Wills + probate Flashcards

1
Q

Valid will requires the testator to have:

A
  1. Capacity at the time the will was made
  2. Intended to make a will
  3. Executed the will in accordance with the formalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Capacity in executing a will

A

Must be at least 18 and have mental capacity (Person presumed to have mental capacity unless someone challenging the validity of a will proves the testator lacked capacity)

Mental capacity => testator must have understood, at the time of the execution of their will:

  1. The nature of the act (ie that they were making a will and its effects);
  2. the extent of their property; and
  3. The claims to which they ought to give effect

Time of execution (‘material time’) =
- Usually when will was executed/signed
- If eg testators does not have capacity at time of signing but did when giving instructions to will drafter, court will deem to have acted with capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Intention to execute a will (general)

A

Present if testator had:

  1. General intention to make a will; and
  2. A specific intention to make the particular will
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Intention to execute a will (rebutting presumption)

A

ie rebutting presumption testator had knowldge and approval

Challenger has burden of showing lack of proper intention

BUT presumption does not apply where:

  1. Testator is blind/illiterate, or will is signed on testator’s behalf (usual to incl a clause saying will was read to them); or
  2. There are suspicious circs (eg where will drafter substantially benefits from the will), gift will fail unless evidence of the testator’s knowledge and approval of the gift is offered by the person putting forward the will

Factors to consider:
- Whether will is short and easy to understand
- Whether testator was literate
- Surrounding facts (eg whether testator acts 2 people to witness it)
- Any suspicious circs surrounding the will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Intention to execute a will (gifts to sols)

A

Should refuse to act when client proposes to make a sig gift unless client seeks independent legal advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Intention to execute a will (duress)

A

ie will made as a consequence of force or fear

Admitted to probate only if a court pronounces that it is valid and issues a grant in solemn form
- Executor (or any person interested in the will) takes legal action to have it authenticated (ie ‘propounds’)
- All IPs will be parties to the claim
- If court pronounces will as valid, it will order the issue of a grant of probate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intention to execute a will (undue influence)

A

Ie something that overpowers the volition of the testator

Not presumed, but court will intervene if the testator surrendered to intolerable pressure

Court more inclined to find UI when the testator is physically or mentally weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Formalities to execute a will (general)

A

Will must be:

  1. In writing
  2. Signed by the testator (or some other person in the testator’s presence)
  3. Signed or acknowledged by the testator in the presence of 2 + witnesses present at the same time; and
  4. Signed by each witness in the presence of the testator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Formalities to execute a will (role of attestation clauses)

A

Attestation clauses often incl to confirm the above requirements re valid execution of will

Not incl => proponent of will must offer proof that formalities were followed (often by having one of the witnesses testify)

Special attestation clause needed for blind or illiterate testator (to evidence read to them, they understood and approved contents, and they signed/another signed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Formalities to execute a will (signature requirements)

A

Usually actual sig used but can be mark, following prev found to be valid:
- Intials
- Stamped sig
- Mark eg a cross
- Unfinished sig
- Sig in pencil
- Words ‘your loving mother’

Sig may appear anywhere on will (though usually at end)

Another may sign on testator’s behalf
- Provided they signed IN THEIR PRESENCE and at their direction
- May be one of witnesses but need not be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Formalities to execute a will (witness requirements)

A

No formal capacity requirements but must be capable of understanding the significance of being a witness to a sig

Do not need to see the contents or even know testator is signing a will

Blind person incapable as must be able to witness visible act

Mentally unsound person cannot be a witness, but later loss of mental capacity does not affect validity if competent at time

Illiterate person capable but must know testator is signing a doc

B (or their spouse) should not be a witness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Incorporating external doc into will

A

Will may identify another docs that becomes part of the will

Doc must exist at date of the will and be referred to in the will as so existing

Future intention to make a doc does NOT suffice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Alteration/amendments of wills

A

Time made key:

If it can be proved made BEFORE execution => valid (Eg through statements of witnesses to initials of T/witnesses adjacent to alteration, provided will reads naturally after the amendment)

Made after execution => must be made with proper formalities
- Can’t be proved made before => presumed to have been made after execution (unless it is filling in a blank space in a will form)
- Valid if signed and intialled by testator by amendment in presence of 2 witnesses
- Sol start by seeing if they can make out original words by ‘natural means’ (eg using magnifying glass)
- Original words apparent => may be admitted to probate rather than amendment
- Original words not apparent (‘obliterated’) => court will admit the will with a blank space where the words are obliterated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Role of codicils

A

Ie brief doc that adds to/amends/partially revokes an existing will

Note:
- Must make reference to the will
- Requirements for a valid will also apply
- Clause should be incl in the codicil confirming the unamended part of the will; and
- Codicil may remedy a gift which was void because the B witnessed the will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Revocation of wills (general)

A

May be revoked at any time by testator provided they have retained testamentary capacity

Can be by:

  1. Law (ie through marriage or divorce)
  2. Deliberate act of the testator (ie executing later will/codicil, destruction)
  3. Dependent relative revocation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Revocation of wills - by law

A
  1. By marriage or civil partnership
    - Revoked unless it appears from the will that, when it was made, the testator was expecting to marry a partic person and they intended that all or part of the will should not be revoked by that marriage
  2. Divorce, dissolution or nullity (NOT merely separation)
    - Will partly revoked (ie Law treats former spouse/civil partner as having died on the date of the divorce)
    => Gifts revoked and will not pass to them, but remainder of will remains valid
    - Appointed as executor/trustee => appt will be ineffective
    UNLESS contrary intention stated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Revocation of wills - deliberate act of the testator

A
  1. Executing a later will/codicil
    - BUT will impliedly revoke only to extent that it is inconsistent with/repeats the terms of earlier doc
    - For avoidance of doubt, usual for will to contain an express revocation clause
  2. Destruction
    - Requires:
    a) Act of destruction; AND
    - Writing cancelled/revoked/putting a line through it not enough
    - Only part of will destroyed => treated as that part only having been revoked (unless sufficiently substantial or vital part destroyed)
    - Destruction by someone other than testator => must be done in the presence of testator and at their direction

b) Intention to revoke
- Mental capacity the same as that required for the making of a will
- Will found mutilated at date of death => rebuttably presumed to have been done by testator with intention of revoking it
- Further rebuttable presumption that a last will known to have been in the testator’s possession, but which cannot be found at the date of death, has been destroyed by testator with intention of revoking it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Revocation of wills - dependent relative revocation

A

Occur when intention to revoke was dependent on future event (eg later execution of new will)

Event did not take place => original will may be valid (even if destroyed) if it can be reconstructed from a copy or draft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mutual wills

A

Ie wills made by 2 or more persons, usually with the same clauses and conferring reciprocal benefits, further to an agreement between them to make such wills and not to revoke them without the consent of the other

Contract between the parties that wills are to be irrevocable and will remain unaltered

Agreement creates constructive trust in favour of the Bs

=> if one testator dies and other changes will, a B harmed by the change in will may apply to the court for an order to the recipient of the changed gift to transfer it to the person who would have been the B under the original will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Date from which the will speaks

A

= date of death

Takes effect as if the will had been executed immediately before death

Unless contrary intention in the will

Can be superseded by use of words ‘now’ or ‘at present’

BUT if gift is of car, contrary intention presumed (ie car owned when will written)

Bs determined as at the date of the will’s execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Types of gift in a will

A

Legacy = gift of personalty (personal property) vs Devise = gift of realty (real estate)

  1. Specific legacy
    - Gift of specified part fo the estate that is clearly identified at the time of the will’s execution
    - Subject to doctrine of ademption (ie gift fails if testator no longer owns that item at date of death)
  2. General legacy
    - Does not identify a partic item
    - Doctrine of ademption does not apply
    => if no item in estate, B is entitled to require the executors to purchase such an item if they have sufficient funds
  3. Pecuniary legacy
    - Ie gift of cash
    - Usually general but can be demonstrative (eg paid from X amount owed to me by Y, or from Z account)
    - Account closed at date of date/no longer has sufficient funds to meet legacy => B can look to executors to meet any shortfall from other cash or assets in the estate
  4. Residuary legacy
    - Ie everything that is left in the deceased’s estate after above and expenses for administering the estate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Failure of gifts (general)

A

By:

  1. Ademption
  2. Lapse
  3. Gift to witness (Will fail if B of B’s spouse is a witness (will itself remains valid))
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Failure of gifts - ademption

A

Ie a specific gift will fail if it is no longer part of the testator’s estate/is subject to a binding contract for sale, or no longer meets description in the will

Change in substance of subject matter of a specific gift => will adeem

Change in name/form => will not adeem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Failure of gifts - lapse

A

Ie B has predeceased testator (BUT common practice to incl a substitutional gift in the will)
- Gift effective => will go to this B and will not lapse
- Not effective/not present => subject matter of gift will fall into the residue
- Residual gift lapses => falls into rules of intestacy

Will construed at date of execution (ie ‘eldest son’ is the one living at date will was made)

Gift to 2+ joint tenants will not lapse unless all the recipients die before the testator (ie ‘to A and B jointly’)
- Vs ‘in equal shares’ = words of severance so possible for individual share to lapse

Often conditional on survival of Bs
- For specified period of time, usually 28 or 30 days, after date of death of testator
- Gift fails if B fails to survive for the specified number of days

Simultaneous death
- Ie where impossible to determine who died first
- Law assumes young person survives the elder (law of commorientes)

Gift to deceased issue
- Ie testator’s child (/grandchildren) who die before the testator and leave living issue => living issue will receive the gift
- Incl children who are conceived but unborn
- Unless other intention will take effect ‘per stirpes’ (ie issue of deceased person will split the deceased person’s share) and if more than one in equal shares
- BUT does not apply to other Bs, ONLY issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gifts to children - class gifts

A

(incl legitimate, illegitimate, and adopted children, but not stepchildren)

Class gifts
= gift of property to be divided among Bs who fulfil a general description
- Problem as number of Bs in this class may not be known definitely until many years later (eg X amount to children of Y, cannot be known until Y also dies)

Class closing rules
- where gifts are contingent on something
- Close when any member of class satisfies the condition (eg reaches 25), so that the interest is now vested
- Class closes => no new members can be added to class, but anyone who is alive and within the class will share in the gift if they eventually satisfy the condtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intestacy - definition

A

= statutory method of distributing assets that are not disposed of by will

Apply when:
1. Deceased died with no will; or
2. Deceased’s will does not dispose of all of their property (partial intestacy) because the gift of all/part of residue fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens if someone dies intestate - general

A

PRs hold their estate on trust with power to sell

Must pay funeral, testamentary, and admin expenses, debts and other liabilities from cash and the proceeds of sale of assets

Residuary estate (ie what is left after above) then shared among those entitled according ot the statutory rulesO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Order of intestacy

A
  1. Spouse (with no issue) = whole estate
    - must survive the deceased by at least 28 days
  2. Spouse + issue
    - spouse takes:
    a)Personal chattels (other than money and other assets used for business purposes/held for investment purposes) absolutely
    b) £322k; and
    c) One half of the residue absolutely
    - D’s issue take other half of residue absolutely
    - BUT spouse can require PRs to give the spouse the couple’s matrimonial home in partial or total satisfaction of their interest (home worth more than their share => have to pay over the difference)

No spouse =>

  1. D’s children
  2. Parents (equally if both alive)
  3. Brothers and sisters of the whole blood on stat trusts
  4. Brothers and sisters if the half blood (on stat trusts)
  5. Grandparents (equally if more than one)
  6. Uncles and aunts of the whole blood on stat trust
  7. Uncles and aunts of the half blood on stat trusts
  8. The crown as ‘bona vacantia’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rules re intestacy order of entitlement

A

Earlier classes take to the exclusion of later classes

Class members take equally (if reach 18 or marry before that age)

Adopted children = taken as children of their adopted parents (and not their natural parents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Statutory trusts - intestacy order

A

Ie for all classes (other than parents and grandparents), a class member’s issue takes their parents share ‘per stirpes’ if the class member has predeceased (provided the issue attain 18 or marry earlier)

Potential Bs living at intestate’s death but subsequently die before attaining a vested interest
- => their issue take their deceased parent’s share on stat trusts
- Potential B dies without issues => estate administrated as if that B had never existed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Property passing outside the will/intestacy

A
  1. Property owned as beneficial JTs
    - Passes under survivorship
    - Does not apply for TiCs – share passes via the will/intestacy rules
    - may be subject to IHT
  2. Life assurance policies
    - Held on trust for, or assigned to, Bs
    - Or T may express policy to be for spouse and/or children
    => policy belongs to Bs and is payable directly to them (or trustees) on proof of death
    - Proceeds will not form part of D’s estate for inheritance tax purposes
  3. Pension scheme death benefits
  4. Nominated property
    - Ie in friendly societies, national savings bank, and national savings certificates directlto chosen Bs by way of statutory nomination in writing
  5. Life interests in trust property
    - Will pass according to the terms of the trust
    - May be subject to inheritance tax
  6. Gifts where donor has received a benefit
    - Inheritance tax concept
    - Ie D has given something away but retained some benefit in the gifted property (asset does not belong to D for succession purposes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Personal representatives - appointment

A

Executors (will) vs administrators (intestate)

Executor appointed by a will or codicial to administer the estate according to the will/law

Express provision should be incl in the will appointing named executor, or more than one
- Appoints only 1 => will should appoint a substitute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Personal representatives - persons who may be executors

A

Anyone (except minor/person who lacks mental capacity who will not be granted probate)

Spouses often appointed
- BUT if marriage is dissolved/annulled => appt will usually be defective (but contrary intention can be incl in the will)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Personal representatives - renunciation

A

Free to renounce their rights to a grant of probate PROVIDED THEY HAVE NOT ACCEPTED OFFICE

Accepts office (+ loses right to renounce) by (1) taking a grant of probate or (2) ‘intermeddling’ in the estate (ie doing something which shows an intention to accept office)

Formalities
- Renunciation must be in writing, signed by executor, and contain a statement that the person has not intermeddled
- Must be signed by a disinterested witness

Renunciation is all or nothing

Must be filed at probate registry (usually by someone else who is applying for a grant of probate)

Once renounced, cannot be reclaimed (unless court allows them to do so)

Does not affect trustee position => would have to also disclaim trusteeship if they wanted to not act as such

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Personal representatives - ‘power reserved’

A

Instead of renouncing

Means they will not be involved for now, but if circs change (eg another executor falls ill/dies) they can apply for a grant of probate at a later stage

No automatic substitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Grants of representation - definition

A

= court document authorising the deceased’s PRs to deal with the estate and to transfer assets to Bs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Grants of representation - where dealt

A

Courts with jurisdiction =

  1. Non-contentious => conducted in family division of high court (either Principal Registry in LDN or in more local district probate registries)
  2. Contentious => chancery division of HC (or CC if estate below £350k) is involved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Grants of representation - non-contentious probate rules (NCPR)- accessing funds pre-grant

A
  • Amounts up to £5k held in national savings bank accounts, national savings certs, premium savings bonds, or building societies => may poss obtain payment by producing just death certificate (at DISCRETION of institute concerned)
  • Payment can be made to the person appearing to be entitled to the grant or to be beneficially entitled to the relevant asset
  • Chattels/other assets can normally be sold without the PRS having to prove they are entitled to sell such items (just need production of death certificate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Types of grant - grant of probate

A

Ie when deceased person leaves a valid will

Can only be made to executors (usually expressly appointed by the will)

One executor is sufficient, cannot be more than 4 (though different parts of the estate can have different executors)

Notice of app for a grant of probate is given to any executor to whom power is being reserved

Effect =
1. Confirms executors authority to deal with the estate
2. Grant will usually need to be produced as evidence of the executor’s authority to act (eg to be able to legally sell property, access bank account, sell shares etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Types of grant - letters of administration with will annexed

A

Ie where will but problem with appointment of the executors

NCPR set out prescribed order for who may apply:
1. Trustee of residuary estate
2. Any other residuary B (vested interests preferred to contingent ones)
3. PRs of anyone at (2), other than a life tenant of the residue
4. Any other B or a creditor
5. PRs of anyone in (4) other than a life tenant

Persons of equal rank => court prefers interest of vested rather than contingent B

Anyone entitled to apply for a grant of probate can renounce - Right NOT lost by intermeddling in the estate

A person applying for letters must CLEAR OFF anyone else having a higher entitlement by confirming in theri application that such persons have renounced

If a minor child is a B, at least 2 administrators must be appointed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Types of grant - letters of administration

A

ie if D died intestate or all gifts in will fail

Only on issue of grant does estate vest in PR (in interim vests in public trustee)

Order of entitlement broadly follows intestacy order, ie: surviving spouse, children, parents, siblings etc

PRs of person in above list have same right to grant of letters as person named in list

If a minor child is a B, at least 2 administrators must be appointed

Grant issued to a mx of 4 administrators

Same rules for renouncing and clearing off

42
Q

Types of grant - grants ‘de bonis non’

A

= second grant made to allow the completion of the administration of D’s estate following death of sole/last PR (or when a prev grant is revoked)

Granted to person who would have been entitled had the original PR never taken the grant (ie same list as above)

BUT no second grant needed if one of several PRs has died or if a ‘chain of representation’ exists
- Chain of rep = a sole or last surviving executor dies and that executor’s executor takes a grant of probate

43
Q

PRs - role of minors

A

Cannot take a grant

BUT if one of several executors/potential administrators, a grant is made to the adult PRs with power being reserved to the minor in the case of a grant of probate

Minor only/last surviving PR => limited grant of probate of letters of admin is made to minor’s parent or guardian for use and benefit of the minor until age 18

As prev, if a B in intestate estate, at least 2 PRs must be appointed

44
Q

PRs - powers of the court

A

Court has discretion to make a grant to someone other than the person who is prima facie entitled under the NCPR

Eg if potential PR is bankrupt or in prison

Court can also remove an existing PR and appoint a substitute

45
Q

Information required by sols pre-grant/while advising on distribution

A

Full personal details of D, family, dependents, PRs and Bs

Details of assets and liabilities

Lifetime gifts in the 7 years prior to the death

Death certificate

Original will and any codicils

Identifying nature and extent of Bs’ interests

Asset and liability paperwork

Details of any insurances

Immediate financial needs of any family members; and

Details of funds that can be accessed without a grant

46
Q

Pre-grant tasks

A
  1. Registering the death (by sending death cert/letter certifying death) with banks and insurance companies, companies inw hich D owned shared, HMRC, D’s creditors
  2. Obtaining valuations of assets
  3. Considering validity of will and poss claims against the estate
    - Will should:
    a) Be last will of T
    b) Not be validly revoked
    c) Be executed in accordance with the stat formalities
    d) Contain an attestation clause with raises the presumption of ‘due execution’
  4. Notifying Bs of potential entitlements
  5. Placing early advertising for unknown Bs and creditors
    - Executors can do from date of death
    - Administrators can do from date of obtaining the grant
    - PRs unsure as to what notices should be given => should apply to the court for guidance
47
Q

Pre-grant procedure - funding IHT liability

A

If due => must be paid by PRs to obtain the grant

Can be funded by:
1. Banks/building societies may release D’s account funds directly to HMRC to pay IHT before the grant is obtained (at their discretion)
2. Bank loan
3. Loan from a B
4. Sale of assets if no grant is needed prior to sale (eg chattels/quoted shares)

IHT can be paid in installments

IHT not due until teh expiry of 6 months from end of the month in which D died

48
Q

Docs to send to court with probate

A
  1. 2 copies of will (+ codicils)
  2. Will accidentally destroyed/lost => probate may be ontained of a copy of a will or reconstruction of it (affadavit required to support the app)
  3. Official copy of the death certificate
  4. Further supporting docs (eg affadavit evidence if required)
  5. Relevant IHT form
    - Form IHT205 if estate is exempted from IHT; or
    - Form IHT421 (receipted probate summary from HMRC)
  6. Payment for probate fees

Application for letters similar (if app for letters with will annexed, then will must be included with the application)

49
Q

Further evidence (eg affadavits) that may be required to obtain grant

A
  • affadavit of due execution (if will didn’t include attestation clause)
  • affadivit to confirm whether alterations existed at date of execution or whether made after and => invalid
  • An affadavit confirming D’s full name and explaining that they signed the will in a shorter name
  • Documents referred to in the will
  • Affadavit from a witness if there is uncertainty about the date the will was executed
  • Attempted revocation => affidavit of ‘plight and condition’ may be necessary
50
Q

Applications to court - what happens once docs are sent

A

Docs all in order => grant is prepared and sealed by the court

Then sent with the number of office copies requested on app to the ‘extracting sol’ (ie sol acting for the PRs), usually within 14 days of the application being lodged

51
Q

Probate application forms

A

D left a will => Form PA1P used

D did not leave a will => Form PA1A used

52
Q

Caveats

A

Can be lodged with probate registry to prevent the issue of a grant of representation

‘caveator’ may do this if they are a B and believe named executor lacks mental capacity to act or the will is invalid

Valid for 6 months

Matter cannot be resolved => judge may resolve issue

53
Q

Citations

A
  1. Citation to take probate
    - Used when an executor has lost their right to renounce probate by intermeddling in the estate but has not applied for grant and does not intend to do so
    - IP asks probate registry to issue citation => executor must proceed with an app for a grant of probate
    - Still refuse to act => citor can apply for a court order allowing the executor to be passed over
    - Grant of letters with will annexed can then be applied for
  2. Citation to accept or refuse grant
    - Used to clear off a person with a prior right to any type of grant who has not applied, and shows no intention of applying, for a grant
    - Cited person does not take out a grant => grant may be issued to the citor
    - Alternatively (easier + quicker) to apply to probate registry for an order passing over an unwilling applicant in favour of someone else
54
Q

HMRC requirements - account

A

PRs have to deliver an account to HMRC within 12 months from the end of the month of D’s death (UNLESS THE ESTATE IS EXCEPTED)

But usually happens before as IHT runs from 6 months and PRs cannot obtain a grant until they have paid tax due

55
Q

HMRC requirements - co-owned property

A

Surveyors/experts may be required to ascertain the open market value of assets at the date of death

  • Co-owned land
    => market value of their interest will usually be discounted to reflect the difficulty of selling a part interest in land
  • Usually 15% discount for residential property and 10% discount for investment property
  • Not permitted for land co-owned with spouses/civil partners
  • Discount not applicable where other assets are co-owned (ie co-owned land ONLY)
56
Q

HMRC requirements - excepted estates

A

=> exempt from IHT and no formal account need be filed (unless HMRC requests one) where estate does not exceed:

(1) IHT threshold (‘nil rate band’, currently £325k); or (‘small estate’)

(2) £3m, and the net chargeable estate does not exceed the IHT threshold (‘exempt estate’)

(3) estate is worth £650k or less and any unused threshold is being transferred from a spouse who died first (ie transferable nil rate band)

(4) Non-UK domiciled excepted if their UK estate consist solely of cash and/or quoted shares which do not total more than £150k

57
Q

IHT forms for excepted estates

A

Form IHT205 = ‘return of estate information’ and must accompany an application for grant in an excepted estate

Estate can claim 100% unused nil rate band and qualify as excepted estate => PR needs to complete Form IHT217 (‘claim to transfer unused nil rate band for excepted estates’)

Above forms sent with other papers to Probate Registry

Transpires estate not excepted => Form IHT400 must be submitted within 6 months of this coming to light

58
Q

IHT forms for estates that owe tax

A

Form IHT400 = IHT tax account and must be completed and sent to HMRC if estate is not excepted
- Asset values rounded down, and liabilities are rounded up

Form IHT402 = used to transfer unused nil rate band from a spouse who died before D (results in % increase to survivor’s nil rate band)

Form IHT436 = used for claiming unused residence nil rate band

D made lifetime gifts => PRs must file IHT403

IHT421 = probate summary schedule

IHT422 = application for an inheritance tax reference, which is required before payment can be made

59
Q

Duties of PRs - general

A
  1. Duty to collect D’s assets
  2. Duty to administer the estate
  3. Duty to act in best interest of Bs
60
Q

Duties of PRs - duty to collect D’s assets

A

Within a reasonable time

Usually need to produce grant of rep to relevant persons in order to deal with such assets

PRs liable for loss only if it resulted from their unreasonable conduct

Duty to collect assets only relates to property which devolved on the PRs (not to assets which pass directly to Bs)

61
Q

Duties of PRs - duty to administer the estate

A

Reasonable steps must be taken to preserve D’s estate (within the ‘executor’s year’ of 12 months) and realise any investments which it is not proper for them to retain

PRs then pay off debts and legacies and then distribute the residue per the will/intestacy rules

62
Q

PRs duty of care

A

= to act with reasonable care and skill, taking into account any specialist knowldge (s1 TA 2000)

  • PRs may be liable to the estate for losses resulting from their breach of duty (though will typically excludes liability)
  • PR not liable for loss from fellow PR’s breach (unless PR was negligent in preventing other’s breach)
63
Q

Administrative powers of PRs - general

A
  1. Power to sell/mortgage/lease estate property
    - Helps pay various admin expenses
  2. Power to appropriate
  3. Power to appoint trustees for minor Bs who are unable to give valid receipt for monies or assets transferred to them
  4. Power to insure property of the estate
  5. Power to delegate to agents
  6. Power to indemnify for expenses (ie reimburse themselves for all properly incurred expenses)
  7. Power to run D’s business
  8. Power to invest
  9. Power to maintain a minor (s31 TA 2000)
  10. Power to advance capital (s32 TA 2000)
  11. Personal powers
64
Q

Administrative powers of PRs - power to appropriate

A

= use of asset to satisfy a legacy/interest in the estate, PROVIDED B CONSENTS (unless will provides otherwise) and no specific B is affected

Not permissible for a PR to make an appropriation in their own favour to satisfy a pecuniary legacy (unless asset used to do so is cash or equivalent – eg gov stocks) unless permitted by the will

65
Q

Administrative powers of PRs - power to delegate to agents

A

To agents on such terms as they determine

Unless covered in the will, PRs must review arrangements with agents

Liable for the act or default of an agent only if they failed to adhere to their stat duty of care in appointing the agent

66
Q

Administrative powers of PRs - Power to run D’s business

A

General rule = no authority to carry on D’s sole trade unless they do so to sell it as a going concern

BUT will may include express provisions allowing PRs to run the business as a going concern

Partnerships => partnership agreement must be consulted

D was shareholder => company’s articles of ass should be reviewed

67
Q

Administrative powers of PRs - Power to invest

A

TA 2000 authorises Ts to make any kind of investment that they could make if they were absolutely entitled

Investment decisions must be reviewed under the standard investment criteria, ie:
(1) Suitability to the trsut of the investment; and
(2) Need for diversification of the trusts’ investments

Stat exceptions of land abroad and purchase of interest in land with someone else (eg B)

Testator permitted to restrict investment powers in the will

PRs invest in something not suitable/fail to diversify => could be liable to B who suffers loss

68
Q

Administrative powers of PRs - exercise of PRs personal powers

A

Sole PR has same power as 2 or more and => can give valid receipt for proceeds of sale of land

Joint PRs have joint and several liability => act of one binds all others and the estate

BUT all PRs must join for the transfer of land and shares

PRs’ powers are fiduciary and must => be exercised in good faith in the interest of the estate as a whole

69
Q

Protection of PRs - from claims by unknown Bs or creditors

A

PRs personally liable to any unpaid B or creditor, even if not known when a distribution is made

UNLESS they comply with s27 TA 2000
- ie by placing adverts in the London Gazette, a local newspaper, and any other appropriate newspaper
- Requesting any person interested to contact the PRs’ sol within a minimum of 2 months

PRs should also conduct searches for land held or creditors and for bankruptcy declarations against D and Bs

70
Q

Protection of PRs - from claims by missing Bs or creditors

A

=> options are:

  1. Make the payment owed to the B or creditor into the court and distribute the rest of the estate;
  2. Distribute everything with an indemnity from the Bs;
  3. Seek a Benjamin Order
    - Ie court order giving PRs leave to distribute the estate based on an assumption set out in the order (eg that missing B should be treated as having died before D)
    - Full enquiries first required
    - Gives full protection for the PRs
  4. Purchase insurance against the risk of a missing C appearing
    - Full enquiries may be required first
    - Quicker and cheaper than applying to court

Don’t do one of above => remain potentially liable to a later claim

71
Q

Protection of PRs - from claims for financial provision

A

Under inheritance (provision for family and dependents) act 1975, a person may apply to the court to set aside the terms of a will or vary an intestacy on the grounds that reasonable financial provision has not been made to them

To protect themselves, PRs should wait to distribute the estate until 6 months have passed from the issue of the grant

72
Q

Protection of PRs - from future and contingent liabilities

A

Incl situations in which D had acted as a guarantor on a loan or there is a possibility of legal proceedings against the estate

PRs have following options to protect themselves:

  1. Estimate and set aside an appropriate amount
  2. Seek indemnity from Bs (but carries a risk)
  3. Arrange insurance and distribute entire estate; or
  4. Apply to court for directions on what to do
73
Q

Protection of PRs - from failed PETs or CLTs by D

A

Can arise if IHT still unpaid after 13 months

HMRC will not pursue PRs for these liabilities if they remain unpaid by the recipient(s), if PRs have made fullest enquiries and have obtained a certificate of discharge

74
Q

Collecting and realising assets - general

A

PRs have no obligation or power to deal with assets passing outside the will or intestacy

PRs must pay estate creditors before distrubuting the estate to the Bs

PRs should NOT sell any property specifically gifted in the will to pay debts unless other assets have been exhuasted

75
Q

Payment of debts in a solvent estate - general

A

Solvent estate = one where reasonable funeral, testamentary, and administration expenses, debts, and other liabilities can be paid in full

Whether legacies under the will can be satisfied in full is irrelevant to the solvency

Secured debts => Should be discharge from the property against which it is secured (subject to T showing any contrary intention in the will)

Unsecured debts => paid from
(1) Property undisposed of by the will (eg partial intestacy); then
(2) Residue

UNLESS will provides debts should not be paid from residue => specific order

If gift of property provides ‘free of mortgage’ will mean the mortgage must be paid out of the residue to the extent the residue is available

76
Q

Payment of debts in a solvent estate - order where will provides unsecured debts not to be paid from teh residue

A
  1. Property specifically given for the payment of debts (if any)
  2. Pecuniary legacy fund (unless T has specified otherwise, such legacies will abate proportionately so that each legatee bears a share of the burden of payment); and
  3. (If no pecuniary or not sufficient), from specifically specifically devised or bequeathed property, proportionately according to the property’s value comapred to the whole
77
Q

Payment of debts in an INsolvent estate - general

A

Ie one with insufficient assets to pay expenses, debts, and liabilities in full

Bs will receive nothing

Secured creditors enjoy priority over unsecured creditors to the value of the property securing the debt

Unsecured creditors to be paid in the correct order

78
Q

Payment of debts in an INsolvent estate - order of payment of unsecured creditors

A
  1. Reasonable funeral and admin expenses
  2. Preferred debts (wages and salaries in the 4 months prior to death, up to a max £800 each)
  3. Ordinary debts (incl money owed to HMRC and balance of preferred debts)
  4. Interest on preferred and ordinary debts
  5. Deferred debts (ie loans from D’s spouse)

NOTE: Each creditor ranks equally within a category, and they abate proportionately

79
Q

Payment of debts in an INsolvent estate - protection of PRs

A

If paid in correct order PRs will be protected from a claim provided they have acted in good faith and not preferred one creditor over another in the same category

BUT if pay a category of debt knowing that there are higher ranking debts => PR personally liable if the assets aren’t sufficient to pay the higher-ranking debts

BUT not liable if paid inferior debt without notice of a debt in a higher category (provided they did not do so with undue haste)

If seen to prefer one creditor to another in same category, they are protected if payment to a creditor in one class was made in full before payment to others, and the estate later turns out to be insolvent
- To be protected from liability the PRs must have been acting in good faith at the time and with no reason to believe the estate was insolvent

80
Q

Post-death changes - disclaimers

A

Ie B may disclaim an inheritance orally or in writing (unless they accepted any benefit from the gift)

Disclaimer must be in writing to be effective for IHT and CGT purposes

Effect = disclaimed gift falls into residue or into partial intestacy if the gift is the residue

Disclaiming gift does not prevent B from receiving property under the intestacy rules

Disadvantage = original B has no control over ultimate destination of the gift

81
Q

Post-death changes - variations

A

Allows B to change who receives their inheritance

Requirements =
(1) Variation must be in writing
(2) Made within 2 years of death
(3) And not made for monetary consideration

=> treated as if D had left property to new B

Treated as a transfer of value for inheritance tax and a deemed disposal for capital gains tax by the ORIGINAL B

Unlike a disclaimer:
1. a partial variation is poss (ie part of a gift)
2. Also can be made even if B has accepted a benefit

82
Q

PRs vesting legacies in Bs - specific legacies

A

Methods PRs must use to vest such gifts in the Bs vary depending on the type of property being transferred

Procedures =
- Chattels – delivery, in return for a receipt. Insurance should be cancelled
- Company shares – stock transfer form should be completed and sent with an office copy of the grant and the share certificate
- Land – transfer requires an assent in writing. Insurance should be cancelled. B needs to register their interest at HMLR.

Any costs of transfer born by B unless will says otherwise

Bs entitled to income arising since D’s death

83
Q

Payment of legacies by PRs - pecuniary legacies

A

Will usually states the source from which pecuniary legacies should be paid (normally the residue)

Procedure used for payment of unsecured debts is also used for paying pecuniary legacies

Eg residue may be left ‘subject to’ or ‘after payment of’ the ‘debts and legacies’, or on trust for sale with payment out of the proceeds of ‘debts and legacies’ before division

84
Q

Estate funds/assets not sufficient to pay legacies in full?

A

=> abate in proportion

Unless there is a priority given specifically to ny particular legacy

85
Q

Recipt for legacy

A

PRs will typically obtain a receipt from a B to prove the PRs have satisfied their obligations

Minors cannot give good receipt (unless will specifies otherwise)
=> unless PRs accept view that anyone with parental responsibility for the child can give good receipt, PRs can:
- Hold the property until the child reaches 18
- Use the power of appropriation, with the minor’s parent/guardian/court giving any consent
- Appoint trustees to receive and hold the property until the child reaches 18; or
- Obtain their discharge by payment of the legacy into court

86
Q

Ascertaining the residue - income tax and CGT during administration period

A

PRs must calculate any tax liabliity for which they are responsible and withold an amount to cover the liability (BEFORE distributing the residue to the Bs)

Succession law assumes a specific gift of UK property is deemed to be ‘free of tax’ unless the will states otherwise
BUT reverse is true in rel to overseas assets

Pecuniary legacy made ‘subject to tax’ => PRs withhold the tax and pay the net legacy to the tenant

PRs should use form IHT30 to obtain a certificate of discharge from HMRC, which avoid further IHT liability
- No certificate is required for an excepted estate
- Automatic discharge 35 days after a grant of rep unless circs change

87
Q

Ascertaining the residue - other costs in admin the estate

A
  1. Reasonable funerable expenses (question of fact)
  2. Legal and professional costs
    - Sol’s charges in non-contentious probate matters must be fair and reasonable in all the circs, taking into account factors eg complexity, time spent, value of estate, number/importance of docs involved
  3. PR’s renumeration
    - not entitled to charge for services unless authorised in some way ie:
    (1) Will authorises it (routinely incl for professional PRs)
    (2) Agreement with Bs
    (3) Court
    (4) Legacy to proving executors (ie presumed that any specific or general, but not residue, legacy is conditional upon them accepting office - unless rebutted by clause in will)
88
Q

Estate accounts - purpose/format

A

= imp to show residuary Bs what is available to them

No prescribed format but often comprise the following accounts (accompanied by a commentary):
(1) Capital account (deal with assets in estate)
(2) Income account (keep track of dividends received by the PRs during the administration)
(3) Distribution account (keep track of amount each B is entitled to)

89
Q

Estate accounts - commentary

A

= a doc that accompanies estate accounts

Assists Bs and:
- Identifies gross and net values of the estate
- Indicates the estate’s disposition
- Deals with any other relevant matters (eg interim distributions and distributions in specie)

90
Q

Estate accounts - discharge

A

PRs usually endorse the accounts to indicate their approval

Accounts then sent to residuary Bs for them to endorse – and for them to formally discharge the PRs with an agreement to indemnify them agains all claims and demands

B refuses to approve the accounts => PRs may ask court to approve them or may pay B’s share into court

91
Q

Assent - definition

A

An assent by the PRs vests the legal title to the asset in the B

Assents relates back to the date of death, so B is entitled to rents and other income form that date

HMLR must be notified of the change in land ownership from D to either the PRs or the B

92
Q

Assent - requirements

A

Must be:
(1) In writing
(2) Signed by PRs
(3) And name the person in whose favour it is given

93
Q

Assent - land

A

=> requirement to ensure that unregistered land is subject to first registration

Registered => PRs can:
- Apply to be registered as the owner in place of D, producing the grant when making the application, or
- Transfer the property by assent to a B who will then apply to be the registered owner, submitting a certified copy of the grant

94
Q

Assent - protection for purchasers

A

Memo of the assent is endorsed on the original grant

Purchasers given protection when buying land from PRs or Bs who have been given an assent

Buying from PRs =>
1. Purchaser should insist on a statement in the conveyance that no previous assent has been made
2. Protects purchaser unless they had notice to the contrary

Buying from a B =>
1. An assent in their favour from PRs is sufficient evidence that the seller is the person entitled to the legal estate
2. Protects purchaser unless they knew the assent was given to the wrong person

95
Q

B’s rights in administration of estate

A

Has a chose in action (right to have D’s estate properly administered) until it is completed

BUT until then have no legal or equitable interest in D’s assets

Specific gift recipients have the right to income accruing from death, and residuary Bs have the right to intermediate income whether their interest is immediate or contingent

Contingent pecuniary legacies do not have a right to income unless the gift is to a child with entitlement at age 18

Above income rules can be overridden in the will

96
Q

B’s remedies in administration of estate

A
  1. Personal action against the PRs
    - BUT PRs may be absolved under will if they acted ‘honestly, reasonably, and ought fairly to be excused’ or by agreement with the Bs
  2. Tracing
    - Ie to recover property of the estate
    - Right is lost against a bona fide purchaser of if inequitable to do so
  3. Other personal actions
    - Eg against those who have wrongfully received estate assets
97
Q

Claims against estates under Inheritance (Provision for family and dependents) Act 1975 - general provision and time limits

A

An app for family provision claim may be made to the court to set aside the terms of a will (or vary an intestacy) of a person who died domiciled in E+W on the grounds that reasonable financial provision has not been made for the applicant

App MUST be made within 6 months from issue of grant of rep (or later with leave of the court)
=> PRs protected from claims if they wait 6 months from grant before distributing

98
Q

Claims against estates under Inheritance (Provision for family and dependents) Act 1975 - who can make a claim

A
  1. Surviving spouse or civil partner
  2. Former spouse or civil partner (who has not remarried – though may be disbarred from making a calim through ‘clean break’ divorce)
  3. Child of D or person treated as a child of the family
    - Adult children unlikely to be successful in claim if able-bodied and in employment
  4. Person who was being maintained (wholly or partly) by D
    - D needs to have been making a substantial contribution towards the reasonable needs of A
  5. Person who was living with D during the whole 2 years period before death as spouse/civil partner/same sex partner
99
Q

Claims against estates under Inheritance (Provision for family and dependents) Act 1975 - standard of ‘reasonable financial provision’

A

Spouse applicant = such financial provision as would be reasonable in all the circs, whether or not required for maintenance
- Court has discretion to apply the surviving spouse standard to former spouses if death occurs within 12 months of the decree absolute and no final order has been made in those divorce proceedings

Standard for other applicants = such provision required for their maintenance such that they can live decently and comfortably according to their situation

100
Q

Claims against estates under Inheritance (Provision for family and dependents) Act 1975 - types of order

A

Court approves application => estate devolves according to terms of court’s order and not in accordance with will/intestacy

Court has v wide discretion

Can make following orders:
1. Transfer of property
2. Payment of a lump sum (most common)
3. Payment of income
4. Settlement of property on trust