Westwind AGK Flashcards
Nose Gear strut minimum extension?
1.5 inches
If water is found in fuselage fuel sump drain what must happen?
Wing and tip tanks must be drained
Main Gear strut minimum extension?
1.5 inches
How many static dischargers per aileron?
2
Minimum oil quantity for dispatch?
1 Qt low
When should oil level be checked?
within 15 min of shutdown
How many static dischargers on tail?
3
Max reverse thrust?
Mechanically limited to 80%N1
above 5300ft limit to 73%N1
What are system voltages?
28VDC
115VAC
26VAC
What type and how many batteries are installed?
24VDC 36 Amp Hour NiCad x 2
External power should be?
28VDC rated to 1000Amps for starting
Which items are hot wired?
single point refuelling
Battery voltmeter
Entrance step light
Baggage compartment light
The BSVs (bleed switching valves) require what to operate?
Bleed air and DC power, if not, they remain open.
When does automatic oxygen deploy?
13,500ft +- 500ft cabin Alt
How many lift dumpers are there?
3 per wing
What are the speed brakes?
2 of the lift dumpers
Which side is the aileron trim tab on?
Left
How many seats would a westwind typically have?
12 including crew (2)
Number of baggage compartments?
2, both rear of passenger cabin
Is the cargo bay pressurised?
No
Where is the oxygen service port
adjacent to copilot’s pitot tube
Where are the oxygen masks located?
Behind pilot seats
Which cockpit windows open?
pilots side only
Are the double layers windshields heated?
Yes, the outer one
How are the double layered windshields vented?
into nose compartment through a desiccant tube
When should windshield desiccant be replaced?
When it matches the replace desiccant colour label colour.
How many point harness is the seatbelt?
4
What powers the main door warning system?
1 DC distribution bus
How does the door lock?
Outside only
How many cabin windows are there?
5L, 6R
From where can the door and emergency exits be openned?
Inside or out.
If aux fuel tanks are installed in the main baggage compartment, what are the considerations W.R.T. heat?
FWD BAG COMP HEAT CB pulled and baggage compartment heat is off
Is the baggage compartment heated?
Yes, thermal blankets in side walls, ceiling and floor. 45-50 deg F
Main baggage max load?
820lb, 105lb/ft2
Rear baggage max load?
250lb, 32lb/ft2
How does one access the baggage compartments?
Separate doors on left rear side of fuselage.
How many vortex generators can be missing from the wings?
2 Per wing max.
How many vortex generators are there?
10 per wing
How are the ailerons and trim tab operated?
Ailerons: manually, Trim: Electric
How are the flaps operated?
Electrically
How do the lift dumpers/speed brakes function?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated
How is the rudder and trim tab operated?
Rudder: manually, Trim: Electric
Wingspan?
52’ 3” (15.92m)
Length?
44’ 10” (13.66m)
How is the elevator and trim tab operated?
Elevator: manually, Trim: Electric
Radome danger area?
30ft(9m) fuel, 300ft(91m) personnel
Engine frontal danger area?
12ft(3.6m)
How are the ailerons balanced?
Mass balance tabs forward of the hinge providing 100% mass balance. Plus a servo tab on the right aileron.
How many hinges attach each aileron to the wing?
4
Which bus powers the aileron trim?
No 2 dist bus
How is the aileron trim controlled?
2 position switch on the control pedestal.
How is the elevator balanced?
pre loaded with 2 loading springs
How is the elevator trim operated?
Normally by pitch trim switches on the control wheels.
If the pitch trim release button is pressed on the inside of the pilots control wheel what happens?
de-energises the normal trim system.
Why must caution be used when operating the override horizontal trim system?
There are no limit switches built in.
Does the rudder have a servo tab?
Yes, it has a combination trim and servo tab.
Can rudder pedals be adjusted?
Yes, forward and back with a handcrank above the pedals.
How is rudder trim effected?
Through a spring loaded toggle on the centre pedestal.
How is the yaw damper engaged?
With a switch on the control pedestal.
Is there an indication of yaw damper engagement/disengagement?
An annunciator on each pilot’s instrument panel indicates yaw damper disengagement.
What does the gust lock achieve?
It locks the controls (under floor behind main cabin door) and prevents thrust above idle.
What type of flaps are fitted?
Double slotted fowler
What prevents flap drive damage?
torque limiting clutch set at 1.5 x normal rated torque.
What is the flap extend/retract time?
14, 10 seconds respectively.
When do the flap limiter switches trigger?
1/2 deg prior to selected position.
Can the flap unbalance system be re-set?
Yes, by actuating the flap unbalance test switch.
If the flaps do not reach their selected position within 20Sec, what happens?
A time exceed relay pops the flap control CB
What limitations are there in relation to speed brakes and lift dumpers?
None and only on ground respectively
How are the speed brakes and lift dumpers operated?
switches on the control pedestal.
What indicates that the speed brakes and lift dumpers are up?
SB EXT and LD EXT annunciator lights
What are the conditions for the lift dumpers to operate?
Lift dump switch on;
weight on main gear;
both thrust @ idle
How are the lift dumpers and speed brakes attached to the wing?
Piano hinges
If lift dumpers deploy and weight is removed from the main gear struts, what happens?
The lift dumpers remain deployed unless thrust is moved from idle
The AOA indicator shows 100% lift, this means?
Stall
Where is the AOA sensor?
Right side of fuselage
What serial Number is VH-IER
359
How many fuel tanks are there?
12, 6 per engine, tip tank, inner/centre/outer wing tanks, upper/lower fuselage tanks
What type of fuel tanks are installed?
Wing and tip tanks are wet tanks, the upper/lower fuselage are bladder tanks.
What is the configuration of the fuselage tanks?
Centre wing tanks are between the upper and lower fuselage tanks which are divided longitudinally into left and right sections.
What is a requirement for fueling the tip tanks?
The fueling check valve must be opened by pulling the actuating lever and pushed back to ensure normal operation.
How is the fuel in the tip tanks used?
1/2 of the fuel gravity feeds into the outer wing tanks, the remainder is transferred with a jet pump in each tank.
What do the blue lights on the fuel indicator panel indicate?
Fuel in tip tanks.
What happens if a fuel vent float sticks open?
Fuel will drain from the wing.
Can a fuel vent float be unstuck?
Yes, shake the wing.
How is fuel level measured?
4 capacitance probes in each tank.
What do the fuel gauges indicate?
Total useable fuel in lbs from 0-4800
Do the fuel quantity indicators supply any other equipment?
Yes, the fuel status computer.
What does the fuel remaining on the fuel status display indicate?
Total fuel remaining except for fuel in the auxiliary tank.
When does the FUEL LEVEL LOW light come on?
When either of the 2 float switches in the lower fuselage tanks indicate 415 +- 25lbs remaining in the associated tank.
How is fuel distribution achieved?
Gravity, boost pumps and jet pumps.
How many fuel boost pumps are there?
Two per lower fuselage tank.
How are the fuel boost pumps powered?
Outer (main) are powered from opposite side main bus, Inner(alternate) is powered from same side main bus.
How is the alternate fuel boost pump operated?
By switching on the switch or automatically if the engine supply line pressure drops to below 7 PSI
How are the fuel shutoff valves operated?
Pressing the fuel shutoff valve switch or pressing the fire warning push button.
When should tip tank transfer take place?
Fuel remaining is 6500lb
How is fuel dump achieved?
Gravity, boosted or both.
How does gravity dump work for tip tanks?
Press dump pushbutton with transfer valve closed. Dumps fuel at 200lb/min/tank, empties tank in 4 min
How does fuel dump work for all tanks?
Transfer valves open, boost pumps on, 333lb/min/side until tip tanks are empty then 133lb/min/side
How much fuel is left at the dump stop level?
970lb per side (1940lb total)
Where is the pressure refueling port?
On fuselage under right wing
Where are the gravity refueling ports?
upper fuselage fuel tank access panels
How does one gravity refuel?
close interconnect valves, pull down wing and tip manual fill valves.
How does one pressure refuel?
pull down tip manual fill valves
Max refuel pressure?
55 PSI
What type of engine is fitted?
2 Garrett TFE731-3-1G turbofans
What is the rated thrust?
3700lb per engine
How many spools does the engine have?
2
What is the bypass ratio?
2.73:1
What type of compressors do the engines have?
4 stage axial, followed by a single stage centrifugal
What drives the accessory gearbox?
N2
How is the fan driven?
By N1 through planetary gears
What type of combustor is fitted?
Reverse flow, annular.
How many fuel nozzles per engine?
12
How many igniters per engine?
2, 6 and 7 o’clock positions
What does the ENG anti-ice provide?
Pt2/Tt2 heat
What does a green NAC light indicate?
Nacelle bleed anti-ice air is above 20PSI
Where is NAC air sourced from?
HP bleed air
What does a red pin protruding from the engine accessory gearbox indicate?
Oil filter blocked
What is normal oil pressure?
42+-4psi @>68% N2
How is oil cooled?
Fuel heater and oil/air heat exchanger
When is the accessory gearbox vented?
Below 27,000ft, above that the breather pressurisation valve closes to maintain 3.5PSI
When does the ENG OIL PRESS LOW light come on?
Oil pressure below 25PSI
Does the IGN ON button need to be pressed for start?
No, the ignition functions automatically during the start sequence.
What do the DEECs provide?
Fuel Scheduling;
Overspeed protection;
Surge protection;
Temperature protection;
When does the DEEC automatically shut down the engine?
109% N1, 110%N2
Why should the fuel conrroller switch be left in normal mode following DEEC failure?
N1 overspeed is still provided.
How many fuel manifolds are there per engine?
2
When is ENRICH mode used?
OAT -18C (0F) and below and during airstart to 300-400ITT
Is there a thrust reverser backup system?
Yes, Nitrogen charged accumulator
How can the thrust reverser accumulator pressure be checked?
Behind hydraulic service door on fuselage below left engine pylon.
How are thrust reversers actuated?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated.
What is normal operating pressure for the thrust reversers?
2000PSI
When does the reverser HYD PRESS LOW annunciator come on?
1400 PSI +-75
What is max reverse N1?
80%
When should reversers be deployed?
Once nose wheel is on ground with forward pressure on yoke
Which gases are used in the fire warning system?
Hydrogen and Helium
When an engine fire condition is detected, which lights illuminate?
The respective FIRE switch
What does pressing the respective FIRE switch do?
Closes both the fuel and hydraulic valves arms the appropriate cartridge on each cylinder and illuminates the full light.
What does pressing the respective FULL/EMPTY switch do?
detonates the charge on the appropriate squib and releases the extinguishant, illuminates the EMPTY light.
What type of extinguishant is used?
HALON / BCF
Where are the portable extinguishers?
Behind pilot seat and RH aft pax cabin wall
What are the primary sources of electrical power?
2 Starter/Generators which supply 28VDC to their respective busses.
What are the secondary sources of electrical power?
two batteries (NiCad) connected to two permanently tied battery busses. ground power receptacle which connects to the battery bus
Where is AC power sourced?
2 Static inverters providing 115VAC and 26VAC
How can individual battery voltage be read?
By switching the battery master off
What are the specifications of the batteries?
24V, 20 Cell, 36 Amp/hour, NiCad x2
What does the OVERLOAD REDUCT switch on the battery control panel do?
Overrides automatic load reduction while a generator is offline.
Where is the battery temperature guage?
On the RHS instrument panel.
When does the BATT OVERHEAT light come on?
When battery temperature reaches 140 deg F
What is the generator rated output (V)?
rated 30VDC, regulated to 28.5VDC
If a generator is offline, does any equipment automatically switch off?
Yes, windshield and baggage heat.
During start when does the GCU terminate the start sequence?
50% N2
How does the GCU balance load?
parallels loads to not exceed an imbalance of >35Amp
Where is the external power receptacle?
Left fuselage aft of main baggage door.
What power does the external power provide?
28Vdc with soft start capability and able to supply 1000Amp during engine start.
Which bus does the external power unit connect to?
Battery bus
With the EPU connected, what does the GCU do?
Keeps the generators disconnected until external power is removed.
What does the overvoltage relay do?
Disconnects the EPU if voltage exxceeds 29.5V
Which systems are hot wired to the batteries?
Pressure refueling;
battery voltmeter;
entrance step light;
Baggage compartment light.
How are the batteries charged?
External power or generators
Which power sources provide engine start?
Battery, external power or generator assist after 1st engine start.
When must external power be removed?
After 1st engine start so that the generator can power the electrical system.
When must starter assist be used in an airstart?
N2<15%
When should the ENRICH feature be used?
When temp is below 0F, -18C
What does the ALT position do on the AC CONTROL panel?
Powers the bus from the opposite side inverter
What does the OFF position do on the AC CONTROL panel?
The respective bus is de-powered, the inverter remains powered.
What does AC BUS FAILED annunciator indicate?
The respective 115VAC bus has power loss on that bus (<100V)
Where are the inverters located?
Nose compartment
What are the 4 main lighting circuits?
Flight compartment;
passenger compartment;
Baggage and service compartment;
Exterior.
What does the COCKPIT LIGHTS MASTER ON/OFF switch do
switches the panel lights on and off
How is the panel flood light controlled?
COCKPIT LIGHTS FLOOD, bright-off-dim switch and rheostat
What does the DOME light switch do
switches on the dome light above and behind the captains seat for overall cockpit illumination.
What does the READ-INDIRECT READ light switch do?
READ: power is available to the reading lights above each seat.
INDIRECT READ: power is available to the reading lights above each seat and the cabin lighting, in this position the the galley can switch the indirect lighting on or off.
When do the belts/no smoking signs illuminate?
When the nose gear is not up and locked and when switched on in the cockpit.
What are and how are the courtesy lights powered?
Stair light and light above entrance, hot wired to No.2 Battery, switch above main cabin door and automatically off when door closed.
How are the emergency lights powered?
Aircraft electrical system or emergency battery pack located adjacent to the main cabin door light.
How is the baggage compartment lighting powered?
Hot wired to battery bus.
Exterior lights consist of?
Wing inspection; Landing; Taxi; position/strobe; Anti collision; Logo (on some models).
Where are the taxi and landing lights located?
Main gear struts and wing tip tanks respectively
When are the taxi lights prevented from operating?
When nose gear is not down and locked
How many hydraulic systems are there?
2, main and emergency
What sort of Hydraulic fluid does the aircraft operate on?
Skydrol 500B or equivalent
What pressure does the main hydraulic system operate to?
2000PSI
What pressure does the emergency hydraulic system operate to?
750-1300PSI
What does the main hydraulic system operate?
Gear; brakes, antiskid; nosewheel steering; lift dump and speed brakes; thrust reverse.
What does the emergency hydraulic system operate?
emergency brakes
What powers the hydraulic system?
Engine driven pumps
How is cavitation in the hydraulic reservoir prevented?
10PSI diff pressure from bleed system.
Shat type of pump powers the hydraulic system?
7 piston variable displacement engine driven
When does the HYD PRESS illuminate?
<1400PSI
If power is lost, what happens to the hydraulic pressure indicator?
Remains in last recoded position.
How is the emergency Hydraulic system powered?
Electrically driven hydraulic pump.
How much pressure does the emergency system provide?
800-1000PSI
How does the emergency hydraulic pump vary displacement?
Switches on and off
When is the emergency hydraulic pump prevented from operating?
When both main landing gear are locked up.
How many tyres does the landing gear consist of?
single main tyres (2) and dual nose gear
How is the gear extended and retracted?
Hydraulically with an emergency pneumatic blow down system.
Which gear struts have ground contact switches?
All three
How does the main gear retract?
Outwards into the wings.
What does the main landing gear door cover?
The strut assembly.
What type of struts are used on the landing gear?
Hydraulic/Pneaumatic
What happens to steering when the nose wheel leaves the ground?
The steering is disabled and the nose gear is mechanically centered.
How is the aircraft steered if hydraulic pressure fails on landing?
A hydraulic pressure switch opens allowing free flow of fluid between nose wheel steering actuating cylinders so that the aircraft can be steered with brakes.
When should Hi (sensitivity nosewheel steering) be used?
Normally low, Hi only when maneuvering or parking
How is the gear lever prevented from moving on the ground?
Spring loaded lock, released via a solenoid.
How is the emergency gear system activated?
EMERGENCY GEAR DOWN handle on left side of control pedestal.
How many wheel speed detectors are there in the brake system?
2
What type of brakes are fitted?
Disc brakes on main wheels
What is a precaution when setting the park brake?
Anti-skid must be off.
Where are the Anti-Skid inop lights?
Windshield centre post and next to anti skid switch on left side panel
How is the park brake set?
Pressing the toe brakes to build pressure and locking the pressure in with the park brake lever.
Which pressure does the park brake use?
Normal or emergency park hydraulic pressure
What is the emergency hydraulic system for?
Emergency brakes only
When does the emergency hydraulic pump operate?
When gear is not locked up and main pressure drops below 800PSI
Where is bleed air sourced?
HP and LP from each engine
What does bleed air supply?
Pressurisation; Aircon; anti-ice; deice; Hydraulic reservoir pressure.
What temp does bleed air exit the engine?
250deg F and 500deg F above ambient respectively.
Where do the De-Ice boots get air from?
LP duct
Where does the nacelle anti-ice get air from?
HP Duct
Which side provides better Aircon on the ground?
RH
When does the BLEED LINE OVERPRESS annunciator come on?
Bleed air pressure >44 PSI +-4
or;
Temp > 575 deg F +-25
What does the flood duct valve do?
Closed(pulled out): more air to rear cabin through bulkheads
Open(pushed in): normal flow
What do the manual DEFOG and AIR COND PILOTS controls do?
Supply air to windshield and pilots foot wells respectively.
What does ram air supply(aircon)?
cools air in refrigeration unit and can be ducted into cabin if RAM selected.
Where is ram air sourced (aircon)?
Flush type scoops on upper fuselage.
How much water is removed in the water separator?
up to 80%
How is cabin air temp sensed?
Sensor below RH emergency exit with electric fan below cabin floor to pass air across sensor
What is the minimum temperature exiting the water separator?
35 deg F (1.66C)
What does the selection of RAM on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Opens ram air valve and outflow valves and depressurizes the cabin.
What does the selection of L/R ENG on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Only L or R engine bleed air is used for pressurisation.
What does the selection of BOTH ENGINES on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Both engine bleed air is used for pressurisation
What does the selection of EMER on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Only R engine LP bleed air is used for pressurisation bypassing the ECU.
How is cabin pressure regulated?
controlling the outflow valve position
What does the GROUND PRESS switch do?
Stops pressurisation surges during takeoff by disabling the dump solenoid on outflow valve #2
What differential pressure does the pressurisation system maintain?
8.8 PSI
What does the MAN DUMP bezel do?
manually controls the No.1 outflow valve.
What happens to the pressurisation system during engine start?
The cabin pressures rapidly after the 1st engine start, it would be advantageous to open the pilot’s window.
How does the GROUND PRESS switch work?
select cabin air to BOTH ENGINES with thrust partially advanced for 30 Sec, then press GROUND PRESS
When does the CABIN ABOVE 10,000 illuminate?
Cabin at 10,000ft
Where do the captain’s pitot/static instruments get their data?
LH pitot and lower heated static ports via the air data computer
Where do the FOs pitot/static instruments get their data?
RH pitot and Upper heated static ports
Which static port is used for the outflow and safety valves?
Unheated triple unit on the left side of the aircraft, only 2 ports are used.
The Captains altimeter supplies which other devises with ALT info?
Transponder and Altitude alerter.
Pressing test on the Captains altimeter does what?
moves needle to 750ft and inhibits transponder output.
When does the altitude alerter provide alerts?
when within 1000ft and 300ft of preselected level
What else does the altitude alerter provide?
Autopilot altitude preselect.
Where is the free air temp bulb sensor?
Fuselage skin above co-pilots windshield.
When does the magnetic compass red heading correctly?
When windshield heat is off.
What does the emergency AH run off?
Emergency batteries (NiCad) located in the radio rack.
How long will the Emergency AH operate for?
30 min or 60 min depending on unit installed.
Does the clock need to be re-set after power up?
No, an internal battery keeps the clock running when power is off.
How can VHF radio frequencies be tuned up?
Either through the respective radio control head or the FMS-90
Where is the HF antenna?
Long wire between fuselage and tail of aircraft.
What do the 3 position toggle switches do on the audio panel?
up-speakers, down-phones, centre-off
Which controls select which source to listen to?
3 position toggles
How does one select who to talk to through transmitter?
rotating bezel: COM 1, COM 2, PA, INTER, HF
How many VHF transceivers are there?
2
How many VHF NAV transceivers are there?
2
What does VHF NAV provide?
VOR, LOC, G/S, Marker beacon
Does the VHF NAV require testing?
Has built in self-test
What does VHF NAV drive?
Flight Director HSI, RMI, Autopilot, CDI and RNAV.
How many and where are the VHF nav antennae?
single glideslope on nose supplying both NAV and dual VOR/LOC either side of Vert stabiliser
How is the VHF NAV controlled?
Either through the respective radio control head or the FMS-90
Where do the RMIs get heading info?
Opposite side HSIs
What additional info is displayed on Captains’ RMI?
DME
What range is DME accurate?
250nm
Where is RADALT displayed?
on ADI
What does the CVR record?
Last 30 min of remote microphone and both pilot’s mics.
How many autopilots are installed?
1
How does the Autopilot/YD control the aircraft surfaces?
Autopilot controls the Elevator and ailerons, YD: rudder
How many static dischargers are there per control surface?
3 on top of tail;
4 on each elevator;
5 on each wing tip/tank.
What de/anti ice systems are there?
Deice boots; Engine inlet and sensor; windshield heat; Pitot and AOA; Windshield desiccant and defog.
What rain protections are there?
Windshield wipers.
Which surfaces have deice boots?
Wings and stabiliser
What pressure does the deice boots run on?
18PSI
When should deice boots not be used?
Takeoff and landing and below -40 Deg C/F
What does the selection of SINGLE on the deice panel do?
Operates the wing deice boots for 6 sec then the tail for 4 sec.
What does the selection of CONT on the deice panel do?
Operates the wing deice boots for 6 sec then the tail for 4 sec then 50 sec rest, on repeat.
Should CONT or SINGLE be selected on the deice panel?
SINGLE is not recommended.
How much ice should be allowed to form prior to deice deployment?
half an inch
What does operation of the MANUAL switch on the deice panel do?
Inflates the selected boots
How long should the MANUAL switch on the deice panel be held?
not more than 10sec
What does the SURFACE DEICING annunciator indicate?
too much pressure or too little vacuum, do not use deice boots.
When electrical power fails, what happens to nacelle anti-ice?
Fails to on.
How is the P2/T2 sensor protected?
If oil pressure drops below 25PSI then the sensor is switched off.
What does the green NAC light indicate?
The nacelle is receiving adequate anti-ice air
What does the green ENG light indicate?
The P2/T2 sensor is receiving power
Which windshields are heated?
Both main
How does the windshield heat operate in AUTO mode?
The temperature controller maintains the windshield at 68-92 deg F when skin temperature is above 5 deg C when below 5 deg C the temperature controller maintains the windshield at 100-118 deg F
How does the windshield heat operate in HI mode?
The temperature controller maintains the windshield at 100-118 deg F
If a generator fails, how does this affect windshield heat?
it is disconnected, to reconnect, switch the battery master to OVRD LOAD REDUCTION
When must desiccant be replaced?
When the colour changes to the REPLACE DESICCANT colour.
When should wipers not be used?
on dry windshield
When should windshield heat be used?
during icing conditions
Where is defog air supplied?
windshields and side windows
What does selecting AUTO on the pitot/static anti-ice panel do?
The pitot tubes, static vents and AOA probe a provided with power as soon as the nose gear lifts off the ground.
What does the oxygen system provide?
Supplemental oxygen for crew and passengers
When is oxygen available to passengers?
Manually or automatically at 13500ft +- 500ft Cabin ALT
Where is the oxygen bottle?
Front right nose compartment
Where is the oxygen overpressure disc?
Green, right nose skin
Can the oxygen bottle be isolated from the system?
Yes, with the oxygen shutoff valve FWD of RH console
What must happen above 41,000ft?
Crew must use oxygen and passengers must wear masks
What pressures does the oxygen system operate at?
1800-2000 PSI from bottle, 65-95 PSI after pressure reduction
Which type of mask is fitted to the CJR aircraft?
Eros type, integrated regulator
What are the 3 parts of the Eros mask?
Microphone, Mask and hose assembly
When in normal position, what does the Eros mask supply?
Air/Oxygen mix up to 30,000ft when 100% oxygen is supplied.
When above 33,000ft, what happens to the Eros mask?
positive pressure is supplied (100%oxy)
When in TEST position, what does the Eros mask supply?
positive pressure oxygen at any altitude <33,000ft
How many therapeutic masks are there?
1
What does the bypass valve switch do on the passenger oxygen system?
bypasses the solenoid valve in case of power failure.
