Wk8 - Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

How can we measure lung function?

A

At home- Peak flow, (oximetry)

At the GP surgery- Spirometry, oximetry

In a specialist lab- Spirometry, transfer factor, lung volumes, blood gases, bronchial provocation testing, respiratory muscle function, exercise testing etc.

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2
Q

Spirometry

- Definition

A

Definition: Forced expiratory manoeuvre from total lung capacity followed by a full inspiration

“take a big breath in as far as you can and blow out as hard as you can for as long as possible- then take a big breath all the way in”

Best of 3 acceptable attempts (within 5%) - best effort is taken as their spirometry

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3
Q

Spirometry pitfalls

A

Appropriately trained technician

Effort and technuque dependent

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4
Q

What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

> 70% = N

If <70% = airflow obstruction

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5
Q

Reference ranges for lung function

A

FEV1 of 85% predicted may be considered “normal”

FEV1 of 100% percent predicted may represent significant decline if values supra-normal at the start

Corrected for age, gender, race, height and atmospheric values

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6
Q

Obstructive lung disease

A

Generally asthma or COPD
FEV1/ FVC ratio <70% (0.7 ratio).

Severity of COPD stratified by %predicted FEV1
mild >80%
mod 50-80%, 
severe 30-50%, 
very severe <30%
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7
Q

Reversibility testing

A

Nebulised or inhaled salbutamol given
Spirometry before and 15 min after salbutamol
15% AND 400ml reversibility in FEV1 suggestive of asthma

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8
Q

Other investigations ofr asthma

A

PEFR testing
Look for diurnal variation and variation over time
Response to inhaled corticosteroid
Occupational asthma
Bronchial provocation
Spirometry before and after trial of inhaled/ oral corticosteroid

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9
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

FEV1 AND FVC reduced

FEV1/ FVC ratio >70%

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10
Q

Causes of restrictive spirometry

A
Interstitial lung disease (stiff lungs)
Kyphoscoliosis/ chest wall abnormality
Previous pneumonectomy
Neuromuscular disease
Obesity
Poor effort/ technique
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11
Q

Interpreting spirometry

A

First look at FEV1/ FVC ratio
If <70%, obstruction
If obstructed, look at % predicted FEV1 (severity) and any reversibility (COPD vs asthma)
If FEV1/ FEV ratio normal, look at % predicted FVC (if low, suggests restrictive abnormality)

Can also get mixed picture, eg obesity and COPD

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12
Q

Transfer factor

A

Is a measure of gas exchange
Single breath of a very small concentration of carbon monoxide
CO has very high affinity to Hb
Measure concentration in expired gas to derive uptake in the lungs

Affected by:
Alveolar surface area
Pulmonary capillary blood volume
Haemoglobin concentration
Ventilation perfusion mismatch
Reduced in:
Emphysema
Interstitial lung disease
Pulmonary vascular disease
Anaemia (increased in polychthaemia)
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13
Q

2 methods of measuring lung volume

A
(unable to measure residual volume by spirometry)
Helium dilution (inspire known quantity of inert gas)
Body plethysmography (respiratory manoevures in a sealed box lead to changes in air pressure- can derive lung volumes. Archimedes principle!)

Lung volumes reduced in
restrictive lung disease
Increased RV and RV/TLC in
obstructive lung disease

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14
Q

Oximetry

A

Non-invasive measurement of saturation of haemoglobin by oxygen
Depends on oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin absorbing infrared light differently
Depends on adequate perfusion (shock, cardiac failure)

Does NOT measure carbon dioxide, so no measurement of ventilation
False reassurance in a patient on oxygen with normal saturations (acute asthma, COPD, hypoventilation)

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15
Q

Causes of hypoxaemia

A

Hypoventilation (eg drugs, neuromuscular disease)
Ventilation/ perfusion mismatch (eg COPD, pneumonia)
Shunt (eg congenital heart disease)
Low inspired oxygen (altitude, flight)

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16
Q

Ventilation perfusion mismatch

A

Happens to a degree in normal lungs
Main cause of hypoxaemia in medical patients (e.e.g pneumonia)
Areas of lung that are perfused but not well ventilated (eg pneumonic consolidation)
Mixing of blood from poorly ventilated and well ventilated parts of the lung causes hypoxaemia
Does not fully correct with oxygen administration

Shunt an “extreme” form of V/Q mismatch where blood bypasses the lungs entirely. Does not correct with oxygen administration

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17
Q

Blood gas analysis - what you are looking at

A

Always look at the pO2 first
Is the patient in respiratory failure requiring additional oxygen?
Then look at the PCO2 (type 1 vs type 2 respiratory failure)
Then consider acid base balance
Acute respiratory acidosis- elevated pCO2, normal bicarbonate, acidosis
Compensated respiratory acidosis- elevated pCO2, elevated bicarbonate (renal compensation), not acidotic
Acute on chronic respiratory acidosis- elevated pCO2, elevated bicarbonate, acidotic

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18
Q

COPD definition

A

COPD is characterised by airflow obstruction.

The airflow obstruction is usually progressive, not fully reversible and does not change markedly over several months.

The disease is commonly caused by smoking.

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19
Q

Effects of cigarette smoking on the lungs

A

Cilial motility is reduced (cilia are damaged/destroyed by smoking) - (so sputum is not cleared - increased infections)

Airway inflammation (neutrophilic inflammation)

Mucus hypertrophy and hypertrophy of Goblet cells

Increased protease activity, anti-proteases inhibited

Oxidative stress (increased free radicals e.g. hydrogen peroxide)

Squamous metaplasia → higher risk of lung cancer

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20
Q

Genetics for COPD

A
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency: genetic
present in 1 – 3 % of COPD patients
serine proteinase inhibitor
M alleles normal variant
SS and ZZ homozygotes have clinical disease
Unable to “counterbalance” destructive enzymes in lung
Non-smokers get emphysema in 30s – 40s
Smokers get emphysema much earlier

Smokers have increased risk of COPD if it is in the family

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21
Q

Clinical syndrome of COPD

A

Chronic Bronchitis:
the production of sputum on most days for at least 3 months in at least 2 years

Emphysema:
abnormal, permanent enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles

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22
Q

Features seen in airways in patient with cOPD

A
Infiltration with neutrophils and CD8+ lymphocytes
Loss of interstitial support
Increased epithelial mucous cells
Mucus gland hyperplasia
Squamous metaplasia
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23
Q

Features of chronic bronchitis

A

Chronic Bronchitis:
larger airways > 4mm in diameter
Inflammation leads to scarring and thickening of airways

Small airways disease:
“Bronchiolitis” in airways of 2 -3 mm
May be an early feature of COPD
narrowing of the bronchioles due to mucus plugging, inflammation and fibrosis

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24
Q

Cell type involvement in COPD inflammation

A
Cell types
Macrophages, CD8 and CD4 T lymphocytes, neutrophils

Inflammatory Mediators
TNF, IL-8 and other chemokines
Neutrophil elastase, proteinase 3, cathepsin G 
    (from activated neutrophils)
Elastase and MMPs (from macrophages)
Reactive oxygen species

Airway inflammation persists after smoking ceased

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25
Q

What are 2 most clinically signifiacnt types of emphysema

A

Types causing airflow obstruction:

Centri-acinar –
damage around respiratory bronchioles
more in upper lobes

Pan-acinar –
uniformly enlarged from the level of terminal bronchiole distally
can get large bullae
associated with α1 anti-trypsin deficiency

Consequent loss of surface area for gas exchange

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26
Q

Name the 3 types of emphysema

A

Centriacinar
Panacinar
Paraseptal

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27
Q

Mechanisms of airflow obstruction in COPD

A

Loss of elasticity and alveolar attachments due to emphysema - airways collapse on expiration
causes airtrapping and hyperinflaltion →increased work of breathing→breathlessness

Goblet cell metaplasia with mucus plugging of lumen
Inflammation of the airway wall
Thickening (and scarring) of the bronchiolar wall
- smooth muscle hypertrophy and peribronchial fibrosis

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28
Q

Clinical COPD on CxR

A

Hyperinflation with emphysema - also blacker as lost lung tissue and blood vessels
6 anterior ribs seen (?)

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29
Q

Diagnosing COPD

A
Consider the diagnosis of COPD for people who are over 35, and smokers or ex-smokers, with any of:
exertional breathlessness
chronic cough
regular sputum production
frequent winter ‘bronchitis’
wheeze

Spirometry - FEV1/FVC ratio <70%

Stage 1 (mild) - FEV1 % predicted - 80%
2 (moderate) - 50-79%
3 (severe) - 30-49%
4 (very severe) - <30%

Or FEV1 <50% with respiratory failure = very severe

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30
Q

Treatment of COPD

A

Inhaled bronchodilators
Short-acting beta-agonists: salbutamol
Long acting: salmeterol, tiotropium

Inhaled corticosteroids
Budesonide and fluticasone – combination inhalers
Oxygen therapy

Oral theophyllines
Mucolytics - carbocysteine
Nebulised therapy

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31
Q

The 2 phenotypes in respiratory failure with COPD

A
Blue bloater:
Hypocapnic
low respiratory drive 
Type 2 respiratory failure
↓PaO2,  ↑PaCO2, 
cyanosis
warm peripheries
bounding pulse
flapping tremor
confusion, drowsiness, 
right heart failure
Oedema, raised JVP
Pink puffer:
Emphysemitis
high respiratory drive
Type 1 respiratory failure
 ↓PaO2, ↓PaCO2
desaturates on exercise
 pursed lip breathing
use accessory muscles
wheeze 
indrawing of intercostals
tachypnoea
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32
Q

Recognition of different inflammatory processes in COPD and asthma

A
Asthmatic airway inflammation:
CD4+
T lymphocytes
Eosinophils
- completely reversible
COPD airway inflammation:
CD8+
T lymphocytes
Macrophages
Neutrophils
- Irreversible
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33
Q

COPD vs asthma features

A

-

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34
Q

Causes of raised acnion gap (in metabolic acidosis)

A
renal failure
Diabetic or other ketoacidosis
lactic acidosis
toxins e.g. salicylate, some IEM
(Excess production of H+ or inability to excrete it
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35
Q

Causes of N anion gap in metabolic acidosis

A
renal tubular acidosis
Diarrhoea
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
ureteric diversion
(Excess HCO3- loss)
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36
Q

What can be used to measure DKA

A

Serum Osmolal Gap
OG = measured osmolality - calculated osmolality
Normal OG <10mOsm/kg
N serum osmolality = 275-295mOsm/kg

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37
Q

Non-invasive ventilation in COPD

A

Provides positive pressure to the airways to support breathing

Recommended as the first line intervention in addition to usual medical care in COPD exacerbations with persistent hypercapniac respiratory failure

Considered if there is a respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.35, H+ > 45) present or if acidosis persists despite maximal medical therapy

Reduces respiratory rate
Improves dyspnoea and gas exchange
Lowers mortality

Reduces need for ventilation in ITU
Reduces length of hospital stay

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38
Q

Cor pulmonale is a syndrome of…

A

Right heart failure secondary to lung disease

Salt and water retention leading to peripheral oedema

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39
Q

Signs of cor pulmonale

A

Peripheral oedema
Raised jugular venous pressure
A systolic parasternal heave
Loud pulmonary second heart sound

Pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular hypertrophy may develop

Treatment - diuretics to control peripheral oedema

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40
Q

What is allergy?

A

Allergy is an immune system mediated intolerance
Clinical reaction
Acute - sudden or slow - progressive
Based on immune system intolerance
Requires exposure to a trigger
Memory,
characteristic clinical features
Dependent on which arm of the immune system
Chronic allergy leads to tissue remodelling
Acute inflammation - repair

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41
Q

Allergy in the airways

A

Affects airflow
Increases resistance
Causes wheeze/stridor - turbulence
Measured by spirometry

Imaging (CXR) not helpful
Gas transfer not helpful

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42
Q

Extra-thoracic disease

A
not susceptible to intra-thoracic pressure
For example Laryngeal oedema
(thyroid, scarring, epiglotitis)
Stridor
Flow-volume loops
CXR not helpful
Aspiration to Right middle/lower lobe
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43
Q

Bronchial disease - clinical consequences

A

Susceptible to intra-thoracic pressure

Clinical consequences:
Medium - Small airways flaccid walls 
Not supported by cartilage
Expiratory phase narrowing - wheeze
Muco-ciliary clearance impairment – sputum
Characteristic flow-volume loops
CXR – unhelpful (hyperinflation)
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44
Q

Pathological, Physiological and clinical aspects of asthma

A
Pathological:
Inflammation
Scabby epithelium
Thickened BM
Thickened smooth muscle
Mast cells in smooth muscle
Physiological:
Yellow mucous
Repair pathways
Non elastic airways
Increased responsiveness
Increased sensitivity
Clinical:
Cough
Cough/wheeze
Wheeze                         
Hyper-reactivity

Hyper-sensitivity

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45
Q

Definition of asthma

A

Appropriate symptoms with signs:

  • Wheeze, cough, yellow/clear sputum
  • Breathlessness, exercise intolerance

Episodic, triggered, variable – paroxysmal

  • Exercise,
  • cats - Allergy
  • Chemical/physical (salicylate/aspirin) - - Hyper-reactivity
  • Diurnal – nocturnal awakening

Respond to asthma therapies

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46
Q

Asthmatic airways

A

Airway smooth muscle hypertrophy is seen (smooth muscle is is infiltrated by mast cells (contain histamine - whos main target is mooth muscle)

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47
Q

Diagnosis of asthma

A

Appropriate clinical story
Supportive physiological tests:
1. Patient is given a diary and a peak flow meter
2. Pharmacological hypersensitivity (more sensitive to histamine) - not done now (not diagnostic, is a supportive test)

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48
Q

What cytokines are increased in asthmatic ariways?

A

IL-5
TSLP
IL-13

TNFalpha
TGFbeta
VEGF

These drive inflammation as recruit –> mast cells, lymphocytes, macrophages, epithelial cells

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49
Q

Family of drugs used against asthms

A

Anti-IgE biological therapy
Corticosteroids
Anti-leukotriene receptor drugs
Bronchodilators

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50
Q

Triggers EAA

A
Bird dander – 
Pigeon fancier’s lung, budgie lung
Mushroom worker’s lung
Farmer’s lung (fungal spores)
Aspergillus lung
Cheese workers
Wheat weevil
Mollusc shell workers
Malt worker’s lung
Humidifier lung
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51
Q

Pneumothorax definition

A

‘Air within the pleural cavity’
Negative intrapleural pressure
Opposing forces of chest wall (outwards) and lung (inwards)
Any breach of the pleural space leads to collapse of the elastic lung

Can be traumatic, iatrogenic or spontaneous

Traumatic - stabbing, fractured rib

Iatrogenic - CT guided lung biopsy, TBLB, pleural aspiration

Spontaneous:
Primary - young patient, no underlying lung disease (often tall, thin young men)
Secondary - underlying lung disease (COPD (bullae rupturing), cystic fibrosis)

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52
Q

Pathophysiology of primary pneumothorax

A

Development of subpleural blebs/ bullae at lung apex
Possible additional diffuse, microscopic emphysema below the surface of the visceral pleura

Spontaneous rupture leads to tear in visceral pleura
Air flows from airways to pleural
space (pressure gradient)
Elastic lung then collapses

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53
Q

Pathophysiology of secondary pneumothorax

A

Inherent weakness in lung tissue (eg emphysema)
Increased airway pressure (eg asthma, ventilated patient)
Increased lung elasticity (eg pulmonary fibrosis)

Patient is generally much more symptomatic
(poor underlying lung function)
Management more complex, prognosis less good
More likely to require intervention

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54
Q

Symptoms and signs of pneumothorax

A

Pleuritic chest pain
Breathlessness (can be minimal if primary)
Respiratory distress (especially if secondary)

Reduced air entry on affected side
Hyper-resonance to percussion (?)
Reduced vocal resonance

Tracheal deviation if tension (+/- circulatory collapse)

Differential diagnosis: PTE, musculoskeletal pain, pleurisy/ pneumonia

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55
Q

Management of pneumothorax

A

Size less important than symptoms
Small pneumothorax very symptomatic if bad COPD
Can tolerate complete lung collapse very well if healthy

2cm rim of air at the axilla equates to 50% volume
<2cm defined as small, >2cm large

Options for management:
Observation (serial CXR) if small or not very symptomatic- can be as outpatient
Aspiration (small bore catheter 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line- aspirate air with syringe/ 3 way tap)

Intercostal drain with underwater seal

Good guideline developed by British Thoracic Society

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56
Q

What if a drain fails to work? (for Tx of pneumothorax)

A

VATS (Video Assisted Thoracic Surgery)
Considered if not resolved in 5 days

Can staple blebs
Talc pleurodesis (causes inflammatory reaction and pleural adhesion, highly effective)
Pleural abrasion/ stripping

Surgical pleurodesis considered if 2nd pneumothorax on same side, first contralateral event
Professional considerations (eg airline pilots, scuba divers)
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57
Q

After a spontaneous pneumothorax has resolved on CXR, how long should the patient wait before flying

A

> = 7 days

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58
Q

After a spontenous pneumothorax has resolved on CXT, how long should they wait before diving?

A

Should not dive again
(as have at least 30% of having another pneumothorax) - the pressures on diving are far greater - can develop a tension pneumothorax)

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59
Q

Features of tension pneumothorax

A

A medical emergency
‘One way valve’ leads to increased intrapleural pressure
Venous return impaired, cardiac output and blood pressure fall
PEA arrest without intervention

Immediate management: insert venflon 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line to relieve pressure

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60
Q

Risk factors for spontanoeus pneumothorax

A

Smoking, male gender and height are risk factors
Underlying lung disease (secondary)
Recurrence rate 40-50% after first episode

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61
Q

Definitions of obstructive sleep apnoea and obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Recurrent episodes of partial or complete upper (pharyngeal) airway obstruction during sleep, intermittent hypoxia and sleep fragmentation

Obstructive Sleep Apnoea Syndrome
Manifests as excessive daytime sleepiness

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62
Q

Mechanism of OSAS

A

Pharyngeal narrowing –>

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63
Q

Symptoms of OSAS

A

Snorer
Witnessed apnoeas (relative or partner has noticed)
Disruptive sleep – nocturia/choking/dry mouth/ sweating
Unrefreshed sleep
Daytime somnolence
Fatigue/ Low mood/ Poor concentration

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64
Q

Assessment of OSAS

A
History- history from partner is very important
Clinical examination: 
Weight
BMI
BP - often hypertensive
Neck circumference (>40cm)
Craniofacial appearance (Retrognathia, Micrognathia - ENT issues)
Tonsils
Nasal patency

Questionairres:
The Epworth Sleepiness Score
The STOP-BANG Questionnaire
The Berlin Questionnaire

Investigations:
Limited Polysomnography (Limited Sleep Study)
5 channel home study
Oxygen Saturations
Heart Rate
Flow
Thoracic and Abdominal effort
Position

Investigation for more complex case:
Full polysomnography
ECG - sleep staging, position, flow, oxygen saturation, videoed, audio, limb leads, snore, eye movements (to tell what stage of sleep their at)

Transcutaenous Oxygen Saturations and Carbon Dioxide Assessment (TOSCA) - home or inpatient (looks at heart rate, saturations and CO2) - probe on your ear (gets to a high temperature)

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65
Q

Advantages of full polysomnography

A

Correct patient
Accurate assessment of sleep efficiency
Sleep staging via EEG
Parasomnic activity- acting out dreams, sleep talking

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66
Q
Sleep studies - looking at:
Apnoea
hypoapnoea
Respiratory effort related arousals
Apnoea - Hypopnoea Index (AHI)
Oxygen desaturation index (ODI)

These are all looked at for diagnosis

A

Apnoea
the cessation, or near cessation, of airflow
4% oxygen desaturation, lasting ≥ 10 secs
Hypopnoea
Hypopnoea is a reduction of airflow to a degree insufficient to meet the criteria for an apnoea
Respiratory effort related arousals
arousals associated with a change in airflow that does not meet the criteria for apnoea or hypopnoea
Apnoea-Hypopnoea Index (AHI)
The apnoea-hypopnoea index (AHI) is calculated by adding the number of apnoeas and hypopnoeas and dividing by the total sleep time (in hours)

Oxygen desaturation index (ODI)
the number of times per hour of sleep that the SpO2 falls ≥ 4% from baseline

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67
Q

Diagnosis of OSA

A

AHI ≥15 is diagnostic of OSA
AHI 5-15 with compatible symptoms

AHI < 5 Normal
AHI 5-15 Mild
AHI 16-30 Moderate
AHI >30 Severe

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68
Q

Treatment of OSAS

A

Treat the symptomatic- OSAS (daytime sleepiness)
AIM: Improve daytime somnolence and QOL
Explain OSAS
Weight loss
Avoid triggering factors- alcohol
Treat underlying conditions- tonsils, hypothyroidism, nasal obstruction

Continuous Positive Airways Pressure (CPAP) - Splints airway open, stops snoring, stops sleep fragmentation, Improves daytime sleepiness + QOL
Compliance - >4 hours for >70% daysFixed vs Autoset CPAP
Nasal vs Full Face Mask (if breathe through mouth with need a full face mask)

For those who have mild-moderate OSAS and unable to tolerate CPAP –> Mandibular Advancement DEvicce –> pulls jaw forward to open airway

Sleep position trainers:
Supine OSA
Vibration when on back (wakes you up)
Weeks to change sleeping position
Appropriate in few patients with Supine OSA
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69
Q

Untreated OSAS

A
Hypertension
Right heart strain
Cardiovascular disease
Increased risk of CVA
Increased accidents at work/poor concentration

Increased road traffic acidents
4 times for likely to have a RTA

70
Q

OSAS and driving

A

OSA WITHOUT DAYTIME SOMNOLENCE, DO NOT NEED TO STOP DRIVING
OSAS (DTS)- LIKELY IMPAIRMENT OF DRIVING, INFORM DVLA ON DIAGNOSIS
OSAS CAN HOLD LICENCE IF COMPLIANT WITH TREATMENT AND REDUCED DTS

CAT 2 LICENCE REQUIRE ONGOING MONITORING BY DVLA WITH REGARDS TO TREATMENT COMPLIANCE

71
Q

Mainstay treatment for OSAS?

A

CPAP

72
Q

Aetiology of lung cancer

A

90% of lung cancer is attributable to life style choices
Smoking is the main avoidable risk for lung cancer attributable to 86% of cases
Predisposes to lung cancer of all major histological types but link strongest for squamous and small cell
Smoking risks:
<5% are life long non-smokers
10-20 cig/day : 30x risk
60 cig/day : 60x risk
Stopping smoking reduces risk but depends on number of years of smoking and takes time

73
Q

Risk factors for lung cancer

A
Smoking
Environmental tobacco smoke
Ionising radiation – radon, uranium
Air pollution 
Asbestos
Other e.g. fibrosing conditions of lung, human papilloma virus, hereditary (polymorphisms in cytochrome p450)
74
Q

Signs and symptoms of lung cancer

A
Cough
Haemoptysis
Shortness of Breath
Chest pain
(Weight loss/Anorexia
General malaise)
75
Q

Central lung cancer - signs and symptoms

A

Haemoptysis
Bronchial obstruction – SOB, retention pneumonia
Cough

76
Q

Peripheral lung cancer - signs and sympotms

A

May have few symptoms

Pain if pleura or chest wall involved

77
Q

Local spread of lung tumour

A

Pleura
- Haemorrhagic effusion
Hilar lymph nodes
Adjacent lung tissue
- May involve large blood vessel leading to haemoptysis
Pericardium
- Pericardial effusion with subsequent involvement of pericardium
Mediastinum
- Superior vena caval obstruction
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve (hoarseness, vocal cord paralysis)
- Phrenic nerve (phrenic nerve paralysis - paralysis of the diaphragm)
Pancoast tumour
- Involvement of brachial plexus giving sensory and motor symptoms (pain and weakness)
- Horner’s syndrome/Oculosympathetic palsy(cervical sympathetic chain)

78
Q

SVC obstruction with lung cancer

A

Oedema of face and arms
Raised JVP
Dilated veins on chest

79
Q

Distant spread of lung cancer

A
Haematogenous
Common due to invasion of pulmonary veins
Liver, bone, brain, adrenal
Lymphatic
Cervical lymph nodes
80
Q

Non-metastatic effects of lung cancer

A

ACTH secretion - adrenal hyperplasia - raised blood cortisol - Cushings syndrome (buffalo hump, fragile skin, central obesity)
ADH secretion of tumours - retention of water - dilutional hyponatraemia (SIADH)
Parathyroid horomone related hormone secretion - osteoclastic activity - hypercalcaemi
Encephalopathy
Cerebellar degeneration
Neuropathy
Myopathy
Eaton Lambert myasthenia-like syndrome
Cancer Associated Retinopathy
etc……………

81
Q

Histological classification of lung cancer

A

SMALL CELL and NON-SMALL CELL lung cancer is the MOST important decision for treatment
SMALL CELL – usually advanced at diagnosis and responds to CHEMOTHERAPY
NON-SMALL CELL – may be localised at diagnosis and can be treated by SURGERY or RADIOTHERAPY
With advancement in therapies subdivision of NON-SMALL CELL cancers is increasingly important

Small cell carcinoma
Non-small cell:
Adenocarcinoma (most common)
Squamous cell carcinoma (2nd most common)
Large cell carcinoma
Other (e.g. carcinoid tumour)
82
Q

Site of central lung tumour vs peripheral

A

Central tumours arise in and around hilus of the lung and are usually squamous or small cell carcinomas
Peripheral tumours are predominantly adenocarcinomas

83
Q

FEatures of small cell carcinomas

A
Most aggressive form of lung cancer 
Metastasizes early and widely
Often initial good response to chemotherapy – but most patients relapse
Appearance
- Oval to spindle shaped cells
- Inconspicuous nucleoli
- Scant cytoplasm
- Nuclear moulding (more prominent in cytology)
- Apoptotic bodies
84
Q

Features of squamous cell carcinoma

A

Tend to arise centrally from major bronchi
Often within dysplastic epithelium following squamous metaplasia
Slow growing and metastasize late therefore may be good candidate for surgery
May undergo cavitation
May block bronchi leading to retention pneumonia or collapse
Appearance
A malignant epithelial tumour showing keratinzation and/or intercellular bridges
In situ squamous cell carcinoma may seen in the adjacent airway mucosa

85
Q

Features of adenocarcinoma

A

Common tumour in females
Also seen in non-smokers (but also associated with smoking)
Two thirds arise in the periphery sometimes in relation to scarring
Appearance
Glandular, solid, papillary or lepidic (grows along alveoli walls)
Mucin production

86
Q

FEatures of large cell carcinoma

A

A diagnosis of exclusion
Usually arises centrally
An undifferentiated malignant epithelial tumour that lacks the cytological features of SCLC and glandular or squamous differentiation

Tend to be central

87
Q

Carcinoid tumour

A

Tumour of neuroendocrine cells
Central or peripheral
Classified as Typical or Atypical
Can metastasize but MUCH better prognosis than other conventional lung cancers (5YS for typical 85-90%; Atypical 5YS 50-75%)

88
Q

Molecular targets identified (targeted therapy) for non-small cell lung cancer

A

Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR)
Echinoderm Microtubule-Associated Protein like 4-Anplastic lymphoma kinase fusion gene
Immunotherapy – PDL1

89
Q

Testing for mutations in EGFR

Testing for ALK fusion

A

Performed on biopsy or cytology specimens
PCR or Sequencing used to look for mutations in EGFR
Deletions in Exon 19 commonly associated with good response to EGFR inhibitors

ALK fusion:
FISH
Immunohistochemistry for protein product

90
Q

Almost any cancer can spread to the lung but common sites are

A
Breast
Colorectal
Kidney
Head and neck
Testicular
Bone (osteosarcoma)
Sarcomas
Melanoma 
Thyroid
91
Q

Signs and symptoms of metastases to lungs

A
Cough
Shortness of breath
Frequent chest infections
Haemoptysis
Pain
Weight loss

(very similar to lung cancer)

92
Q

What is mesothelioma/

A

Primary pleural tumour (also occurs in peritoneum, pericardium and tunica vaginalis testis)
Almost always due to asbestos exposure
Very long lag period before disease develops
Tumour had either an epithelial or sarcomatoid appearance or a mixture of both (biphasic)

93
Q

What is dermatophytes?

A

Fungi that cause common infections of skin, nails and hair
Do not colonise ‘live’ tissues, instead keratinised areas such as nails and outer skin
- Specialised niche, use keratinases, elastase and other proteinases as virulence factors

Have a slow anaeorbic metabolism
Makes them slow to respond to drug treatment - need a prolonged treatment period

Healthy and immunocompromised infected
Also known as ‘ringworm’ or ‘tinea’

94
Q

Treatment against dermatophytes

A
Many over the counter products
Sprays, Creams, Tablets, Powders, Liquids
Topical administration, usually
Oral medication
Severe infections, nail infections
Topical medication has not worked
Adults only
Active ingredients 
Terbinafine (Lamisil®)
Itraconazole
Ketoconazole
Miconazole
95
Q

Examples of systemic fungal infections? 9through the airways)

A
Fungal meningitis
- Cryptococcus neoformans
Aspergillosis of the lungs
- Aspergillus fumigatus
Pneumocystis pneumonia
- Pneumocystis jiroveci

Only in immunocompromised
Treatment: can be problematic

96
Q

Features of crytococcus neoformans

A
Inhaled opportunistic pathogen
Encapsulated yeast
Contracted from environment, e.g. pigeon droppings
Crytococcosis of lungs, and meningitis
Often secondary infection with HIV
Treatments
2 weeks of i.v. Amphotericin B for meningitis
Fluconazole or flucytosine (non-CNS)
97
Q

Features of Aspergillus fumigatus

A

Can give rise to 3 different conditions:
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
- Allergic reaction to the fungal infection
- Association with cystic fibrosis, asthma
- Prednisone (anti-allergic agent)

Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (IPA)

  • Becomes systemic and spreads throughout the body
  • Common in immunocompromised
  • Treatment: voriconazole; Amphotericin B

Aspergilloma

  • a fungal ball that develops in an area of past lung disease or lung scarring
  • e.g. tuberculosis or lung abscess
  • No treatment unless bleeding occurs: surgery
98
Q

Features of Pneumocystitis jiroveci

A
Common environmental fungus
No pathology on immunocompetent
Pneumonia
Fever
Cough
Shortness of breath, rapid breathing
Treatment and prophylaxis
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
(Rapid treatment is needed) - combination treatment
99
Q

Examples of Azoles

A

Imidazole, Triazole, and thiazole antifungals

Largest class of antifungal agents
Many applications
Examples
Miconazole (Micatin® or Daktarin®)
Ketoconazole (Nizoral, Fungoral and Sebizole®)
Clotrimazole (Lotrimin, Lotrimin AF and Canesten)
Econazole
Isoconazole
Fluconazole
Itraconazole
Abafungin
100
Q

Mechanism of azole action

A

Azoles are inhibitors of 14-methylsterol α-demethylase which produces ergosterol (a lipid - essentially a cholesterol for fungi - it is essential) - by inhibiting it you are curing the fungal infection)
Ergosterol is an essential component of the fungal plasma membrane
Does not occur in animal or plants cells
Equivalent of cholesterol in yeast, fungi
On this one difference a pharmacopoeia is build!

Drawback of azoles = cross-resistance

101
Q

Why are sterols important in fungals?

A

In eukaryotes sterols such as cholesterol insert themselves into the lipid bilayer and are essential for its proper functioning and viscosity

102
Q

What is Amphotericin B?

A

Amphotericin B also exploits the ergosterol / cholesterol difference
It is not an enzyme inhibitor
Exploits the presence of ergosterol

Has a charged hydrophilic side & a hydrophobic side which interacts with ergosterol
Binds on its hydrophobic side
Hydrohilic side has to interact with water and therefore form a pore in the membrane

Needs to be given IV

103
Q

What is contained within the mediastinum

A

Consists of blood vessels, trachea, oesophagus, T duct and phrenic nerves, thymus
When the mediastinum moves the heart may also move

104
Q

Exacerbation of asthma management

A
High flow oxygen
Nebulised bronchodilators (500mg salbutamol, 500mcg ipatropium bromide)
Oral prednisolone 40mg
Oral doxycycline 300mg
IV magnesium 2g
Discussion with ITU
Consider IV aminophylline infusion
105
Q

MOA of corticosteroids

A

Binds to activtaed glucocorticoid receptors to suppress multiple pro-inflammatory genes that are activated in asthmatic airways by reversing histone acetylation

Indications:
Asthma
COPD with reccurent exacerbations
Exacerbations of asthma/COPD

Side effects:
Diabetes, osteoporosis, hypertension, muscle wasting, peptic ulceration, cataracts, cushing’s syndrome, adrenal suppression, acute pancreatitis, hyperlipiaemia, increased appetite, salt and water retention, immune suppression

106
Q

MOA of bronchodilators - B2 agonsists

A

MOA - higher specificity for pulmonary (B2) receptors vs cardiac (B1) receptors
Stimulates adenyl cyclase to increase intracellular cAMP –> relaxation fo bronchial smooth muscle

Indications - treatment of asthma + COPD

Side effects - tremor, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypomagnesaemia, flushing, tachycardia, arrhythmias, headache, muscel cramps

Short acting - salbutamol, terbutaline (elimination half-life 3-5 hours)
Long-acting - sameterol, formoterol, vilanterol, indacaterol
Salbutamol can be given via inhaled, nebulised, oral, intravenous routes
Inhalational route preferable/nebulised if severe

107
Q

Bronchodilators: Anti-muscarinics MOA

A

Inhibition of cholinergic M1 and M3 receptors in lung –> reduction in cGMP and inhibition or parasympathetic-mediated bronchoconstriction

Indications:
treatment of asthma + COPD

Side effects - blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary retention, nausea, constipation, nebulised ipatropium may precipitate acute angle closure glaucoma - use a mouthpiece not a mask

Short-acting - ipatropium bromide
Long-acting - tiotropium, glycopyronium, umeclidinium.
Renally excreted

108
Q

Bronchodilators: Methylxanthines (aminophylline/theophylline) MOA

A

Non-selective inhibition of phosphodiesterase –> increased intracellular cAMP –> bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

Indications:
Adjunct to inhaled therapy in asthma/intravenous infusion in severe exacerbations of asthma

Side effects - GI upset, palpitations, tachycardia/arrhythmias, headache, insomnia, hypokalaemia

Time to steady onset - 2-3 days - plasma theophylline levels at 5 days/3 days after dose adjustment
narrow therapeutic window: 10-20mg/L
Toxicity: severe vomiting, hypokalaemia, seizures, arrhythmias, hypotension
Metabolised in the liver - caution in liver disease and with concomitant use of enzyme inducers (rifampicin) and inhibitors (clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin)

SMoking increases theophylline clearance - dose may need adjustment following smoking cessation

109
Q

What can azithromycin be used for (a resp disease)

A

Reduction in exacerbations of COPD

110
Q

What are the 4 causes for bilateral hilar adenopathy

A

Sarcoidosis
Lymphoma
TB
Malignancy

111
Q

What is seen on an CXR with a right upper lobe collapse

A

Opacification of right upper zone
Displacement of the horizontal fissure superiorly
Bulging of fissure medially: Golden’s reverse’s sign
Trachea displaced to right

Always suspect tumour but other causes possible

Investigations:
History, examination, bloods, CT & bronchoscopy

112
Q

Features of left UL collapse

A

Opacification left upper zone
Displacement of the oblique fissure superiorly
Bulging of fissure medially: Coldern’s reverse’s sign
Trachea displaced to left

Always suspect tumour but other causes possible

113
Q

Left LL collapse

A

Wedge triangular opacification behind the left heart border ‘sail boat sign’
Displacement of the left hilum inferiorly
Obliteration of the left hemidiaphragm
Hyperlucent remaining left lung.

Always suspect tumour but other causes possible

Ivestigations: history, examination, bloods, CT and bronchoscopy

114
Q

Does lobar collapse normally cause mediastinal shift?

A

No

115
Q

Causes of pneumothorax

A
Trauma - stab, iatrogenic, rib fracture
Spontaneous
Ventilation
Pulmonary disease - all fibrosis, CF
Asthma
Infections - TB, sepsis, septic infarct
Malignancy - metastatic sarcoma
Pneumomediastinum - ruptured oesophagus, trachea, tracheostomy
Obscure - endometriosis
116
Q

Radiological signs on the CXR of pneumothorax

A
Depression of the left hemidiaphragm
Tracheal displacement
Hyperlucency of the left hemithorax
Small left basal pleural effusion
Displacement of the heart to the right
Pleural line or completely collapsed lung
117
Q

Complications of pneumothorax

A

Haemothorax
Tension - mild to marked mediastinal displacement +/- depression of diaphragm
Adhesions; slow re expansion or bleed if tear
Delayed expansion adhesions, airways obstruction
Re expansion oedema

118
Q

Pleural effusion =

A

fluid in the pleural space
Normally fluid generated by parietal, absorbed by visceral

Types of fluid:
Transudate
Exudate
Blood - haemothorax
Chyle - chylothorax
Mixed
119
Q

Causes of pleural effusion

A

Hypoproteinanaemia - cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome
Cardivascular - CCF, constrictive pericarditis
Neoplasm - bronchial mets, lymphoma, mesothelioma
Infection - bacterial, fungal, viral etc
Trauma
Thromboembolism
Inhalation - asbestos exposure
Collagen vascular disease - SLE, RA
Sub-diaphragmatic - ascites-Meigs, pancreatitis, subphrenic abscess, CAPD

Massive diffusion ost likely malignant disease, heart failure, cirrhosis, TB, empyema, trauma

120
Q

Causes of opacification (white lung) of hemithoraxx

A
Pleural effusion
Consolidation
Collapse
Massive tumour
Pneumonectomy
Fibrothorax
Combination fo above
Lung agenesis
121
Q

Pleural effusion: CXR signs

A

Blunting cost phrenic angle and meniscus sign
Supine film - opacification adn visualised vascular markings
Massive effusion with contralateral shift

122
Q

Sub-pulmonary effusion

A

Free fluid collects initially under the lung

CXR: high hemidiaphragm, lateral peak to contour, confirmed on lateral decubitas film
Hemidiaphragm appears more opaque

123
Q

Mechanisms of pleural effusion

A

Pleural effusions arise when balance between pleural fluid production and aborption has been disturbed.

Increased hydrostatic pressure (CCF)
Decrease osmotic pressure (hypoalbuminaemia)
Inc vascular permeability (pneumonia)
Dec lymphatic drainage (mediastinal carcinomatosis)
Inc intra-pleural negative pressure (atelectasis)

124
Q

Pleural fluid sampling

A

As a minimum:
100ml to cytology
Biochemistry for LDH/glucose/protein (Light’s criteria)
Ideally paired serum samples
Microbiology - including TB culture, send in blood culture bottles if empyema suspected.

Do not drain to dryness:
Remove 1 L if symptomatic then stop

125
Q

Transudate vs exudate

A
Transudate:
Protein <30 g/l
LDH <2/3 upper limit of normal value for serum LDH
Often bilateral
Usually clear
Exudate:
Protein >30g
LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal value for serum LDH
Pleural/serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural LDH/serum LDH ratio > 0.6
Usually unilateral
Clear, cloudy or blood-stained
126
Q

Common causes of transudates

A

Cardiac failure
Hepatic cirrhosis
Nephrotic syndrome
Hypoalbuminaemia

127
Q

Common causes of exudate

A

Bacterial pneumonia
Malignancy
Mesothelioma
TB

128
Q

Summary of investigation of pleural effusion

A

History, exam, CXR
If likely transudate then treat, if not do pleural aspirate (with US) - check protein, LDH, pH, cytology, gram stain, culture, sensitivity
If get diagnosis from fluid then treat, if not do CT chest
Do thorascopy (medical/VATS)
Do pleural biopsy +/- chest drain
Cause found then treat, if not reconsider treatable options/wait

129
Q

Features of medical thoracoscopy

A

Procedure of examining the parietal pleura, visceral pleura and diaphragm with a thoracoscope
Rigid or semi-rigid flexible thorascope
Indicated in undiagnosed cytology negative pleural effusions.
Performed under local anaesthesia and mild sedation:
- direct visualisation of the pleural surface
- biopsy of areas which appear abnormal
- therapeutic manoeuvres e.g. complete fluid drainage and pleurodesis during the same procedure

The procedure:
Oramorph/atropine premed
Patient in lateral decubitus position
Spot marked with US
Local anaesthetic (20ml 1% lidocaine)
Creation of pneumothorax
Blunt dissection, port inserted
Drainage of fluid with suction catheter
Inspection of pleural surface - Biopsies (x 10); Talc pleurodesis if clearly malignant

Chest drain removed once lung re-expanded

130
Q

Pleural malignancy

A

Primary pleural malignancy - mesothelioma (still common) - poor prognosis, treatment supportive

Lung cancer

Pleura is common site for metastatic spread - especially breast, ovarian (and also bowel, renal, lymphoma)

Diagnostic yield of aspiration - often need tissue for genetics

Traditionally insert drain followed by medical (talc) pleurodesis on ward

131
Q

Management options for malignancy in pleural effusions

A

Drain to dryness once and discharge (if diagnosis secure and already have tissue) - give patient contact number of ward

Medical pleurodesis

Thoracscopic pleurdodesis

Indwelling plerual catheter (IPC)

132
Q

Pleural infection

A

Up to 50% of pneumonias will have an associated effusion (parapneumonic)

Effusion with signs of sepsis

133
Q

Management of empyema

A

Small bore chest drain
FRequent sterile salin flushes
Iv antibiotics
DVT prophylaxis

Fibrinolytics - streptokinase, DNA ase and TPA (alteplase)

134
Q

Pathological changes associated with COPD

A

Inflammatory changes initiated by exposure to noxious particles or gases underlies most of the pathological lesions

  • larger airways > 4mm in diameter
  • hypersecretion of mucus
  • hyperplasia of mucus glands in larger airways
  • chronic inflammatory infiltrate - T lymphocytes (CD8), macrophages, neutrophils
  • scarring and thickening of airways

Small airways disease
• early process in the development of COPD
• airways 2 - 3 mm in diameter, “ bronchiolitis”
• goblet cell hyperplasia
• narrowing of the bronchioles due to mucus plugging, inflammation and fibrosis

135
Q

Define an exacerbation of COPD

A

An exacerbation is a sustained worsening of the patient’s symptoms from their usual stable state which is beyond normal day-to-day variations, and is acute in onset. Commonly reported symptoms are worsening breathlessness, cough, increased sputum production and change in sputum colour. The change in these symptoms often necessitates a change in medication.

136
Q

Management of exacerbation of COPD in hospital

A

Assess severity: Symptoms, ABG, CXR
Controlled oxygen therapy: 24 -28 % oxygen, aim to maintain SpO2 88 – 92 %; repeat ABGs at 1 hour
Bronchodilators: nebulised salbutamol 2.5 – 5 mg and ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg qds (and PRN)
consider IV aminophylline if not improving
Corticosteroids: prednisolone 30 – 40 mg od
Antibiotics: if signs of bacterial infection (purulent sputum, increased sputum volume, WCC, CRP
Non-invasive ventilation (NIV): for acidotic type II respiratory failure
Other: consider DVT prophylaxis (LMWH), monitor fluid balance and nutrition, manage co-morbidities

137
Q

Name the clinical signs and CXR changes associated with pleural effusion (cbl)

A

Clinical signs :
• decreased breath sounds, stony dull to percussion, decreased tactile or vocal fremitus

CXR appearance:
• need > 300 ml of fluid to be present to see on CXR
• uniformly white appearance
• blunting of the costophrenic and cardiophrenic angles.
• A meniscus at the upper edge

138
Q

What are the 2 main categories of pleural effusion? (cbl)

A

Exudate – fluid protein usually > 30 g/l – e.g. in pneumonia, maliganancy, TB

Transudate – fluid protein < 30 g/l (usually < 20 g/l) – heart failure, liver failure, nephrotic syndrome

139
Q

What scale is used to assess the severity (level of breathlessness) of COPD

A

MRC Dyspnoea Scale

140
Q

Define respiratory failure

A

Define respiratory failure as PaO2< 8 kPa on room air (21% inspired oxygen)

141
Q

How would you assess if long-term oxygen therapy is appropriate for him at present? - a man with COPD exacerbation

A

In (COPD) patients who have:
PaO2< 7.3 kPa when stable (Patients ABGs on Powerpoint – too good for LTOT)
OR PaO2 7.3 – 8 kPa
AND any of secondary polycythaemia , nocturnal hypoxaemia ,
peripheral oedema, pulmonary hypertension
and NON-SMOKERS FOR > 3 MONTHS

142
Q

Define asthma

A

A chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and cough, particularly at night and/or early morning.
These symptoms are usually associated with widespread but variable bronchoconstriction and airflow limitation that is at least partly reversible, either spontaneously or with treatment.

143
Q

Key features of asthma

A
  • increased airways hyper-responsiveness to a variety of stimuli resulting in episodic bronchoconstricton
  • inflammation of the bronchial walls
  • increased mucus secretion
144
Q

Causes and triggers of asthma

A

Atopic Asthma (Extrinsic asthma) – usually starts in childhood
Atopic individuals - raised total serum IgE and the presence of specific IgE against common aeroallergens, or positive skin tests to common aeroallergens.
Non-atopic (intrinsic asthma) – often starts in middle age – possible triggers include respiratory viruses, air pollutants
Environmental factors - “hygiene hypothesis” in early childhood – growing up in a relatively “cleaner” environment predisposes to the development of allergy / Th2 responses. Bacterial components direct the immune system to Th1 responses.
Viral infections - rhinovirus, RSV
Drugs - NSAIDs, beta blockers
Genetic factors - IL-4/IL-13 pathways, ADAM 33, others

145
Q

Allergen induced asthma

A
Immediate Asthma (early reaction)
•	starts within minutes, maximal at 15 - 20minutes, subsides by 1 hour
•	bronchoconstriction triggered by direct stimulation of subepithelial vagal receptors, increased mucus production, vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability

Late-Phase Reactions
• follows immediate reaction, more sustained attack of airflow limitation that may respond less well to bronchodilators
• inflammation with recruitment of, eosinophils, neutrophils and lymphocytes

146
Q

Name three cell types and three inflammatory mediators involved in airway inflammation in asthma.

A

Inflammatory Cells Seen

o Activated T helper (Th2) lymphocytes produce IL-3, IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 which maintain the allergic phenotype
(IL-4 stimulates IgE production, IL-5 - activates eosinophils, IL-13 stimulates mucus secretion and promotes IgE production)
o Eosinophils - in bronchial walls and secretions of asthmatics, attracted to airways by IL-3, IL-5, GMCSF and chemokines (eotaxin, RANTES), release mediators such as LTC4 when activated
o Mast cells - increased in mucous glands, smooth muscle and epithelium, produce histamine, PGD2, cysteinyl leukotrienes, tryptase
o Dendritic cells – present allergens to T lymphocytes

Mediators in the (late) acute asthma response:

Leukotrienes: LT C4, D4, E4 - bronchoconstriciton, increase vascular permeability, increase mucus secretion
Acetylcholine: - released from intrapulmonary nerves - directly stimulates muscarinic receptors on airway smooth muscle
Histamine: - bronchoconstrictor
Prostaglandin PGD2 - bronchoconstriction and vasodilation
Others - Platelet-activating factor, IL-1, TNF, IL-6, chemokines, neuropeptdides (eotaxin), nitric oxide

147
Q

Pathological features in asthma

A
  • Increased Airway Inflammatory cells
  • Plasma exudation
  • Oedema
  • Smooth Muscle hypertrophy
  • Mucus plugging
  • Shedding of epithelium
148
Q

Immediate Tx for exacerbation of asthma

A

¥ Oxygen 40-60% (maintain SpO2 94 - 98%)
¥ Salbutamol 5mg or terbutaline 10mg via an oxygen-driven nebuliser
¥ Ipraptropium bromide 0.5mg via an oxygen-driven nebuliser
¥ Prednisolone tablets 40-50mg or IV hydrocortisone 100mg or both if very ill
¥ No sedatives of any kind
¥ Chest radiograph only if pneumothorax or consolidation are suspected

IF NOT IMPROVING AFTER 15 - 30 MINUTES (OR IF LIFE THREATENING FEATURES ARE PRESENT):
¥ Discuss with senior clinician and ICU team
¥ Consider giving infusion of IV magnesium sulphate 1.2-2g infusion over 20 minutes and then either IV aminophylline or IV salbutamol (or terbutaline)
¥ Consider transfer to ITU for mechanical ventilation if does not improve

SUBSEQUENT MANAGEMENT
¥ IF PATIENT IS IMPROVING continue:
¥ 40-60% oxygen
¥ Prednisolone 40-50mg daily (should continue for at least 5 days or until recovery)
¥ Nebulised ß2 agonist and ipratropium 4-6 hourly

149
Q

Investigations for asthma

A
  • Serial Peak Expiratory Flow measurements - look for diurnal variation
  • Spirometry – have airflow obstruction, > 400 ml improvement in FEV1 following bronchodilator
  • Metacholine or histamine bronchial provocation test - look for a drop of 20 % in FEV1 from baseline
  • Exhaled nitric oxide - a marker of airway inflammation (raised level > 25 ppb)
  • CXR - usually normal - ? pneumothorax in acute asthma, or infiltrates in ABPA
  • Skin prick tests or specific IgE levels - should be done - common allergens
  • Blood and sputum tests - may have raised blood eosinophils, often have raise sputum eosinophils but not routinely done
150
Q

Stepwise approach to asthma management (cbl)

A

Step 1: occasional relief bronchodilator: Inhaled short-acting beta2 agonist as required (up to once daily)
Step 2: regular inhaled preventer therapy - inhaled corticosteroid
Step 3: inhaled corticosteroid + long-acting inhaled beta2 agonist
If long-acting beta2 agonist stopped (not working, not tolerated), add one of
Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Modified-release oral theophylline
Modified-release oral beta2 agonist; child under 12 years not recommended
Step 4: high-dose inhaled corticosteroid + regular bronchodilators e.g. nebulised therapy, anti-muscarinics
Step 5: regular corticosteroid tablets

If still not controlled, then other possible therapies Anti-IgE therapy (Omalizumab), anti-IL-5 (Mepolizumab), anti-TNF treatments (Etanercept) (and rarely methotrexate, ciclosporin) – considered at specialist asthma clinics

151
Q

Definition of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (cbl)

A

• a specific form of chronic fibrosing interstitial pneumonia of unknown aetiology
• limited to the lung
• histopathological appearance of usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) on surgical lung biopsy
• known causes of ILD such as drugs, environmental exposure and connective tissue disease have been excluded
• abnormal lung function tests with evidence of restriction and/or impaired gas exchange
characteristics abnormalities on CXR or HRCT chest (bibasal reticular abnormalities with minimal or no ground glass opacities on HRCT)

152
Q

Key clinical features of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (cbl)

A
  • Age of onset > 50,
  • male > female
  • Progressive breathlessness, productive cough, cyanosis
  • Respiratory failure, cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension
  • Fine bilateral end-inspiratory crackles
  • Finger clubbing (2/3)
  • usually a h/o cigarette smoking
153
Q

Drug induced ILD - what drugs cause it

A

Antibiotics - Nitrofurantoin
Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs - Methotrexate, Sulphasalazine, gold, penicillamine, lefluonamide, etanercept
Cardiovascular agents - Amiodarone, ACE-inhibitors, statins
Chemotherapeutic agents - Bleomycin, cyclophosphamide
Illicit drugs - Heroin, methadone, talc
Miscellaneous - Oxygen, radiation, aspirin, interferons

154
Q

IDF - you request a Ct chest. What blood tests and further investigations would you ask for?

A

Investigations: (Patients results in brackets)
Routine Blood Tests

FBC (normal) ESR (30 mm in first hour, raised)
U+E, LFTs, Calcium (normal) CRP (normal)

Immunology Discuss predisposing conditions

  • Rheumatoid factor 25 kU/l (normal < 15) – likely non-specific inflammatory response
  • ANA screen (negative)
  • ANCA screen ( (negative)
  • Avian precipitans and Aspergillus precipitians (negative)
  • Serum Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) level (sarcoid)
  • Serum immunogobulins (raised in active sarcoid)

As condition progresses or if felt to have evidence of respiratory failure or cor pulmonale at presentation. (ABGs and walk test on Powerpoint)
Arterial blood gases

Six minute walk test/ambulatory oxygen assessment - to assess if desaturation on exertion.

Echocardiogram - to look for the development of pulmonary hypertension

155
Q

Radiological features that support a diagnosis of IPF (cbl)

A

Radiology - changes predominantly at lung bases CXR and HRCT on Powerpoint, patient + other example
CXR - ground glass changes*→ irregular reticulonodular shadowing → honeycombing
High resolution CT Chest
- subpleural reticular abnormalities
- honeycombing - thick-walled cysts 0.5 - 2 cm in diameter in respiratory and terminal bronchioles
- traction bronchiectasis

156
Q

Key histological features of UIP (usual interstitial pneumonia)

A
  • Dense interstitial fibrosis predominantly in the subpleural region
  • Destruction of the normal lung architecture and with cystically dilated air spaces and intervening fibrous tissue
  • Inflammatory infiltrate, mainly of lymphocytes, plasma cells and prominent intra-alveolar macrophages
  • a few fibroblastic foci
  • Overall appearances in keeping with usual interstitial pneumonia
157
Q

Macroscopical features of UIP (IPF?)

A
  • pleural surfaces of the lung are “cobblestoned”
  • fibrotic areas of lung - firm rubbery and white
  • disease mainly basal and subpleural, with thickening of the interlobular septae
158
Q

Histology of IPF

A
  • patchy interstitial fibrosis, varies in intensity and age (temporal heterogeneity)
  • fibroblastic foci in early fibrosis - areas of fibroblastic/myofibrobalastic proliferation - become less cellular as disease progresses and collagen deposited
159
Q

Pathogenesi of IPF (cbl)

A

• “repeated cycles” of epithelial activation/injury by some unidentified agent
- abnormal activation of epithelial cells lead to a dysregulated repair process

  • Abnormal epithelial repair at site of injury/inflammation leads to the formation of the fibroblastic foci
  • inflammatory pathways also promote fibrosis
160
Q

Cell types involved in pulmonary fibrosis

A

• damaged epithelial cells
- activated to release growth factors - TGFβ1 one of most important

• fibroblasts/myofibroblasts
- myofibroblasts secrete excessive amounts of extracellular matrix proteins, mainly collagens

• type 1 pneumocytes are reduced

  • injured cells produce TGFβ1 which promotes the transformation of fibroblasts to myofibroblasts
  • fail to develop from type 2 pneumocytes add to the deveopment of dysfunctional alveolar epithelium
  • reduced levels of calveolin 1, an anti-fibrotic molecule produced by these cells

• eosinophils, mast cells, macrophages and lymphocytes
- release cytokines such as IL-4, IL-1, TNFα and IFNγ

  • No genetic factors consistently associated with sporadic cases of IPF
  • MUC5B gene polymorphisms is associated with familial cases of IPF
161
Q

Treatment for IPF (UIP)

A

Pirfenidone
• approved for use in IPF (patients with FVC 50 - 80 % predicted)
• antifibrotic and anti-inflammatory effects; slows lung function decline
• mechanism of action unclear but likely to suppress fibroblast proliferation, so reducing the production of fibrosis-associated proteins and cytokines

Nintedanib
• intracellular inhibitor of multiple tyrosine kinases
• slows lung function decline in recent trial.

Steroids and immunosuppressants are not routinely recommended for treatment of IPF
• Steroids not effective in most cases
• Azathioprine may worsen prognosis when used with prednisolone
No longer advised to give the “triple therapy”of steroids+azathioprine+N-acetylcysteine
Trial of steroids may be considered if there is felt to be a possibility of an inflammatory component in some cases e.g. younger women with a possible underlying connective tissue disease.

N-acetyl cysteine
• does not improve survival or slow lung function decline (King TE Jr et al, NEJM 2014; 370:2093)
• is a mucolytic, so might be tried if a patient has cough or sputum, as has little toxicity

For many patients, espcially if over 80 years oldtherapy for IPF is essentially aimed at symptom control
Long term oxygen therapy
Diuretics for fluid retention if develop cor-pulmonale
Antibiotics to treat infection
Lung transplantation in younger patients (age < 65)

162
Q

Prognosis of IPF

A

Outcome - Median survival 3 -5 years from time of diagnosis

Rate of progression varies - generally have a steady, progressive decline but may also have sudden steps of decline after exacerbations/infections
Most patients (around 75%) will die of respiratory illness. Approximately 1in 10 patients will develop lung cancer.
163
Q

Which symptoms and signs should alert you to a possible diagnosis of lung cancer (cbl)

A

Symptoms Suspicious of Lung Cancer

¥ Cough - that doesn’t go away or a long standing cough gets worse
¥ Recurrent infections
¥ Breathlessness – lobar/lung collapse (co-existing COPD)
¥ Haemoptysis
¥ Unexplained weight loss
• Chest and/or shoulder pains
• Hoarse voice

Clinical Signs which may be associated with Lung Cancer

Finger clubbing
Signs of lobar collapse or a pleural effusion
From metastases - hepatomegaly, cervical lymphadenopathy, bony tenderness
Cahexia

Horner’s syndrome (Pancoast tumour)
Evidence of superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) or spinal cord compression (SCC)
Cushingoid

164
Q

Main RxF for developing lung cancer

A

Smoking in 85%

Passive smoking, occupational asbestos, silica and nickel exposure, pulmonary fibrosis

165
Q

Most common investigations for suspected lung cancer

A

CXR
• Routine bloods – FBC, U+E, LFTs, serum calcium, CRP
• CT chest and upper abdomen – look for lymph nodes, evidence of liver or adrenal metastases
• Bronchoscopy – will detect more central lesions

CXR Changes in Lung Cancer
• Mass lesion
• Pleural effusion
• Lobar or lung collapse
• Slowly resolving consolidation
• Mediastinal widening or hilar lymph nodes
• Normal

Other techniques
• CT / Positron emission tomography (CT-PET) - combined imaging to look for metastases
• Endobronchial ultrasound – to visualize and guide needle biopsy of mediastinal lymph nodes
• Ultra-sound guided aspiration of supraclavicular lymph nodes
• VATS (video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery) – to diagnose and treat pleural effusions

Lung function tests – need full PFTs if considering surgery (for surgery generally need an FEV1 > 1.5 litres) Patient has normal lung function
ECG

166
Q

Classify lung cancer into either small cell or non-small cell

A

Non Small Cell Carcinoma (NSCLC) Subtypes

  • Squamous cell (40-60%) - closely linked to smoking history, keratinization and/or intercellular bridges on histology, central airways, high frequency of p53 mutations
  • Adenocarcinoma (10 -20%) - glandular differentiation or mucin production, most common form in women and non-smokers, more peripherally located, TTF-1 positive, if EGFR mutations present may benefit from treatment with EGFR inhibitors
  • Large cell (5-15%) - undifferentiated epithelial tumour

Small cell

167
Q

Staging of non-small cell carcinoma

A

Non Small Cell Carcinoma (NSCLC) Subtypes

  • Squamous cell (40-60%) - closely linked to smoking history, keratinization and/or intercellular bridges on histology, central airways, high frequency of p53 mutations
  • Adenocarcinoma (10 -20%) - glandular differentiation or mucin production, most common form in women and non-smokers, more peripherally located, TTF-1 positive, if EGFR mutations present may benefit from treatment with EGFR inhibitors
  • Large cell (5-15%) - undifferentiated epithelial tumour
168
Q

Non-small cell carcinoma Tx

A

Surgery - early stages (usually Stage I or II)

Radiotherapy –
• Curative intent (radical radiotherapy) in some with early stages if not thought to be fit for surgery
o Side effects – radiation pneumonitis in 10 – 15 % (acute infiltrate < 3 months after treatment), radiation fibrosis around one year after

• For symptom control (palliative radiotherapy) – good for bone and chest wall pain, haemoptysis, occluded bronchi, SVCO

Chemotherapy –
• Platinum-based chemotherapy (cisplatin/carbplatin) in combination with paclitaxel or gemcitibine
• Can be used to down-stage tumours for surgery or to palliate symptom

Genetic testing in Adenocarcinoma of Lung

Adenocarcinomas are now tested for genetic mutations, and if positive, specific treatments may be offered:
EGFR mutations – erlotinib
ALK mutations – crizotinib
PD-L1 mutations – immunotherapy e.g. Nivolumab

169
Q

Histology of small cell carcinoma - + Tx

A

• small epithelial cells, scanty cytoplasm, ill-defined cell borders, finely granular nuclear chromatin (salt and pepper pattern), high mitotic count

Staged as Limited or Extensive disease

Limited disease – confined to one hemithorax and the ipsilateral supraclavicular fossa (30%)
Extensive disease – all other patients (70%)

Without treatment: survival 2-3 months in limited disease, 4 weeks in extensive disease

With treatment:
Limited disease survival 15 – 20 months, 10 -13 % 5 year survival
Extensive disease – 8 -13 months median survival, 1-2% survive 5 years

Other Treatments for both types of lung cancer

• Endobronchial treatments – laser, stents to deal with tumour obstructing large airways
Palliative care – opiates to treat pain and breathlessness

170
Q

Common sites of metastatic lung cancer

A
  • Lymph nodes – mediastinal (causing superior vena caval obstruction),cervical, axillary
  • Pleural effusion
  • Liver
  • Bone - bone pain, may cause spinal cord compression
  • Brain
  • Adrenals
171
Q

Which emergency condition associated with lung cancer should be excluded?

A

Superior vena cava obstruction – due mediastinal nodes compressing SVC
• Symptoms - breathless, dysphagia, stridor, swollen oedematous face and right arm
• Signs – venous congestion in the neck, dilated veins in the arm
• Treatment – high dose steroids, vascular stents, anti-coagulation, radiotherapy or chemotherapy

Spinal cord compression
• Symptoms – leg weakness and numbness, reduce bladder and bowel control
• Signs – upper motor neurone signs in legs, sensory level
• Treatment – high dose steroids, urgent oncology input (radiotherapy) and/or neurosurgical input