Wills and Trusts Flashcards

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1
Q

Valid attested will

A

a valid attested will requires 1) testamentary intent, 2) testamentary capacity, and 3) that wills formalities be met. Wills formalities require a signed writing by the testator, in the joint presence of two witnesses, and for both witnesses to understand that what they signed was the testator’s will.

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2
Q

What are some ways to prevent testamentary intent?

A
  • Undue influence over T: Physical or mental coercion that controls T’s dispossession of property
  • Fraud in the execution: Misrepresentation of document, deception, switching papers
  • Fraud in the inducement: Misrepresentation of law or facts induces T in reliance
  • Mistake in the execution: Carelessness, accidentally signing wrong document
  • Mistake in the inducement: Innocent misrepresentation, mistaking true facts (extrinsic evidence is admissible). Rest of will is valid unless enforcement would grossly distort T’s intent
  • Sham will: clear and convincing evidence showing the document was not intended to be a will invalidates it
  • Conditional will: If explicit condition precedent to will taking effect does not occur, will is invalid
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3
Q

What are the ways in which someone can exert undue Influence over a testator?

A

Traditional factors: opportunity to influence T (confidential relationship), susceptibility of T, active participation by influencer, unnatural result (successful influence of dispossession).

CA: Vulnerability of T, apparent authority of influencer, actions of influencer, equity of result.

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4
Q

Holographic Will

A

a will that is 1) signed by testator 2) with material provisions in T’s handwriting.

No witnesses needed

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5
Q

Codicil

A

Alteration to existing will – valid if executed with required formalities as attested/holographic will

  • Can have holographic codicil to attested will and vice versa
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6
Q

Incorporation by Reference

A

T may incorporate by reference a separate document into a will when 1) the document is in existence at execution 2) will shows intent to incorporate, and 3) the writing is described

  • A will can also refer to a document not yet in existence at the time of execution if 1) an unrevoked will refers to the writing 2) the writing is dated and in T’s handwriting or signed by T, and 3) the writing describes the items and the recipients of the property with reasonable certainty
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7
Q

Facts of independent significance

A

A will may dispose of property by reference to acts and events that take place after the execution and without formalities that attend to the will itself, i.e., things can happen (variables) after execution that can affect disposition without formalities (e.g., a will to pass a gift in equal shares to T’s employees. This provision is valid even if the employees change after execution)

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8
Q

Pour-over provision

A

T may dispose of property by will to an existing inter vivos (established during lifetime) trust. Hence, an inter vivos trust may be a “will substitute,” provided the will is valid

This trust must be clearly identified in the will and executed before/concurrently with the will

This trust may be amended or revoked after execution of the will

This trust may be unfunded during T’s lifetime

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9
Q

Anti-lapse

A

In California, under the anti-lapse statute, a gift does not lapse if the devisee who predeceased the testator was kindred (i.e., blood relation) of the testator or kindred of a surviving, deceased, or former spouse or domestic partner of the testator, and leaves issue. The issue of a deceased devisee covered by the anti-lapse statute takes in her place.

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10
Q

Valid Trust (private express trust)

A

A valid private express trust requires:

  • 1) intent (settlor manifests present intent to create a trust by words or conduct)
  • 2) settlor capacity (presumed unless contrary evidence such as UI, fraud, mistake)
  • 3) identifiable trust property (res) in existence
  • 4) ascertainable and definite beneficiary, and
  • 5) valid trust purpose
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11
Q

What are a trustees express and implied powers?

A

Express powers: A trustee has powers expressly conferred by the trust instrument, state law, and court decree

Implied powers: A trustee has broad powers as necessary to carry out trust terms and promote beneficiary interests

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12
Q

How can a trustee resign?

A

Once trustee position is accepted, can resign only where permitted by trust, court, or all beneficiaries

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13
Q

Trustee duty of good faith

A

A trustee must administer the trust in good faith in accordance with the trust purpose and terms, in the interests of the trust beneficiaries. If a trustee acts in bad faith or dishonestly, court may interfere with actions

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14
Q

Trustee’s duty of loyalty

A

Trustee has a duty of loyalty to beneficiaries in all matters relating to the trust. Trustee must put interest of the beneficiaries first.

  • Must avoid self-dealing (trustee may not use trust to advance own interests) and conflict of interest
    • Examples of prohibited transactions: buying trust assets, selling to another trust managed by trustee, borrowing from or loaning to trust, personal gain (other than fees), securing personal loan
  • Trustee’s good faith is irrelevant (e.g., trying to save trust from paying fees by buying trust assets)
  • Applies to indirect self-dealing with relatives, business associates, corporations if s/h or on board
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15
Q

What remedies are available if trustee breaches their duty of loyalty?

A

Beneficiary may set aside the transaction, surcharge (recover any profit by trustee), affirm (waive breach if positive outcome), or recover property (unless buyer was a bona-fide purchaser)

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16
Q

Trustee’s Duty of Care (also, what is the prudent investor rule?)

A

Duty of care to exercise care, skill, and caution that would be exercised by a reasonably prudent person, in managing the trust. Mistakes in judgment do not expose trustee to liability as long as reasonable care was exercised

Prudent investor rule: Trustee must act prudently and reasonably in managing the interests of the trust, as a prudent investor, as if it were his own. Includes a duty to diversify trust assets and protect from devaluation

17
Q

What remedies are available if trustee breaches their duty of care?

A

Trustee is liable for any resulting loss if he has breached his duty of care

18
Q

Duty to perform personally (not to delegate duties)

A

Duty to perform personally (not to delegate duties) except acts that would be unreasonable to do personally

  • Modernly, per Uniform Prudent Investor Act (UPIA), may delegate investment and management. Must use reasonable care, skill, and caution to select agent, establish scope, and periodically monitor agent actions
19
Q

Trustee’s duty to earmark assets

A

Identify, separate, and account for assets. Trustee must not commingle trust assets with own

May be personally liable to third person on K (can be reimbursed by trust if K was for trust, done w/ reasonable prudence) &

for torts (can be reimbursed if not personally at fault and incidental to trust activity) in course of trust administration

20
Q

What duties does a trustee owe?

A

Duty of good faith, duty of loyalty, duty of care, duty to perform personally (not delegate duties), duty to earmark assets

21
Q

Spendthrift Trust

A

Trust that restrains alienation, preventing beneficiary from transferring interest and creditors from accessing

Creditors cannot reach trust funds until the beneficiary receives payment. Creditor may attempt to collect directly from the beneficiary after a payment is made

To be valid, it must apply to both voluntary and involuntary transfers of interest

EXCEPTIONS – “preferred creditors” who can break through a spendthrift clause:

  • Tort judgment creditors (spendthrift is to prevent bad spending, not from tortious conduct)
  • Someone a beneficiary is required to support (via, e.g., alimony support or child support)
  • Creditor who supplies necessities of life (e.g., food, clothing, shelter) to beneficiary or his family
  • Government (e.g., claim for back taxes, tax liens)
  • Victim of felony committed by beneficiary to the extent it is equitable and reasonable
  • If the settlor is the beneficiary, spendthrift provision is invalid (can’t protect self from creditors)
22
Q

Discretionary Trusts

A

Grants absolute discretion to trustee to make distributions as he sees fit. The beneficiary, his assignee, nor his creditors can compel payment (unless settlor is the beneficiary of the discretionary trust)

23
Q

Support Trust

A

Directs the trustee to pay only as is necessary for the beneficiary’s support. Voluntary and involuntary alienation are both prohibited (unless the creditor is a “preferred creditor”)

24
Q

Rights and Limitations of Creditors

A
  • Court may authorize a creditor to reach a beneficiary’s interest by attaching present or future distributions to the beneficiary, as long as the interest is not subject to a spendthrift provision (see also § III-b-i)
  • A creditor cannot compel distribution to a beneficiary if subject to the trustee’s discretion (see also § III-c)
25
Q

Revocability of Trust

A

Majority rule (Uniform Trust Code): A trust is presumed revocable by default. The settlor may revoke or amend the trust unless the terms of the trust expressly provide that the trust is irrevocable

Minority rule is that a trust is presumed irrevocable

26
Q

Revocability of testamentary trust (created by a will)

A

Revocable during T’s lifetime but becomes irrevocable when T dies

27
Q

When does a trust terminate?

A
  • A trust terminates automatically if its stated term expires or its purpose is accomplished
  • Beneficiaries may termination a trust (even if irrevocable) if all beneficiaries consent + termination will not frustrate material trust purpose
  • Settlor who is alive terminate the trust during his lifetime w/ consent of beneficiaries (even if inconsistent w/ purpose)
  • Changed circumstances: Court may terminate by petition by trustee or beneficiary if continuation of trust would defeat the purpose of the trust, or if modification will further the purposes of the trust
28
Q

Claflin doctrine

A

Trust cannot be modified/terminated, even if all beneficiaries agree, if doing so would be contrary to a material purpose of the settlor.

Material purpose includes spendthrift, support, discretionary trusts.

29
Q

Cy Pres (charitable trusts only)

A

If the original charitable purpose is frustrated or can no longer be pursued, trustee and court can modify the trust to one “as near as possibleto the settlor’s original purpose
i. Only applicable if settlor had general charitable intent, not a specific charitable intent (e.g., named charity)

  • Court may admit extrinsic evidence to ascertain settlor’s intent
  • Trust instrument may prohibit cy pres (e.g., by indicating the property should revert to settlor or estate)