Wk1 - Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Mendelian =

A

to do with a single gene

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2
Q

Typical features of autosomal dominant features

A

Both males and females are affected in roughly equal numbers
Persons are affected in each generation
Males can transfer the condition to males and females and vice versa
Unaffected people do not transfer the condition
Shows vertical pattern - all generations affected

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3
Q

Examples of autosomal dominant inheritacne

A

Achondroplasia - short stature, short limbs (mutation is in FGFR3 gene)
Hypercholesterolaemia - due to a single mutant gene on chromosome 19
NF1
Inherited breast or colon cancer
ADPKD (autosomal dominant policystic kidney disease)

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4
Q

Autosomal recessive inheritance - features

A

suggests both parents are most likely carriers (more likely than a random mutation) - as requires both allels to show clinical appearance
25% chance that the individual will inherit the faulty copy from father/mother and thus be affected
Horizontal inheritance pattern i.e. siblings affected
Both females and males may be affected
May be consanguity (parents may be related) in family

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5
Q

Examples of autosomal recessive inheritance

A
Sickle cell anaemia
Cystic fibrosis
PKU - phenylketonuria
SMA - spinal muscular atrophy
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (congenital adrenal hypoplasia is x-linked recessive)
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6
Q

What is variable expressivity?

- Incomplete and complete penetrance

A

This is when family members express different severities of a disease caused by the same gene. This is due to ‘modifier genes’ which have different affects on the phenotype
Variable expression is to do with phenotype and can occur due to environmental factors or due to modifier genes.
Incomplete penetrance - when the individual fails to express the disease, even though they carry the allele 9skips a generation in terms of phenotype)
Complete penetrance - the phenotype is fully expressed by the mutated genotype
Achondroplasia is complete penetrance

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7
Q

Features of x-linked recessive

A

Knights move pattern, No male to male transmission, mostly or only males affected
Females are carriers but are not affected:
Occasionally are ‘manifesting carriers’ - due to ‘skewed X-inactivation’ - this is when one of the X chromosomes of females get turned off very early in development (before there are 100 cells), this happens randomly.
When it is skewed, the inactivation of one X chromosome is favoured over the other, leading to an uneven number of cells with each chromosome inactivated
Any affected females are more mildly affected than males

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8
Q

Examples of X-linked recessive inheritacne

A

Duchenne and Becker’s muscular dystrophy
Red-green colour blindness
Haemophilia A and B

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9
Q

Features of X-linked dominant inheritance

A

Both males and females are usually affected, however the female heterozygote is more variably affected because of X inactivation
F:M = 2:1 (females have 2 X chromosomes, males only have 1)
Pattern is like AD but no male:male transmission

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10
Q

Examples of X-linked dominant inheritance

A
Vitamin-D resistant rickets
Incontinentia pigmneti (male lethality)
Rett syndrome (male lethality)
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11
Q

Name types of atypical mendelian inheritance

What is gonadal mosaicism?

A

Genetic anticipation
Pseudo-dominant inheritance
mitochondrial inheritance

A new mutation in either sperm/egg cell is known as ‘gonadal mosaicism’.

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12
Q

Describe genetic anticipation

A

increasing severity and earlier age of onset in successive generations e.g. Huntington disease, Fragile X syndrome, Myotonic dystrophy

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13
Q

Describe pseudo-dominant inheritance

A

Very unusual inheritance pattern. It normally appears like AD (vertical) but actually it is AR condition e.g.
Gilberts syndrome - due to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Carrier frequency is approx 50%
(unlikely to come up in an exam)

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14
Q

Describe mitochondrial inheritance

A

Mitochondria also have DNA (which is circular and much smaller) but it is a much smaller genome
It has 37 genes and no introns
Inherited only from the mother but to variable extents (mitochondria in the tail of the sperm don’t enter the egg)
Syndromes often affect muscle, brain and eye.
Threshold effect - in every mitochondrial disease, there is a threshold balance between normal/mutated copies you must reach before you get the disease.

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15
Q

What capabilities must be acquired for a cell to develop into a cancer?

A

Proliferative signalling
Avoidance of apoptosis (e.g. loss of p53)
Bypassing replicated senescence (where cells will stop dividing after they’ve divided a certain number of times) (e.g. inactivation of p53/RB signalling)
Insensitivity to anti-growth signalling e.g. by TGF-beta pathways

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16
Q

Somatic vs germline (inherited) mutations

A

Mutations that occur in a somatic cells is often in a sporadic form that occurs in a single cell in a developing somatic tissue. This cell is a progenitor of this specific population, and thus this mutation cannot be passed down to offspring
Somatic mutations are frequently caused by environmental factors, such as exposure to ultraviolet radiation or to certain chemicals

Germline mutations will be found in every cell descended from the zygote to which that mutant gamete contributed. If an adult is successfully produced, every on of its cells will contain the mutation

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17
Q

Proto-oncogenes

A

These are genes that are expressed in normal cells. They code for oncoproteins, which positively regulate cell proliferation and differentiation (growth factors, transcription factors andn receptor molecules). In healthy cells, the transcription of these genes is tightly controlled. Inappropriate expression of oncoproteins leads to abnormal cell growth and survival. Normally functioning proto-ocogenes can be activated into cancer-causing oncogenes in 2 ways:
- A mutation can produce an oncoprotein that is functionally altered and abnormally active. For example, intracellular signalling is affected by the hyperactive mutant raw protein.
- A normal oncoprotein can be produced in abnormally large quantities because of enhanced gene amplification or enhanced transcription
When they are activated, they are known as oncogenes, and usually they gain a function, instead of losing a function.

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18
Q

Tumour supressor genes

A

TSGs encode for proteins that prevent or suppress the growth of tumours. They usually work at the checkpoints in the cell cycle, keeping the cell under arrest or suppressed until it is needed to replicate. Inactivation of TSGs results in increased susceptibility to tumour formation. Loss of function of TSGs or their proteins products can result in uncontrolled cell growth.

- Normally inhibit progression through the cell cycle
- Some promote apoptosis
- Some act as stability genes (DNA - repair type genes)
- Mutations cause 'loss of function' and usually require loss of wt allele
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19
Q

Examples of tumours suppressor genes (TSGs)

A

p53 - The p53 gene is known as the ‘guardian of the genome’ and it is mutated and functionally altered in over 50% of all human tumours. P53 can recognise damaged DNA and responds either through cell-cycle growth arrest at the G1 check point or through the initiation of apoptosis

Retinobastoma (Rb) - is a rare malignnat tumour of the retina. In familial cases (bilateral), a germline mutation in the RB1 gene is present, meaning that only one further somatic mutation is required for tumour formation. Other cases of retinobastoma are unilateral and sporadic, needing 2 somatic mutations on an intially fully functioning RB1 gene. This requirement for separate mutations in both alleles of a TSG has been termed Knudson’s ‘two-hit’ hypothesis of oncogenesis

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20
Q

Key difference between TSGs and proto-oncogenes

A

Mutations in one allele of the proto-oncogene is enough to cause cancer
However TSGs require 2 mutations (one in each allele) to have an effect. This is described as Knudson’s “two-hit hypothesis”
○ Both alleles that code for a protein must be mutated in order for the cancer to develop

Mutation in TSG results in ‘loss of function’
Mutation in Proto-oncogene results in ‘gain of function’

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21
Q

Stability genes

A

A type of TSG
Act to minimise genetic alterations. When activated, mutation in other genes become more common: oncogenes and TSGs are particularly triggered
Account for commonest hereditary cancer predisposition syndromes (e.g. familial breast cancer and colon cancer)

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22
Q

Cancer types

A

Sporadic - common (90-95%); late onset; single primary tumour
Familial - uncommon (5-10%)
Early onset
Often multi primaries

Most of the more common cancer predisposition syndromes are inherited in autosomal dominant fashion.
Most are due to the inheritance of an altered TSG
- Involve subsequent inactivation of the wild-type allele
- Two hits - Knudson’s hypothesis
○ E.g. deletion of one part of a chromosome DNA methylation (e.g. switching off transcription without changing its sequences)

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23
Q

What are the mutations in breast cancer genes

A
BRCA1 gene (chrom. 17)
BRCA2 gene (chrom. 13)

Male breast cancer = BRCA2 gene

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24
Q

Function of BRCA1 and BRCA2 proteins

A

DNA repair by homologous recombination of double-strand breaks

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25
Q

There are also modifier genes that contribute towards the overall risk of getting cancer but these have a very small effect. These are known as ‘low-penetrance loci’

A

At least 72 loci that confer an increased susceptibility to breast cancer
These are common (in >5% of population)
Each genetic variant generally confers a small effect e.g. a 10-20% increased risk

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26
Q

DNA testing for familial cancer

A
  • For affected individual who has at least 10% chance of possessing a mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2
    • Important to store DNA from blood of affected individuals who have family history of cancer (to permit future mutation analysis)
    • Next-generation sequencing - they can test for multiple genes at one time
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27
Q

Breast cancer: possible preventative measures

A
  • Examinations
    • Screening by mammography or MRI
    • Prophylactic bilateral mastectomies - reduce the breast cancer risk by at least 90%
    • Prophylactic oophorectomies (+ fallopian tubes)
    • Also reduces the breast cancer risk by 50-55% (when undertaken prior to menopause)
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28
Q

Ovarian cancer genes

A
  • BRCA1
    • BRCA2
    • Strongly associated with HNPCC. Involved genes: MHL1 or MHL2
    • Screening is difficult
    • Prophylactic surgery
    • Possible treatment: PARP inhibition (olaparib)
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29
Q

Genetics of colon cancer

A
  • Strong genetics basis in 5-10% of cases
    • Autosomal dominant inheritance
    • Mostly: hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer HNPCC (2-3% of CRC)
      ○ Usually only a few polyps (less than 10)
      ○ +/- uterus, stomach, ovary
      ○ Due to inheritance of mutation in MMR (mismatch repair) system genes (important for accurate DNA replication)
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30
Q

Screening for those at risk of HNPCC

A

MMR gene mutation present
males: 80-90% lifetime risk of colon cancer
Females: 40% risk of colon cancer, 50% risk of endometrial cancer & approx 4% risk of ovarian

Colonoscopies

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31
Q

Genes causing HNPCC

A
These are mismatch repair (MMR) genes:
MHL1 approx 50%
MSH2 approx 40%
MSH6 7-10%
PMS2 <5%
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32
Q

Familal adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A

Autosomal dominant
Characterised by the development of numerous intestinal plyps from early childhood and congenital hyperplasia of the retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE)
The intestinal polyps are adenomas and, if left untreated, almost all affected individuals will develop colorectal cancer by the age of 40 as a result of malignant transformation of the colorectal polyps
Also increased risk of upper GI cancer

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33
Q

MYH Polyposis

A

Autosomal recessive
15-2- polyps (milder form of FAP)
High risk of malignancy
2 year colonoscopy advised

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34
Q

Li Fraumeni syndrome

A

Rare autosomal dominant cancer predisposition syndrome:

  • breast cancer
  • brain tumours
  • sarcoma
  • leukaemia
  • adrenocortical carcinoma

Chance of cancer: 50% by age 30, 90% by age 50
Mutations in master control gene, TP53

35
Q

Genomics referes to…

A

all the DNA, including the chromosomes and the mitochondrial DNA.
Only 1.5% of the genome is coding for something (i.e. protein encoding)
Most of the genome is in the ‘inter-genic’ regions - doesn’t code for anything
Some of the genes are enhancers which are stretches of sequences which are little bit like volume control. If they are working well, they can increase how well another particular gene works. Some genes don’t work properly because a nearby enhancer doesn’t work properly

36
Q

aneuploidy =

A

abnormal number of chromosomes 9that is not a multiple of 23 e.g. trisomy 18)

37
Q

What are the 3 broad types of DNA detection methods

A

1) Detection of point mutations
2) DEtection of sub-microscropic duplications and deletions
3) Rapid detection of aneuploidies

38
Q

DNA analysis - describe options for detection of point mutations

A

DNA sequencing - can be done even if you don’t now where the point mutation is. 2 methods:
Sanger sequencing - used when looking at one gene at a time
‘Next-generation’ sequencing - can look at many or all genes at one time, can look at the whole exome or genome

Allele-specific (ARMS) PCR:
For specific known point mutations (only works if point mutation is present).
Have 2 primers, change the sequence of one of them and will only bind if a mutation is present; will not bind if the sequence in chromosome is normal.
Can be used for cystic fibrosis, looking for the 5 most common mutations.

39
Q

Nonsense mutation =

Missense mutation =

A

Nonsense = some mutations produce a stop codon, thus the protein stops being made right at that mutation
Missense mutation = a single point mutation in which a single nucleotide changes results in a codon that codes for an amino acid

40
Q

DNA analysis - describe the method of detection of sub-microscopic duplications and deletions

A

MLPA (PCR-based):
Looking for a deletion or duplication, looking at around 2000 nucleotides for example
Looking for deletions of one or more genes, but you need to know which genes you are looking for

Array comparative genomic hybridisation (aCGH):
Looking across all chromosomes all at once for a deletion or duplication.
Looks at the whole genome, therefore you don’t need to know which gene you are looking for

41
Q

DNA analysis - describe the method of rapid detection of aneuploidies

A

Aneuploidy = abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of 23 e.g. trisomy 18

Quantitive fluorescent PCR (QF-PCR) - rapid:
Results are much quicker than karyotyping with light microscopy which could take multiple weeks.
- Trisomy 21 - Downs syndrome
- Trisomy 18 - Edwards syndrome

42
Q

What are the chromosome-based analysis methods?

A

Karyotyping - staint he chromosomes and then look down the micrscope

FISH (Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridisation):
Using a fluorescent probe to look for particular parts of a chromosome - not as precise

43
Q

What is the genetic problem seen with Edwards syndrome?

A

Deletion of elastin gene at 7q

44
Q

What type of analysis is Illumina method?

A

Next generation

45
Q

DNA –> FASTQ file –> BAM file…

A

-

46
Q

Features of Huntingtons disease

A

An example of genetic anticipation, autosomal dominant inheritance.
Onset between age 30-50
Characterised by:
Progressive chorea (involuntary movements); Dementia and psychiatric symptoms (personality change etc), Often underweight (unable to swallow, and constant movement burning calories)

47
Q

Pathogenesis of HD

A

Huntingtons is caused by an unstable length mutation in the huntington (HTT) gene on chromosome 4.
Up to 35 repeats –> unaffected
36-39 –> incomplete penetrance
>39 (up to 120) –> affected - shows complete penetrance

CAG encodes Glutamine (Q). This chromosome has a poly-q tract (tract of glutamine).

The CAG repeat region is located within the coding sequence and encodes a polyglutamine tract.
The tracts expansion causes the production of insoluble HTT protein that aggregates –> this leads to neurotoxicity

48
Q

Diagnosis/management of HD

A

Direct DNA analysis
Testing unaffected relatives can and should be performed, or done in prenatal diagnosis.
Pre-symptomatic test (i.e. predictive) - only after full discussion of pros and cons and with full written consent.
No cure for the condition although research is still being carried out

49
Q

Features of myotonic dystrophy

A

AD with genetic anticipation
Symptoms - Progressive muscle weakness in early childhood, especially of the face, sternomastoids and distal limb muscles. Also myotonia (clenching hands) and cataracts (in posterior part of the lens).
Other symptoms: Ptosis, expressionless face (weakness of facial muscles)

50
Q

Genetic basis of myotonic dystrophy

A

Unstable length mutation of a CTG repeat within the 3’ untranslated region (i.e. the downstream end of the gene) of the DMPK gene and therefore one of the condition in which genetic anticipation is observed.
Affected if 50 or more repeats.
Higher chance of expansion when transmitted by females.

51
Q

Pathogenic mechanism pf myotonic dystrophy

A

Abnormal DMPK mRNA produced from the mutation
The resulting abnormal DMPK mRNA indirectly exerts a toxic intracellular effect on the splicing of other genes such as chloride channel 1 (CLCN1) which appears to be responsible for the myotonia.

Can often be associated with diabetes (at higher risk as insulin receptor is not working)

52
Q

FEatures of cystic fibrossi

A

AR
Carrier frequency of 1 in 20 - 1 in 25
Commonest life-limiting AR disease in Caucasians.
Recurrent lung infections - due to bacteria entering
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (85-90% cases)
(The thick secretions can block the pancreatic duct so pancreatic enzymes can’t get into gut to digest their food properly)

53
Q

Diagnosis of CF

A

Screening of newbrons by immunoreactive trypsin (IRT) level (this a protein in the bloodstream) - checking for elevated levels

Confirmed by DNA testing (DNA mutation testing) and/or sweat testing (for inc chloride conc) - due to the fault in chloride ion channel

54
Q

Pathogenic mechanism of CF

A

Deletion of phenylalanine at position 508 (F508del) prevents the CFTR protein from folding correctly and from inserting into the plasma membrane. Instead the protein molecules are destroyed by one of the cell’s protein degradation mechanisms.
F508del = an in-frame deletion of 3bp (one codon)

This causes defective chloride channel and an increased thickness of mucus/secretions in the lung and pancreatic secretions.

55
Q

Cascade screening for CF

A
  • Lab testing for the commonest CFTR mutations can currently detect around 90% of mutations
    • Identification of the 2 causative mutations in an affected individual allows the subsequent search for and identification of carriers in the family by cascade screening
    • Risk to further children 1 in 4
    • Identification of mutations permits prenatal diagnosis if desired and the subsequent identification of carrier relatives
56
Q

Features of NF1

- Signs and Symptoms

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1:
An AD syndrome whose principle manifestations involve tissues derived from the neural crest.
Neurofibroma is a tumour of the myelin sheath.

Condition generally causes multiple cafe au lait macules (mainly on trunk) and skin neurofibromas (small lumps, normally on trunk, appear in teens)
Affected individuals tend to have shorter stature and macrocephaly
Lisch nodules on the iris of the eye (brown coloured spots, often 2 or more).
Learning difficulties in ~30%

57
Q

Possible complications associated with NF1

A

Inc risk of:
Hypertension, scoliosis, pathological tibial fractures, significant tumours (e.g. phaechromocytomas, sarcoas, optic pathway gliomas).

Need annual follow-up - BP, peripheral vision, legs and spine.

58
Q

Diagnosis of NF1

A

Presence of >6 cafe au lait patches
Minimum of 2 skin neurofibromas
2 or more Lisch nodules

59
Q

Features of DMD

A

X linked recessive
Unaffected or mildly affected female carriers (due to x inactivation), more severely affected males and a lack of male-to-male transmission

Onset - 3 years
In wheelchair by 12 years

65% deletions (most out-of frame)

60
Q

What is the location of DMD gene?

A

Xp21

61
Q

Features of BMB

A

Onset - 11 years
Wheelchair much later or not at all

85% deletions (in-frame)

62
Q

Screening for muscular dystrophy

A

Serum creatine kinase (SCK) - a biochemical test:
CK leaks out of damaged muscle fibres into serum (into blood)
Boys with DMD will have massively increased levels of SCK from birth (i.e. before any other symptoms develop)

63
Q

Features of fragile X syndrome

A

X-linked recessive
Genetic anticipation (due to repeats in the 5’UTR region of FMR1 gene) - 5’ is at the upstream, that isnt in the coding sequence for a gene. When it is mutated, it switches off transcription (via methyaltion), but doesn’t change the protein sequence
- Most common inherited cause of significant learning disability
○ Not as common as down syndrome, although this is usually not inherited
- Full mutation = >200 repeats
○ Phenotype in males can be severe
○ Some carrier females also affected (but more mildly)
- The underlying genetic abnormality is located in the FMRI gene on the long arm of the chromosome
- Results from an unstable length mutation in the CGG trinucleotide repeat in the 5’ UTR of the FMRI gene.

64
Q

Chromosomal conditions include

A

Down syndrome - trisomy 21
Edwards syndrome - trisomy 18
Patau syndrome - trisomy 13

65
Q

Features of Edwards syndrome

A

Trisomy 18
Small chin, clenched hands with overlapping fingers, short sternum, prominent heels, flexed big toe, malformations of heart, kidney and other other organs. If survive first year, generally found to have profound learning difficulties

66
Q

Features of Patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13
Cleft lip and palate, micropthalmia (small eyes), abnormal ears, clenched fist, post-axial polydatyly (extra little finger), absent eyebrows, undescended or abnormal testes.
Congenital heart disease is usual
About 50% die within the first month
Like in Edward syndrome, approx only 10% survive 1st year, generally with profound LD

67
Q

Features of Downs syndrome

A

Trisomy 21
People with DS have learning difficulties; most will walk and talk, some can read and write, heart malformation in >40%, hypothyroidism in 30%

68
Q

Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis (PGD)

A

One or two cells removed for testing
Removed at 3 day mark when embryo contains 6-10 cells
This will have no effect on the development of that embryo.
Use of QF-PCR or just PCR, looking for a mutation present
FISH can also be used

Examples of diagnoses that can be made = Achondroplasia, Downs syndrome, Beta thalassaemia

69
Q

Pros and cons of pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)

A

Pros:
Permits implantation of unaffected embryos
Guarantee of unaffected child (unless sporadic mutation arises during gestation)

Cons:
Possible long wait for treatment and analysis
Not available to all women e.g. may be restricted by age or AMH levles
Difficulty with multiple pregnancy

70
Q

What are the 2 major prenatal screening programmes that have become widely available?

A

Foetal ultrasound scanning in the second trimester for structural malformations such as neural tube defects (NTDs)
Screening for Down syndrome by combined ultrasound and biochemical screening (CUBs) in the first trimester (at 12 week mark)

71
Q

Neonatal screening

A

Guthrie card - consists of a pinprick puncture in one heel of the newborn and soaking the blood into pre-printed collection cards known as Guthrie cards. Used to detect a wide variety of genetic conditions such as sickle cell disease and hypothyroidism.

Mass spectrometry can test for conditions such phenylketonuria and medium acyl coA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD).

Using immune-assay one can look for congenital hypothyroidism and CF

Analysis by HLP can detect conditions like sickle cell disease

72
Q

Postnatal screening

A

The purpose of adult screening is to allow reproductive choices to be made at an earlier stage, prior to conception.
Screening mainly focuses on people who are in high risk groups for a single gene disorder such as Tay-Sachs disease in the Jewish population and Beta Thalassaeia (form of anaemia) in people from Mediterranean and middle eastern descent

73
Q

What is gonadal mosaicism?

A

A type of genetic mosaicism where more than one set of genetic information is found specifically within the gamete cells. Can prove to cause problems further down in the family line if parents do not show it as can pass on the AD gene.

74
Q

Features of Velocardialfacial syndrome

A

Prominent nose
Up-slanting palpebral fissures
Deletion on chromosome 22

75
Q

Features of Rubinstein Taybi syndrome

A

Down-slanting palpebral fissures
Microcephaly
Broad thumbs and big toes
Deletion on 16p (short arm of chromosome 16)

76
Q

What types of genetic analysis tests may be introduced or expanded in the near future?

A

Extended mass spectrometry
Non-invasive prenatal diagnosis
Exome sequencing

77
Q

Pharmacogenetics is the study of….

A

of the genetically controlled variation in response to medication
Can affect pharmacokinetics

78
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

The way a drug is absorbed, metabolised and excreted

79
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

The physical effect of a drug e.g. receptor binding

80
Q

Possible future therapies for DMD

A

Exon skipping: convert DMD to BMD phenotype by altering splicing patterns to correct the reading time (with antisense oligonucleotides therapy - allows you to skip an exon)

In future - mutation correlation with e.g. CRISP-CAS9 system (CRISP is a guide RNA that finds the target sequence)

81
Q

On average how much genetic information do non-identical twins share?

A

50%

82
Q

List 4 phenotypic characteristics you would expect to see in a child with Downs syndrome

A

Epicanthal folds
Protruding tongue
Low-set ears
Single palmar crease

83
Q

Is Mary (who’s brother died from complications due to DS) at risk of having a baby with DS (3)

A

No. DS is a whole chromosome abnormality (trisomy 21 in this case). These mutations occur sporadically during the formation of a gamete from a parent. Therefore it is not an inheritable condition.

84
Q

What genetic test would you offer Mary to screen for DS during her pregnancy? And by what 2 procedures this may be carried out by.

A

QF-PCR

By amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling