandatory report

A

NO

 Law enforcement must be requested to the scene or if the patient has been transported to the hospital and the crew shall remain until law enforcement arrives 

416
Q

In cases of self neglect or unsafe, living conditions who is contacted

A

Adult protective services must be contacted within 24 hours 

417
Q

MCI. 603

What is the best way for the Insta commander to minimize risk?

A

Assess patients quickly
Remove them from harm
Deliver deliver them to definitive care

418
Q

Injured animal transport 605

West Metro vehicles may transport animals given the following conditions

A

all incident objectives have or will be met.
With the approval of the incident commander
West metro personnel shall not perform any invasive procedures on the animal
Transport will only be conducted if the animals owner is available
Nonemergent mode only
Animal will only be transported to a veterinarians office or animal Hospital 

419
Q

What are the actions of the incident commander on an MCI?

A

Establish command and a command post eventually unifying command with law-enforcement.

If ordering more resources order in strike teams and establish level two staging .

If large incident establish a health resource officer at the hospital .

Assign a triage unit leader
Assign a transportation unit leader
These are typically the first arriving medic crew .

420
Q

What are the phases of an MCI?

A

1 identify: Recognize the need and declaring MCI.

2 triage: establish a triage unit leader and a location

3 , Transport: establish a transport unit leader confirm the location of the transportation corridor and an exchange point

  1. Wrap up: conduct a thorough secondary search. Transport all remaining delayed or green category patients,
    Clear units conduct a debriefing and after action report .
421
Q

Tissue donor Notification 606

How do you identify if a deceased is a potential tissue donor?

A

Red heart in the lower right corner of the patient’s drivers license
Or
Family may be asked if they would like the deceased to be screened as a potential donor 

422
Q

If the patient’s (LSA) last seen alive time is less than 12 hours. The paramedic should gather the following information.

A

Name, date of birth height, weight
Probable cause of death
Pronouncement time less than 12 hours
And their relationship with contact information
Address and incident 

423
Q

Tissue donor 606

What criteria would rule out the deceased being a tissue donor?

A

Non-full-term infant
Time of death greater than 12 hours
Suspected HIV hepatitis or IV drug use
No readily available next 

424
Q

Medical helicopter 607

Medical helicopter can be ordered three modes. What are they?

A
  1. Immediate launch to the scene.
  2. Ground Standby.
  3. Airborne standby 
425
Q

Medical helicopter operations 607 medical helicopter can be ordered in one of three modes. What are they?

A

1 immediate launch to the scene

2 ground standby

3 airborne standby 

426
Q

What radio channel is used to communicate with aircraft?

A

VFire21

427
Q

What size should a landing zone normally be

A

100 x100. Level and free of debris and obstacles. 

428
Q

With the exception of the designated ground contact, how far should all other personnel remain from the landing zone?

A

200 feet

429
Q

What should ground contact provide the pilot with?

A

Speed and direction of any wind
Any hazards near the landing zone?
Any unusual characteristics of the landing zones such as slope or surface 

430
Q

Advanced resource medic 608

 What are the advantages of treating a patient in place?

A

1: unnecessary ambulance transport will be reduced

2: burden on hospital and healthcare systems will be lessened 

431
Q

Advanced resource medic 608

C. I. H. C. S.

A

 Community integrated healthcare system 

432
Q

Advanced resource medic 608

A. P. P.

A. C. P.

A

Advanced practice providers
(nurse practitioner or physician assistant )

Advanced care, paramedics 

433
Q

What is the districts hybrid model for staffing the arm car?

A

0800–1800 The arm will be staffed with West Metro, ACP and an APP

From 1800 to 0800 it will be staffed with an ACP and another West metro EMS provider .

434
Q

What are the four ways that the ARM car may be assigned? 

A
  1. Units in route may request the arm
  2. Arm may self assign.
  3. The arm may be auto assigned.
  4. The army generate an incident for a scheduled or non-scheduled patient encounter or follow up. 
435
Q

What are the two ways of transferring a patient to the arm car?

A
  1. Direct handoff on scene the ACP will be responsible for completing the EHR.
  2. If the ETA is long the unseen crew may complete a refusal and clear the scene 
436
Q

CO emergencies 700

When should an SBA be utilized?

A

35 ppm

437
Q

CO emergency 700

What she’ll be taking into the structure on a CO alarm

A

RK single gas CO monitor and 4 has or 6 has monitor

Leutenants Test (7 decks)

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