WK 5- Tuberculosis and HIV Flashcards

1
Q

What causes tissue destruction in TB

A

results from “excessive” cellular immune response (macrophage-derived proteases)→ degrade collagens, elastin, proteoglycans, fibronectin, laminin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can immunosuppression cause reactivation of TB

A

Primary infection is usually by inhalation of micro-droplets containing M. tuberculosis→ when inhaled will move to the lungs and be engulfed by pulmonary macrophages→ resistant to macrophage killing so will create a granuloma→ this is what allows for latency (shields off infection) → granulomas can sit in lungs for decades, and when you are exposed to immunosuppressive factors the granulomas can change structure into necrotic granuloma→ granuloma breaks down and releases the MTB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the symptoms of TB

A

weight loss, fatigue, night sweats, cachexia, chest pain, fever, cough with sputum/blood stained sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 4 drugs used for the initial HRZE TB regimen

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Rifampin (RIF)
  • Pyrazinamide (PZA)
  • Ethambutol (EMB)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How often are the HRZE drugs given for

A
  • all four drugs are given for an extended period of time→ multiple agents are given daily for 2 months
  • continue to give isoniazid and rifampin for another 4 months to ensure TB is cleared
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drug of the 4 produces peripheral neurotoxicity and what medication is given along with HRZE to reduce this

A

Isoniazid-> give vitamin B6 to reduce toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the specific adverse reactions of Ethambutol (EMB)

A

Eye damage causes blurred/changed vision, including colour vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drugs cause hepatitis as a side effect (what symptoms appear as a result)

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Rifampin (RIF)
  • Pyrazinamide (PZA)
  • -> cause abdo pain, dark urine, fatigue, lack of appetite, nausea, vomiting, jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What specific drug causes peripheral neuropathy as a side effect

A

Isoniazid (INH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 2 side effects are specific to only Pyrazinamide (PZA)

A

Stomach upset (vomiting, abdo pain) and increased uric acid (gout, joint aches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Multi-drug resistant TB

A

-strains of TB are resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampin, the two most potent TB drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is XDR= extensively drug resistant tuberculosis

A

rare type of MDR TB that is resistant to isoniazid and rifampin, plus any fluoroquinolone and at least one of three injectable second-line drugs (i.e., amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin). Because XDR TB is resistant to the most potent TB drugs, patients are left with treatment options that are much less effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can contribute to/cause drug resistant TB

A

can occur when these drugs are misused or mismanaged. Examples include when patients do not complete their full course of treatment; when health-care providers prescribe the wrong treatment, the wrong dose, or length of time for taking the drugs; when the supply of drugs is not always available; or when the drugs are of poor quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can MDR/XDR be prevented

A

take all medications as prescribed and for the prescribed time, don’t miss doses, quickly diagnosing cases, avoid contact with known MDR or XDR patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who is the BCG vaccine not recommended for and why

A

not recommended for infants due to it being a live vaccine→ increased risk of complications
-not shown to be affective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the interaction between HIV and TB

A

ability for co-infection due to diminished immune system, co-infection makes tx more complicated due to resistance and multiple drug use (isoniazide prevention therapy)

17
Q

What are the 3 pillars of the global TB strategy and what do they involve

A

→ Integrated, patient-centred TB care and prevention: involves preventative treatment for high risk pt, treatment for all infected people including MDR, early diagnosis, systematic screening of contacts and at risk
→ Bold policies and supportive systems: political commitment with adequate resources for TB care and prevention, engagement of communities, social protection, poverty alleviation
→ Intensified research and innovation: research to optimise implementation and impact and promote innovations, discovery, development and rapid uptake of new tools

18
Q

What is PMTCT and how can it apply to HIV transmission

A

-prevention of mother to child transmission
→ can be prevented by giving the mother ART- if viral load is too high, mothers are advised not to breastfeed
-primary prevention of HIV is a key component of preventing HIV transmission→ prevent the mother getting HIV through regular screening, safe sex practice, not sharing needles etc

19
Q

What are the 3 methods by which HIV can be transmitted from mother to child

A
  1. Pregnancy - The chance of HIV being passed from mother-to-child is 15% to 45%
    without treatment. With treatment, the risk falls below 5%.
  2. Labor & Delivery – medically assisted delivery can help prevent vertical transmission during labour and delivery
  3. Breastfeeding – HIV +ve pregnant/ breastfeeding women should be treated with TDF, 3TC or FTC, EFV
20
Q

What are the 5 classes of drugs used to treat HIV

A
  • nucleoside/tide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • HIV-protease inhibitors
  • integrase inhibitors
  • entry / fusion inhibitors
21
Q

What is selective toxicity

A

-effective antimicrobial therapy relies on targeting pathogen-specific processes that do not occur in the host (ie. Targeting bacterial cell wall)

22
Q

Why is treatment for viral infections delayed slightly

A

most available antiviral drugs are effective only while the virus is replicating→ treatment is often delayed until the infection is well established

23
Q

How do nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) work

A

-once inside cell, is phosphorylated by host cell enzymes to 5’-trisphosphate derivatives and will act as a false substrate→ competes with the natural deoxynucleotides, and will get made into a non-functional nucleoside that will then get taken up into the DNA chain→ don’t have 3-hydroxyl group, meaning next nucleotide group cannot bind, resulting in chain termination

24
Q

What are the adverse effects of NRTI’s

A

DNA polymerase (makes DNA from RNA) is also inhibited→ cells naturally use this enzyme but at a lower affinity→ toxic to mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma→ cells are not able to repair self as well→ can cause redistribution of fat (lipoatrophy) and lactic acidosis

25
Q

How do Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) work

A
  • bind to and cause conformational change in enzyme (reverse transcriptase) catalytic site and prevent it to act on its substrate→ stops the ability to convert viral RNA to DNA→ reduces viral DNA synthesis
  • don’t require intracellular phosphorylation for activity
26
Q

How do HIV-protease inhibitors work

A

in HIV, mRNA transcribed from the provirus is translated into two biochemically inert polyproteins, which are then converted into active proteins by virus-specific protease
-these proteins are essential for HIV maturation and replication→ HIV protease inhibitors block this protease and results in the formation of immature viral particles and prevent immature virions from becoming mature, infectious viruses

27
Q

How do integrase inhibitors work

A

chromosomal integration only occurs in the viral cell→ after reverse transcriptase, a pre-integration complex is formed and can remain dormant (doesn’t occur in normal cells)→ integrase inhibitors prevent insertion of processed viral DNA into host DNA

28
Q

How do entry inhibitors (chemokine antagonists work)

A

-inhibits the chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5) on surface of immune cells→ HIV binds to the CD4 receptors, but is unable to bind to the CCR5 co-receptors, preventing fusion of the virus envelope with the cell membrane

29
Q

How do fusion inhibitors work

A
  • viral envelope expresses glycoprotein gp41 which is involved in fusion with CD4+ receptors on the host immune cells
  • enfuvirtide binds to gp41 and prevents initiation of fusion of the virus envelope with the cell membrane→ prevents HIV from gaining entry to the host immune cell
30
Q

What is HAART

A
  • typical HAART 3 or 4 drug combination would involves two NRTIs plus either a NNRTI or one or two protease inhibitors–> multiple drugs lowers chance of resistance occurring
  • need to take drugs daily to ensure that virus is unable to replicate-> requires life long compliance
31
Q

What are the adverse effects of HAART

A
  • Lipodystrophy→ noticeable, so can produce a stigma→ with NRTIs and HIV-PIs
  • peripheral lipoatrophy
  • central fat accumulation
  • insulin resistance, dyslipidaemia
  • Hyperglycaemia- with HIV-PIs
  • CV disease risk
  • Lactic acidaemia- with NRTIs
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Bone loss, rash
32
Q

What are some treatment issues facing HAART

A
  • consider factors affecting long term adherence to therapy
  • strategies to improve adherence→ eg pill containers, alarms, detailed information
  • address psychiatric / social issues
  • identify HIV-related illnesses that will require treatment
  • identify co-existing medical conditions and treatments that may influence the choice of therapy
  • drug interactions -many CYP450 effects
  • resistance testing
33
Q

What does ritonavir inhibit and why does this create an issue with treatment

A

potent inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes and has the potential to interact with many drugs

34
Q

What do Nevirapine and efavirenz induce

A

Induce CYP450 causing rapid metabolisation of other drugs, reducing their conc and activity

35
Q

What HRZE drug interacts with PPI’s and why does this create an issue

A

Atazanavir-> solubility decreases as the pH increases-> meaning it becomes less effective