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Capital Jet Resources > Westwind AGK > Flashcards

Westwind AGK Flashcards

1
Q

Nose Gear strut minimum extension?

A

1.5 inches

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2
Q

If water is found in fuselage fuel sump drain what must happen?

A

Wing and tip tanks must be drained

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3
Q

Main Gear strut minimum extension?

A

1.5 inches

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4
Q

How many static dischargers per aileron?

A

2

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5
Q

Minimum oil quantity for dispatch?

A

1 Qt low

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6
Q

When should oil level be checked?

A

within 15 min of shutdown

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7
Q

How many static dischargers on tail?

A

3

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8
Q

Max reverse thrust?

A

Mechanically limited to 80%N1

above 5300ft limit to 73%N1

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9
Q

What are system voltages?

A

28VDC
115VAC
26VAC

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10
Q

What type and how many batteries are installed?

A

24VDC 36 Amp Hour NiCad x 2

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11
Q

External power should be?

A

28VDC rated to 1000Amps for starting

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12
Q

Which items are hot wired?

A

single point refuelling
Battery voltmeter
Entrance step light
Baggage compartment light

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13
Q

The BSVs (bleed switching valves) require what to operate?

A

Bleed air and DC power, if not, they remain open.

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14
Q

When does automatic oxygen deploy?

A

13,500ft +- 500ft cabin Alt

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15
Q

How many lift dumpers are there?

A

3 per wing

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16
Q

What are the speed brakes?

A

2 of the lift dumpers

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17
Q

Which side is the aileron trim tab on?

A

Left

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18
Q

How many seats would a westwind typically have?

A

12 including crew (2)

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19
Q

Number of baggage compartments?

A

2, both rear of passenger cabin

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20
Q

Is the cargo bay pressurised?

A

No

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21
Q

Where is the oxygen service port

A

adjacent to copilot’s pitot tube

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22
Q

Where are the oxygen masks located?

A

Behind pilot seats

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23
Q

Which cockpit windows open?

A

pilots side only

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24
Q

Are the double layers windshields heated?

A

Yes, the outer one

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25
Q

How are the double layered windshields vented?

A

into nose compartment through a desiccant tube

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26
Q

When should windshield desiccant be replaced?

A

When it matches the replace desiccant colour label colour.

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27
Q

How many point harness is the seatbelt?

A

4

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28
Q

What powers the main door warning system?

A

1 DC distribution bus

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29
Q

How does the door lock?

A

Outside only

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30
Q

How many cabin windows are there?

A

5L, 6R

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31
Q

From where can the door and emergency exits be openned?

A

Inside or out.

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32
Q

If aux fuel tanks are installed in the main baggage compartment, what are the considerations W.R.T. heat?

A

FWD BAG COMP HEAT CB pulled and baggage compartment heat is off

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33
Q

Is the baggage compartment heated?

A

Yes, thermal blankets in side walls, ceiling and floor. 45-50 deg F

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34
Q

Main baggage max load?

A

820lb, 105lb/ft2

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35
Q

Rear baggage max load?

A

250lb, 32lb/ft2

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36
Q

How does one access the baggage compartments?

A

Separate doors on left rear side of fuselage.

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37
Q

How many vortex generators can be missing from the wings?

A

2 Per wing max.

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38
Q

How many vortex generators are there?

A

10 per wing

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39
Q

How are the ailerons and trim tab operated?

A

Ailerons: manually, Trim: Electric

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40
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

Electrically

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41
Q

How do the lift dumpers/speed brakes function?

A

Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated

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42
Q

How is the rudder and trim tab operated?

A

Rudder: manually, Trim: Electric

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43
Q

Wingspan?

A

52’ 3” (15.92m)

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44
Q

Length?

A

44’ 10” (13.66m)

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45
Q

How is the elevator and trim tab operated?

A

Elevator: manually, Trim: Electric

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46
Q

Radome danger area?

A

30ft(9m) fuel, 300ft(91m) personnel

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47
Q

Engine frontal danger area?

A

12ft(3.6m)

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48
Q

How are the ailerons balanced?

A

Mass balance tabs forward of the hinge providing 100% mass balance. Plus a servo tab on the right aileron.

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49
Q

How many hinges attach each aileron to the wing?

A

4

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50
Q

Which bus powers the aileron trim?

A

No 2 dist bus

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51
Q

How is the aileron trim controlled?

A

2 position switch on the control pedestal.

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52
Q

How is the elevator balanced?

A

pre loaded with 2 loading springs

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53
Q

How is the elevator trim operated?

A

Normally by pitch trim switches on the control wheels.

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54
Q

If the pitch trim release button is pressed on the inside of the pilots control wheel what happens?

A

de-energises the normal trim system.

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55
Q

Why must caution be used when operating the override horizontal trim system?

A

There are no limit switches built in.

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56
Q

Does the rudder have a servo tab?

A

Yes, it has a combination trim and servo tab.

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57
Q

Can rudder pedals be adjusted?

A

Yes, forward and back with a handcrank above the pedals.

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58
Q

How is rudder trim effected?

A

Through a spring loaded toggle on the centre pedestal.

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59
Q

How is the yaw damper engaged?

A

With a switch on the control pedestal.

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60
Q

Is there an indication of yaw damper engagement/disengagement?

A

An annunciator on each pilot’s instrument panel indicates yaw damper disengagement.

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61
Q

What does the gust lock achieve?

A

It locks the controls (under floor behind main cabin door) and prevents thrust above idle.

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62
Q

What type of flaps are fitted?

A

Double slotted fowler

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63
Q

What prevents flap drive damage?

A

torque limiting clutch set at 1.5 x normal rated torque.

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64
Q

What is the flap extend/retract time?

A

14, 10 seconds respectively.

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65
Q

When do the flap limiter switches trigger?

A

1/2 deg prior to selected position.

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66
Q

Can the flap unbalance system be re-set?

A

Yes, by actuating the flap unbalance test switch.

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67
Q

If the flaps do not reach their selected position within 20Sec, what happens?

A

A time exceed relay pops the flap control CB

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68
Q

What limitations are there in relation to speed brakes and lift dumpers?

A

None and only on ground respectively

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69
Q

How are the speed brakes and lift dumpers operated?

A

switches on the control pedestal.

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70
Q

What indicates that the speed brakes and lift dumpers are up?

A

SB EXT and LD EXT annunciator lights

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71
Q

What are the conditions for the lift dumpers to operate?

A

Lift dump switch on;
weight on main gear;
both thrust @ idle

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72
Q

How are the lift dumpers and speed brakes attached to the wing?

A

Piano hinges

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73
Q

If lift dumpers deploy and weight is removed from the main gear struts, what happens?

A

The lift dumpers remain deployed unless thrust is moved from idle

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74
Q

The AOA indicator shows 100% lift, this means?

A

Stall

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75
Q

Where is the AOA sensor?

A

Right side of fuselage

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76
Q

What serial Number is VH-IER

A

359

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77
Q

How many fuel tanks are there?

A

12, 6 per engine, tip tank, inner/centre/outer wing tanks, upper/lower fuselage tanks

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78
Q

What type of fuel tanks are installed?

A

Wing and tip tanks are wet tanks, the upper/lower fuselage are bladder tanks.

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79
Q

What is the configuration of the fuselage tanks?

A

Centre wing tanks are between the upper and lower fuselage tanks which are divided longitudinally into left and right sections.

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80
Q

What is a requirement for fueling the tip tanks?

A

The fueling check valve must be opened by pulling the actuating lever and pushed back to ensure normal operation.

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81
Q

How is the fuel in the tip tanks used?

A

1/2 of the fuel gravity feeds into the outer wing tanks, the remainder is transferred with a jet pump in each tank.

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82
Q

What do the blue lights on the fuel indicator panel indicate?

A

Fuel in tip tanks.

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83
Q

What happens if a fuel vent float sticks open?

A

Fuel will drain from the wing.

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84
Q

Can a fuel vent float be unstuck?

A

Yes, shake the wing.

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85
Q

How is fuel level measured?

A

4 capacitance probes in each tank.

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86
Q

What do the fuel gauges indicate?

A

Total useable fuel in lbs from 0-4800

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87
Q

Do the fuel quantity indicators supply any other equipment?

A

Yes, the fuel status computer.

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88
Q

What does the fuel remaining on the fuel status display indicate?

A

Total fuel remaining except for fuel in the auxiliary tank.

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89
Q

When does the FUEL LEVEL LOW light come on?

A

When either of the 2 float switches in the lower fuselage tanks indicate 415 +- 25lbs remaining in the associated tank.

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90
Q

How is fuel distribution achieved?

A

Gravity, boost pumps and jet pumps.

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91
Q

How many fuel boost pumps are there?

A

Two per lower fuselage tank.

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92
Q

How are the fuel boost pumps powered?

A

Outer (main) are powered from opposite side main bus, Inner(alternate) is powered from same side main bus.

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93
Q

How is the alternate fuel boost pump operated?

A

By switching on the switch or automatically if the engine supply line pressure drops to below 7 PSI

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94
Q

How are the fuel shutoff valves operated?

A

Pressing the fuel shutoff valve switch or pressing the fire warning push button.

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95
Q

When should tip tank transfer take place?

A

Fuel remaining is 6500lb

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96
Q

How is fuel dump achieved?

A

Gravity, boosted or both.

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97
Q

How does gravity dump work for tip tanks?

A

Press dump pushbutton with transfer valve closed. Dumps fuel at 200lb/min/tank, empties tank in 4 min

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98
Q

How does fuel dump work for all tanks?

A

Transfer valves open, boost pumps on, 333lb/min/side until tip tanks are empty then 133lb/min/side

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99
Q

How much fuel is left at the dump stop level?

A

970lb per side (1940lb total)

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100
Q

Where is the pressure refueling port?

A

On fuselage under right wing

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101
Q

Where are the gravity refueling ports?

A

upper fuselage fuel tank access panels

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102
Q

How does one gravity refuel?

A

close interconnect valves, pull down wing and tip manual fill valves.

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103
Q

How does one pressure refuel?

A

pull down tip manual fill valves

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104
Q

Max refuel pressure?

A

55 PSI

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105
Q

What type of engine is fitted?

A

2 Garrett TFE731-3-1G turbofans

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106
Q

What is the rated thrust?

A

3700lb per engine

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107
Q

How many spools does the engine have?

A

2

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108
Q

What is the bypass ratio?

A

2.73:1

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109
Q

What type of compressors do the engines have?

A

4 stage axial, followed by a single stage centrifugal

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110
Q

What drives the accessory gearbox?

A

N2

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111
Q

How is the fan driven?

A

By N1 through planetary gears

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112
Q

What type of combustor is fitted?

A

Reverse flow, annular.

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113
Q

How many fuel nozzles per engine?

A

12

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114
Q

How many igniters per engine?

A

2, 6 and 7 o’clock positions

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115
Q

What does the ENG anti-ice provide?

A

Pt2/Tt2 heat

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116
Q

What does a green NAC light indicate?

A

Nacelle bleed anti-ice air is above 20PSI

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117
Q

Where is NAC air sourced from?

A

HP bleed air

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118
Q

What does a red pin protruding from the engine accessory gearbox indicate?

A

Oil filter blocked

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119
Q

What is normal oil pressure?

A

42+-4psi @>68% N2

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120
Q

How is oil cooled?

A

Fuel heater and oil/air heat exchanger

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121
Q

When is the accessory gearbox vented?

A

Below 27,000ft, above that the breather pressurisation valve closes to maintain 3.5PSI

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122
Q

When does the ENG OIL PRESS LOW light come on?

A

Oil pressure below 25PSI

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123
Q

Does the IGN ON button need to be pressed for start?

A

No, the ignition functions automatically during the start sequence.

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124
Q

What do the DEECs provide?

A

Fuel Scheduling;
Overspeed protection;
Surge protection;
Temperature protection;

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125
Q

When does the DEEC automatically shut down the engine?

A

109% N1, 110%N2

126
Q

Why should the fuel conrroller switch be left in normal mode following DEEC failure?

A

N1 overspeed is still provided.

127
Q

How many fuel manifolds are there per engine?

A

2

128
Q

When is ENRICH mode used?

A

OAT -18C (0F) and below and during airstart to 300-400ITT

129
Q

Is there a thrust reverser backup system?

A

Yes, Nitrogen charged accumulator

130
Q

How can the thrust reverser accumulator pressure be checked?

A

Behind hydraulic service door on fuselage below left engine pylon.

131
Q

How are thrust reversers actuated?

A

Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated.

132
Q

What is normal operating pressure for the thrust reversers?

A

2000PSI

133
Q

When does the reverser HYD PRESS LOW annunciator come on?

A

1400 PSI +-75

134
Q

What is max reverse N1?

A

80%

135
Q

When should reversers be deployed?

A

Once nose wheel is on ground with forward pressure on yoke

136
Q

Which gases are used in the fire warning system?

A

Hydrogen and Helium

137
Q

When an engine fire condition is detected, which lights illuminate?

A

The respective FIRE switch

138
Q

What does pressing the respective FIRE switch do?

A

Closes both the fuel and hydraulic valves arms the appropriate cartridge on each cylinder and illuminates the full light.

139
Q

What does pressing the respective FULL/EMPTY switch do?

A

detonates the charge on the appropriate squib and releases the extinguishant, illuminates the EMPTY light.

140
Q

What type of extinguishant is used?

A

HALON / BCF

141
Q

Where are the portable extinguishers?

A

Behind pilot seat and RH aft pax cabin wall

142
Q

What are the primary sources of electrical power?

A

2 Starter/Generators which supply 28VDC to their respective busses.

143
Q

What are the secondary sources of electrical power?

A

two batteries (NiCad) connected to two permanently tied battery busses. ground power receptacle which connects to the battery bus

144
Q

Where is AC power sourced?

A

2 Static inverters providing 115VAC and 26VAC

145
Q

How can individual battery voltage be read?

A

By switching the battery master off

146
Q

What are the specifications of the batteries?

A

24V, 20 Cell, 36 Amp/hour, NiCad x2

147
Q

What does the OVERLOAD REDUCT switch on the battery control panel do?

A

Overrides automatic load reduction while a generator is offline.

148
Q

Where is the battery temperature guage?

A

On the RHS instrument panel.

149
Q

When does the BATT OVERHEAT light come on?

A

When battery temperature reaches 140 deg F

150
Q

What is the generator rated output (V)?

A

rated 30VDC, regulated to 28.5VDC

151
Q

If a generator is offline, does any equipment automatically switch off?

A

Yes, windshield and baggage heat.

152
Q

During start when does the GCU terminate the start sequence?

A

50% N2

153
Q

How does the GCU balance load?

A

parallels loads to not exceed an imbalance of >35Amp

154
Q

Where is the external power receptacle?

A

Left fuselage aft of main baggage door.

155
Q

What power does the external power provide?

A

28Vdc with soft start capability and able to supply 1000Amp during engine start.

156
Q

Which bus does the external power unit connect to?

A

Battery bus

157
Q

With the EPU connected, what does the GCU do?

A

Keeps the generators disconnected until external power is removed.

158
Q

What does the overvoltage relay do?

A

Disconnects the EPU if voltage exxceeds 29.5V

159
Q

Which systems are hot wired to the batteries?

A

Pressure refueling;
battery voltmeter;
entrance step light;
Baggage compartment light.

160
Q

How are the batteries charged?

A

External power or generators

161
Q

Which power sources provide engine start?

A

Battery, external power or generator assist after 1st engine start.

162
Q

When must external power be removed?

A

After 1st engine start so that the generator can power the electrical system.

163
Q

When must starter assist be used in an airstart?

A

N2<15%

164
Q

When should the ENRICH feature be used?

A

When temp is below 0F, -18C

165
Q

What does the ALT position do on the AC CONTROL panel?

A

Powers the bus from the opposite side inverter

166
Q

What does the OFF position do on the AC CONTROL panel?

A

The respective bus is de-powered, the inverter remains powered.

167
Q

What does AC BUS FAILED annunciator indicate?

A

The respective 115VAC bus has power loss on that bus (<100V)

168
Q

Where are the inverters located?

A

Nose compartment

169
Q

What are the 4 main lighting circuits?

A

Flight compartment;
passenger compartment;
Baggage and service compartment;
Exterior.

170
Q

What does the COCKPIT LIGHTS MASTER ON/OFF switch do

A

switches the panel lights on and off

171
Q

How is the panel flood light controlled?

A

COCKPIT LIGHTS FLOOD, bright-off-dim switch and rheostat

172
Q

What does the DOME light switch do

A

switches on the dome light above and behind the captains seat for overall cockpit illumination.

173
Q

What does the READ-INDIRECT READ light switch do?

A

READ: power is available to the reading lights above each seat.
INDIRECT READ: power is available to the reading lights above each seat and the cabin lighting, in this position the the galley can switch the indirect lighting on or off.

174
Q

When do the belts/no smoking signs illuminate?

A

When the nose gear is not up and locked and when switched on in the cockpit.

175
Q

What are and how are the courtesy lights powered?

A

Stair light and light above entrance, hot wired to No.2 Battery, switch above main cabin door and automatically off when door closed.

176
Q

How are the emergency lights powered?

A

Aircraft electrical system or emergency battery pack located adjacent to the main cabin door light.

177
Q

How is the baggage compartment lighting powered?

A

Hot wired to battery bus.

178
Q

Exterior lights consist of?

A 
Wing inspection;
Landing;
Taxi;
position/strobe;
Anti collision;
Logo (on some models).
179
Q

Where are the taxi and landing lights located?

A

Main gear struts and wing tip tanks respectively

180
Q

When are the taxi lights prevented from operating?

A

When nose gear is not down and locked

181
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there?

A

2, main and emergency

182
Q

What sort of Hydraulic fluid does the aircraft operate on?

A

Skydrol 500B or equivalent

183
Q

What pressure does the main hydraulic system operate to?

A

2000PSI

184
Q

What pressure does the emergency hydraulic system operate to?

A

750-1300PSI

185
Q

What does the main hydraulic system operate?

A 
Gear;
brakes, antiskid;
nosewheel steering;
lift dump and speed brakes;
thrust reverse.
186
Q

What does the emergency hydraulic system operate?

A

emergency brakes

187
Q

What powers the hydraulic system?

A

Engine driven pumps

188
Q

How is cavitation in the hydraulic reservoir prevented?

A

10PSI diff pressure from bleed system.

189
Q

Shat type of pump powers the hydraulic system?

A

7 piston variable displacement engine driven

190
Q

When does the HYD PRESS illuminate?

A

<1400PSI

191
Q

If power is lost, what happens to the hydraulic pressure indicator?

A

Remains in last recoded position.

192
Q

How is the emergency Hydraulic system powered?

A

Electrically driven hydraulic pump.

193
Q

How much pressure does the emergency system provide?

A

800-1000PSI

194
Q

How does the emergency hydraulic pump vary displacement?

A

Switches on and off

195
Q

When is the emergency hydraulic pump prevented from operating?

A

When both main landing gear are locked up.

196
Q

How many tyres does the landing gear consist of?

A

single main tyres (2) and dual nose gear

197
Q

How is the gear extended and retracted?

A

Hydraulically with an emergency pneumatic blow down system.

198
Q

Which gear struts have ground contact switches?

A

All three

199
Q

How does the main gear retract?

A

Outwards into the wings.

200
Q

What does the main landing gear door cover?

A

The strut assembly.

201
Q

What type of struts are used on the landing gear?

A

Hydraulic/Pneaumatic

202
Q

What happens to steering when the nose wheel leaves the ground?

A

The steering is disabled and the nose gear is mechanically centered.

203
Q

How is the aircraft steered if hydraulic pressure fails on landing?

A

A hydraulic pressure switch opens allowing free flow of fluid between nose wheel steering actuating cylinders so that the aircraft can be steered with brakes.

204
Q

When should Hi (sensitivity nosewheel steering) be used?

A

Normally low, Hi only when maneuvering or parking

205
Q

How is the gear lever prevented from moving on the ground?

A

Spring loaded lock, released via a solenoid.

206
Q

How is the emergency gear system activated?

A

EMERGENCY GEAR DOWN handle on left side of control pedestal.

207
Q

How many wheel speed detectors are there in the brake system?

A

2

208
Q

What type of brakes are fitted?

A

Disc brakes on main wheels

209
Q

What is a precaution when setting the park brake?

A

Anti-skid must be off.

210
Q

Where are the Anti-Skid inop lights?

A

Windshield centre post and next to anti skid switch on left side panel

211
Q

How is the park brake set?

A

Pressing the toe brakes to build pressure and locking the pressure in with the park brake lever.

212
Q

Which pressure does the park brake use?

A

Normal or emergency park hydraulic pressure

213
Q

What is the emergency hydraulic system for?

A

Emergency brakes only

214
Q

When does the emergency hydraulic pump operate?

A

When gear is not locked up and main pressure drops below 800PSI

215
Q

Where is bleed air sourced?

A

HP and LP from each engine

216
Q

What does bleed air supply?

A 
Pressurisation;
Aircon;
anti-ice;
deice;
Hydraulic reservoir pressure.
217
Q

What temp does bleed air exit the engine?

A

250deg F and 500deg F above ambient respectively.

218
Q

Where do the De-Ice boots get air from?

A

LP duct

219
Q

Where does the nacelle anti-ice get air from?

A

HP Duct

220
Q

Which side provides better Aircon on the ground?

A

RH

221
Q

When does the BLEED LINE OVERPRESS annunciator come on?

A

Bleed air pressure >44 PSI +-4
or;
Temp > 575 deg F +-25

222
Q

What does the flood duct valve do?

A

Closed(pulled out): more air to rear cabin through bulkheads

Open(pushed in): normal flow

223
Q

What do the manual DEFOG and AIR COND PILOTS controls do?

A

Supply air to windshield and pilots foot wells respectively.

224
Q

What does ram air supply(aircon)?

A

cools air in refrigeration unit and can be ducted into cabin if RAM selected.

225
Q

Where is ram air sourced (aircon)?

A

Flush type scoops on upper fuselage.

226
Q

How much water is removed in the water separator?

A

up to 80%

227
Q

How is cabin air temp sensed?

A

Sensor below RH emergency exit with electric fan below cabin floor to pass air across sensor

228
Q

What is the minimum temperature exiting the water separator?

A

35 deg F (1.66C)

229
Q

What does the selection of RAM on the cabin temperature control panel cause?

A

Opens ram air valve and outflow valves and depressurizes the cabin.

230
Q

What does the selection of L/R ENG on the cabin temperature control panel cause?

A

Only L or R engine bleed air is used for pressurisation.

231
Q

What does the selection of BOTH ENGINES on the cabin temperature control panel cause?

A

Both engine bleed air is used for pressurisation

232
Q

What does the selection of EMER on the cabin temperature control panel cause?

A

Only R engine LP bleed air is used for pressurisation bypassing the ECU.

233
Q

How is cabin pressure regulated?

A

controlling the outflow valve position

234
Q

What does the GROUND PRESS switch do?

A

Stops pressurisation surges during takeoff by disabling the dump solenoid on outflow valve #2

235
Q

What differential pressure does the pressurisation system maintain?

A

8.8 PSI

236
Q

What does the MAN DUMP bezel do?

A

manually controls the No.1 outflow valve.

237
Q

What happens to the pressurisation system during engine start?

A

The cabin pressures rapidly after the 1st engine start, it would be advantageous to open the pilot’s window.

238
Q

How does the GROUND PRESS switch work?

A

select cabin air to BOTH ENGINES with thrust partially advanced for 30 Sec, then press GROUND PRESS

239
Q

When does the CABIN ABOVE 10,000 illuminate?

A

Cabin at 10,000ft

240
Q

Where do the captain’s pitot/static instruments get their data?

A

LH pitot and lower heated static ports via the air data computer

241
Q

Where do the FOs pitot/static instruments get their data?

A

RH pitot and Upper heated static ports

242
Q

Which static port is used for the outflow and safety valves?

A

Unheated triple unit on the left side of the aircraft, only 2 ports are used.

243
Q

The Captains altimeter supplies which other devises with ALT info?

A

Transponder and Altitude alerter.

244
Q

Pressing test on the Captains altimeter does what?

A

moves needle to 750ft and inhibits transponder output.

245
Q

When does the altitude alerter provide alerts?

A

when within 1000ft and 300ft of preselected level

246
Q

What else does the altitude alerter provide?

A

Autopilot altitude preselect.

247
Q

Where is the free air temp bulb sensor?

A

Fuselage skin above co-pilots windshield.

248
Q

When does the magnetic compass red heading correctly?

A

When windshield heat is off.

249
Q

What does the emergency AH run off?

A

Emergency batteries (NiCad) located in the radio rack.

250
Q

How long will the Emergency AH operate for?

A

30 min or 60 min depending on unit installed.

251
Q

Does the clock need to be re-set after power up?

A

No, an internal battery keeps the clock running when power is off.

252
Q

How can VHF radio frequencies be tuned up?

A

Either through the respective radio control head or the FMS-90

253
Q

Where is the HF antenna?

A

Long wire between fuselage and tail of aircraft.

254
Q

What do the 3 position toggle switches do on the audio panel?

A

up-speakers, down-phones, centre-off

255
Q

Which controls select which source to listen to?

A

3 position toggles

256
Q

How does one select who to talk to through transmitter?

A

rotating bezel: COM 1, COM 2, PA, INTER, HF

257
Q

How many VHF transceivers are there?

A

2

258
Q

How many VHF NAV transceivers are there?

A

2

259
Q

What does VHF NAV provide?

A

VOR, LOC, G/S, Marker beacon

260
Q

Does the VHF NAV require testing?

A

Has built in self-test

261
Q

What does VHF NAV drive?

A

Flight Director HSI, RMI, Autopilot, CDI and RNAV.

262
Q

How many and where are the VHF nav antennae?

A

single glideslope on nose supplying both NAV and dual VOR/LOC either side of Vert stabiliser

263
Q

How is the VHF NAV controlled?

A

Either through the respective radio control head or the FMS-90

264
Q

Where do the RMIs get heading info?

A

Opposite side HSIs

265
Q

What additional info is displayed on Captains’ RMI?

A

DME

266
Q

What range is DME accurate?

A

250nm

267
Q

Where is RADALT displayed?

A

on ADI

268
Q

What does the CVR record?

A

Last 30 min of remote microphone and both pilot’s mics.

269
Q

How many autopilots are installed?

A

1

270
Q

How does the Autopilot/YD control the aircraft surfaces?

A

Autopilot controls the Elevator and ailerons, YD: rudder

271
Q

How many static dischargers are there per control surface?

A

3 on top of tail;
4 on each elevator;
5 on each wing tip/tank.

272
Q

What de/anti ice systems are there?

A 
Deice boots;
Engine inlet and sensor;
windshield heat;
Pitot and AOA;
Windshield desiccant and defog.
273
Q

What rain protections are there?

A

Windshield wipers.

274
Q

Which surfaces have deice boots?

A

Wings and stabiliser

275
Q

What pressure does the deice boots run on?

A

18PSI

276
Q

When should deice boots not be used?

A

Takeoff and landing and below -40 Deg C/F

277
Q

What does the selection of SINGLE on the deice panel do?

A

Operates the wing deice boots for 6 sec then the tail for 4 sec.

278
Q

What does the selection of CONT on the deice panel do?

A

Operates the wing deice boots for 6 sec then the tail for 4 sec then 50 sec rest, on repeat.

279
Q

Should CONT or SINGLE be selected on the deice panel?

A

SINGLE is not recommended.

280
Q

How much ice should be allowed to form prior to deice deployment?

A

half an inch

281
Q

What does operation of the MANUAL switch on the deice panel do?

A

Inflates the selected boots

282
Q

How long should the MANUAL switch on the deice panel be held?

A

not more than 10sec

283
Q

What does the SURFACE DEICING annunciator indicate?

A

too much pressure or too little vacuum, do not use deice boots.

284
Q

When electrical power fails, what happens to nacelle anti-ice?

A

Fails to on.

285
Q

How is the P2/T2 sensor protected?

A

If oil pressure drops below 25PSI then the sensor is switched off.

286
Q

What does the green NAC light indicate?

A

The nacelle is receiving adequate anti-ice air

287
Q

What does the green ENG light indicate?

A

The P2/T2 sensor is receiving power

288
Q

Which windshields are heated?

A

Both main

289
Q

How does the windshield heat operate in AUTO mode?

A

The temperature controller maintains the windshield at 68-92 deg F when skin temperature is above 5 deg C when below 5 deg C the temperature controller maintains the windshield at 100-118 deg F

290
Q

How does the windshield heat operate in HI mode?

A

The temperature controller maintains the windshield at 100-118 deg F

291
Q

If a generator fails, how does this affect windshield heat?

A

it is disconnected, to reconnect, switch the battery master to OVRD LOAD REDUCTION

292
Q

When must desiccant be replaced?

A

When the colour changes to the REPLACE DESICCANT colour.

293
Q

When should wipers not be used?

A

on dry windshield

294
Q

When should windshield heat be used?

A

during icing conditions

295
Q

Where is defog air supplied?

A

windshields and side windows

296
Q

What does selecting AUTO on the pitot/static anti-ice panel do?

A

The pitot tubes, static vents and AOA probe a provided with power as soon as the nose gear lifts off the ground.

297
Q

What does the oxygen system provide?

A

Supplemental oxygen for crew and passengers

298
Q

When is oxygen available to passengers?

A

Manually or automatically at 13500ft +- 500ft Cabin ALT

299
Q

Where is the oxygen bottle?

A

Front right nose compartment

300
Q

Where is the oxygen overpressure disc?

A

Green, right nose skin

301
Q

Can the oxygen bottle be isolated from the system?

A

Yes, with the oxygen shutoff valve FWD of RH console

302
Q

What must happen above 41,000ft?

A

Crew must use oxygen and passengers must wear masks

303
Q

What pressures does the oxygen system operate at?

A

1800-2000 PSI from bottle, 65-95 PSI after pressure reduction

304
Q

Which type of mask is fitted to the CJR aircraft?

A

Eros type, integrated regulator

305
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Eros mask?

A

Microphone, Mask and hose assembly

306
Q

When in normal position, what does the Eros mask supply?

A

Air/Oxygen mix up to 30,000ft when 100% oxygen is supplied.

307
Q

When above 33,000ft, what happens to the Eros mask?

A

positive pressure is supplied (100%oxy)

308
Q

When in TEST position, what does the Eros mask supply?

A

positive pressure oxygen at any altitude <33,000ft

309
Q

How many therapeutic masks are there?

A

1

310
Q

What does the bypass valve switch do on the passenger oxygen system?

A

bypasses the solenoid valve in case of power failure.

Capital Jet Resources (5 decks)

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