Westwind AGK Flashcards
1
Q
Nose Gear strut minimum extension?
A
1.5 inches
2
Q
If water is found in fuselage fuel sump drain what must happen?
A
Wing and tip tanks must be drained
3
Q
Main Gear strut minimum extension?
A
1.5 inches
4
Q
How many static dischargers per aileron?
A
2
5
Q
Minimum oil quantity for dispatch?
A
1 Qt low
6
Q
When should oil level be checked?
A
within 15 min of shutdown
7
Q
How many static dischargers on tail?
A
3
8
Q
Max reverse thrust?
A
Mechanically limited to 80%N1
above 5300ft limit to 73%N1
9
Q
What are system voltages?
A
28VDC
115VAC
26VAC
10
Q
What type and how many batteries are installed?
A
24VDC 36 Amp Hour NiCad x 2
11
Q
External power should be?
A
28VDC rated to 1000Amps for starting
12
Q
Which items are hot wired?
A
single point refuelling
Battery voltmeter
Entrance step light
Baggage compartment light
13
Q
The BSVs (bleed switching valves) require what to operate?
A
Bleed air and DC power, if not, they remain open.
14
Q
When does automatic oxygen deploy?
A
13,500ft +- 500ft cabin Alt
15
Q
How many lift dumpers are there?
A
3 per wing
16
Q
What are the speed brakes?
A
2 of the lift dumpers
17
Q
Which side is the aileron trim tab on?
A
Left
18
Q
How many seats would a westwind typically have?
A
12 including crew (2)
19
Q
Number of baggage compartments?
A
2, both rear of passenger cabin
20
Q
Is the cargo bay pressurised?
A
No
21
Q
Where is the oxygen service port
A
adjacent to copilot’s pitot tube
22
Q
Where are the oxygen masks located?
A
Behind pilot seats
23
Q
Which cockpit windows open?
A
pilots side only
24
Q
Are the double layers windshields heated?
A
Yes, the outer one
25
How are the double layered windshields vented?
into nose compartment through a desiccant tube
26
When should windshield desiccant be replaced?
When it matches the replace desiccant colour label colour.
27
How many point harness is the seatbelt?
4
28
What powers the main door warning system?
#1 DC distribution bus
29
How does the door lock?
Outside only
30
How many cabin windows are there?
5L, 6R
31
From where can the door and emergency exits be openned?
Inside or out.
32
If aux fuel tanks are installed in the main baggage compartment, what are the considerations W.R.T. heat?
FWD BAG COMP HEAT CB pulled and baggage compartment heat is off
33
Is the baggage compartment heated?
Yes, thermal blankets in side walls, ceiling and floor. 45-50 deg F
34
Main baggage max load?
820lb, 105lb/ft2
35
Rear baggage max load?
250lb, 32lb/ft2
36
How does one access the baggage compartments?
Separate doors on left rear side of fuselage.
37
How many vortex generators can be missing from the wings?
2 Per wing max.
38
How many vortex generators are there?
10 per wing
39
How are the ailerons and trim tab operated?
Ailerons: manually, Trim: Electric
40
How are the flaps operated?
Electrically
41
How do the lift dumpers/speed brakes function?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated
42
How is the rudder and trim tab operated?
Rudder: manually, Trim: Electric
43
Wingspan?
52' 3" (15.92m)
44
Length?
44' 10" (13.66m)
45
How is the elevator and trim tab operated?
Elevator: manually, Trim: Electric
46
Radome danger area?
30ft(9m) fuel, 300ft(91m) personnel
47
Engine frontal danger area?
12ft(3.6m)
48
How are the ailerons balanced?
Mass balance tabs forward of the hinge providing 100% mass balance. Plus a servo tab on the right aileron.
49
How many hinges attach each aileron to the wing?
4
50
Which bus powers the aileron trim?
No 2 dist bus
51
How is the aileron trim controlled?
2 position switch on the control pedestal.
52
How is the elevator balanced?
pre loaded with 2 loading springs
53
How is the elevator trim operated?
Normally by pitch trim switches on the control wheels.
54
If the pitch trim release button is pressed on the inside of the pilots control wheel what happens?
de-energises the normal trim system.
55
Why must caution be used when operating the override horizontal trim system?
There are no limit switches built in.
56
Does the rudder have a servo tab?
Yes, it has a combination trim and servo tab.
57
Can rudder pedals be adjusted?
Yes, forward and back with a handcrank above the pedals.
58
How is rudder trim effected?
Through a spring loaded toggle on the centre pedestal.
59
How is the yaw damper engaged?
With a switch on the control pedestal.
60
Is there an indication of yaw damper engagement/disengagement?
An annunciator on each pilot's instrument panel indicates yaw damper disengagement.
61
What does the gust lock achieve?
It locks the controls (under floor behind main cabin door) and prevents thrust above idle.
62
What type of flaps are fitted?
Double slotted fowler
63
What prevents flap drive damage?
torque limiting clutch set at 1.5 x normal rated torque.
64
What is the flap extend/retract time?
14, 10 seconds respectively.
65
When do the flap limiter switches trigger?
1/2 deg prior to selected position.
66
Can the flap unbalance system be re-set?
Yes, by actuating the flap unbalance test switch.
67
If the flaps do not reach their selected position within 20Sec, what happens?
A time exceed relay pops the flap control CB
68
What limitations are there in relation to speed brakes and lift dumpers?
None and only on ground respectively
69
How are the speed brakes and lift dumpers operated?
switches on the control pedestal.
70
What indicates that the speed brakes and lift dumpers are up?
SB EXT and LD EXT annunciator lights
71
What are the conditions for the lift dumpers to operate?
Lift dump switch on;
weight on main gear;
both thrust @ idle
72
How are the lift dumpers and speed brakes attached to the wing?
Piano hinges
73
If lift dumpers deploy and weight is removed from the main gear struts, what happens?
The lift dumpers remain deployed unless thrust is moved from idle
74
The AOA indicator shows 100% lift, this means?
Stall
75
Where is the AOA sensor?
Right side of fuselage
76
What serial Number is VH-IER
359
77
How many fuel tanks are there?
12, 6 per engine, tip tank, inner/centre/outer wing tanks, upper/lower fuselage tanks
78
What type of fuel tanks are installed?
Wing and tip tanks are wet tanks, the upper/lower fuselage are bladder tanks.
79
What is the configuration of the fuselage tanks?
Centre wing tanks are between the upper and lower fuselage tanks which are divided longitudinally into left and right sections.
80
What is a requirement for fueling the tip tanks?
The fueling check valve must be opened by pulling the actuating lever and pushed back to ensure normal operation.
81
How is the fuel in the tip tanks used?
1/2 of the fuel gravity feeds into the outer wing tanks, the remainder is transferred with a jet pump in each tank.
82
What do the blue lights on the fuel indicator panel indicate?
Fuel in tip tanks.
83
What happens if a fuel vent float sticks open?
Fuel will drain from the wing.
84
Can a fuel vent float be unstuck?
Yes, shake the wing.
85
How is fuel level measured?
4 capacitance probes in each tank.
86
What do the fuel gauges indicate?
Total useable fuel in lbs from 0-4800
87
Do the fuel quantity indicators supply any other equipment?
Yes, the fuel status computer.
88
What does the fuel remaining on the fuel status display indicate?
Total fuel remaining except for fuel in the auxiliary tank.
89
When does the FUEL LEVEL LOW light come on?
When either of the 2 float switches in the lower fuselage tanks indicate 415 +- 25lbs remaining in the associated tank.
90
How is fuel distribution achieved?
Gravity, boost pumps and jet pumps.
91
How many fuel boost pumps are there?
Two per lower fuselage tank.
92
How are the fuel boost pumps powered?
Outer (main) are powered from opposite side main bus, Inner(alternate) is powered from same side main bus.
93
How is the alternate fuel boost pump operated?
By switching on the switch or automatically if the engine supply line pressure drops to below 7 PSI
94
How are the fuel shutoff valves operated?
Pressing the fuel shutoff valve switch or pressing the fire warning push button.
95
When should tip tank transfer take place?
Fuel remaining is 6500lb
96
How is fuel dump achieved?
Gravity, boosted or both.
97
How does gravity dump work for tip tanks?
Press dump pushbutton with transfer valve closed. Dumps fuel at 200lb/min/tank, empties tank in 4 min
98
How does fuel dump work for all tanks?
Transfer valves open, boost pumps on, 333lb/min/side until tip tanks are empty then 133lb/min/side
99
How much fuel is left at the dump stop level?
970lb per side (1940lb total)
100
Where is the pressure refueling port?
On fuselage under right wing
101
Where are the gravity refueling ports?
upper fuselage fuel tank access panels
102
How does one gravity refuel?
close interconnect valves, pull down wing and tip manual fill valves.
103
How does one pressure refuel?
pull down tip manual fill valves
104
Max refuel pressure?
55 PSI
105
What type of engine is fitted?
2 Garrett TFE731-3-1G turbofans
106
What is the rated thrust?
3700lb per engine
107
How many spools does the engine have?
2
108
What is the bypass ratio?
2.73:1
109
What type of compressors do the engines have?
4 stage axial, followed by a single stage centrifugal
110
What drives the accessory gearbox?
N2
111
How is the fan driven?
By N1 through planetary gears
112
What type of combustor is fitted?
Reverse flow, annular.
113
How many fuel nozzles per engine?
12
114
How many igniters per engine?
2, 6 and 7 o'clock positions
115
What does the ENG anti-ice provide?
Pt2/Tt2 heat
116
What does a green NAC light indicate?
Nacelle bleed anti-ice air is above 20PSI
117
Where is NAC air sourced from?
HP bleed air
118
What does a red pin protruding from the engine accessory gearbox indicate?
Oil filter blocked
119
What is normal oil pressure?
42+-4psi @>68% N2
120
How is oil cooled?
Fuel heater and oil/air heat exchanger
121
When is the accessory gearbox vented?
Below 27,000ft, above that the breather pressurisation valve closes to maintain 3.5PSI
122
When does the ENG OIL PRESS LOW light come on?
Oil pressure below 25PSI
123
Does the IGN ON button need to be pressed for start?
No, the ignition functions automatically during the start sequence.
124
What do the DEECs provide?
Fuel Scheduling;
Overspeed protection;
Surge protection;
Temperature protection;
125
When does the DEEC automatically shut down the engine?
109% N1, 110%N2
126
Why should the fuel conrroller switch be left in normal mode following DEEC failure?
N1 overspeed is still provided.
127
How many fuel manifolds are there per engine?
2
128
When is ENRICH mode used?
OAT -18C (0F) and below and during airstart to 300-400ITT
129
Is there a thrust reverser backup system?
Yes, Nitrogen charged accumulator
130
How can the thrust reverser accumulator pressure be checked?
Behind hydraulic service door on fuselage below left engine pylon.
131
How are thrust reversers actuated?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated.
132
What is normal operating pressure for the thrust reversers?
2000PSI
133
When does the reverser HYD PRESS LOW annunciator come on?
1400 PSI +-75
134
What is max reverse N1?
80%
135
When should reversers be deployed?
Once nose wheel is on ground with forward pressure on yoke
136
Which gases are used in the fire warning system?
Hydrogen and Helium
137
When an engine fire condition is detected, which lights illuminate?
The respective FIRE switch
138
What does pressing the respective FIRE switch do?
Closes both the fuel and hydraulic valves arms the appropriate cartridge on each cylinder and illuminates the full light.
139
What does pressing the respective FULL/EMPTY switch do?
detonates the charge on the appropriate squib and releases the extinguishant, illuminates the EMPTY light.
140
What type of extinguishant is used?
HALON / BCF
141
Where are the portable extinguishers?
Behind pilot seat and RH aft pax cabin wall
142
What are the primary sources of electrical power?
2 Starter/Generators which supply 28VDC to their respective busses.
143
What are the secondary sources of electrical power?
two batteries (NiCad) connected to two permanently tied battery busses. ground power receptacle which connects to the battery bus
144
Where is AC power sourced?
2 Static inverters providing 115VAC and 26VAC
145
How can individual battery voltage be read?
By switching the battery master off
146
What are the specifications of the batteries?
24V, 20 Cell, 36 Amp/hour, NiCad x2
147
What does the OVERLOAD REDUCT switch on the battery control panel do?
Overrides automatic load reduction while a generator is offline.
148
Where is the battery temperature guage?
On the RHS instrument panel.
149
When does the BATT OVERHEAT light come on?
When battery temperature reaches 140 deg F
150
What is the generator rated output (V)?
rated 30VDC, regulated to 28.5VDC
151
If a generator is offline, does any equipment automatically switch off?
Yes, windshield and baggage heat.
152
During start when does the GCU terminate the start sequence?
50% N2
153
How does the GCU balance load?
parallels loads to not exceed an imbalance of >35Amp
154
Where is the external power receptacle?
Left fuselage aft of main baggage door.
155
What power does the external power provide?
28Vdc with soft start capability and able to supply 1000Amp during engine start.
156
Which bus does the external power unit connect to?
Battery bus
157
With the EPU connected, what does the GCU do?
Keeps the generators disconnected until external power is removed.
158
What does the overvoltage relay do?
Disconnects the EPU if voltage exxceeds 29.5V
159
Which systems are hot wired to the batteries?
Pressure refueling;
battery voltmeter;
entrance step light;
Baggage compartment light.
160
How are the batteries charged?
External power or generators
161
Which power sources provide engine start?
Battery, external power or generator assist after 1st engine start.
162
When must external power be removed?
After 1st engine start so that the generator can power the electrical system.
163
When must starter assist be used in an airstart?
N2<15%
164
When should the ENRICH feature be used?
When temp is below 0F, -18C
165
What does the ALT position do on the AC CONTROL panel?
Powers the bus from the opposite side inverter
166
What does the OFF position do on the AC CONTROL panel?
The respective bus is de-powered, the inverter remains powered.
167
What does AC BUS FAILED annunciator indicate?
The respective 115VAC bus has power loss on that bus (<100V)
168
Where are the inverters located?
Nose compartment
169
What are the 4 main lighting circuits?
Flight compartment;
passenger compartment;
Baggage and service compartment;
Exterior.
170
What does the COCKPIT LIGHTS MASTER ON/OFF switch do
switches the panel lights on and off
171
How is the panel flood light controlled?
COCKPIT LIGHTS FLOOD, bright-off-dim switch and rheostat
172
What does the DOME light switch do
switches on the dome light above and behind the captains seat for overall cockpit illumination.
173
What does the READ-INDIRECT READ light switch do?
READ: power is available to the reading lights above each seat.
INDIRECT READ: power is available to the reading lights above each seat and the cabin lighting, in this position the the galley can switch the indirect lighting on or off.
174
When do the belts/no smoking signs illuminate?
When the nose gear is not up and locked and when switched on in the cockpit.
175
What are and how are the courtesy lights powered?
Stair light and light above entrance, hot wired to No.2 Battery, switch above main cabin door and automatically off when door closed.
176
How are the emergency lights powered?
Aircraft electrical system or emergency battery pack located adjacent to the main cabin door light.
177
How is the baggage compartment lighting powered?
Hot wired to battery bus.
178
Exterior lights consist of?
```
Wing inspection;
Landing;
Taxi;
position/strobe;
Anti collision;
Logo (on some models).
```
179
Where are the taxi and landing lights located?
Main gear struts and wing tip tanks respectively
180
When are the taxi lights prevented from operating?
When nose gear is not down and locked
181
How many hydraulic systems are there?
2, main and emergency
182
What sort of Hydraulic fluid does the aircraft operate on?
Skydrol 500B or equivalent
183
What pressure does the main hydraulic system operate to?
2000PSI
184
What pressure does the emergency hydraulic system operate to?
750-1300PSI
185
What does the main hydraulic system operate?
```
Gear;
brakes, antiskid;
nosewheel steering;
lift dump and speed brakes;
thrust reverse.
```
186
What does the emergency hydraulic system operate?
emergency brakes
187
What powers the hydraulic system?
Engine driven pumps
188
How is cavitation in the hydraulic reservoir prevented?
10PSI diff pressure from bleed system.
189
Shat type of pump powers the hydraulic system?
7 piston variable displacement engine driven
190
When does the HYD PRESS illuminate?
<1400PSI
191
If power is lost, what happens to the hydraulic pressure indicator?
Remains in last recoded position.
192
How is the emergency Hydraulic system powered?
Electrically driven hydraulic pump.
193
How much pressure does the emergency system provide?
800-1000PSI
194
How does the emergency hydraulic pump vary displacement?
Switches on and off
195
When is the emergency hydraulic pump prevented from operating?
When both main landing gear are locked up.
196
How many tyres does the landing gear consist of?
single main tyres (2) and dual nose gear
197
How is the gear extended and retracted?
Hydraulically with an emergency pneumatic blow down system.
198
Which gear struts have ground contact switches?
All three
199
How does the main gear retract?
Outwards into the wings.
200
What does the main landing gear door cover?
The strut assembly.
201
What type of struts are used on the landing gear?
Hydraulic/Pneaumatic
202
What happens to steering when the nose wheel leaves the ground?
The steering is disabled and the nose gear is mechanically centered.
203
How is the aircraft steered if hydraulic pressure fails on landing?
A hydraulic pressure switch opens allowing free flow of fluid between nose wheel steering actuating cylinders so that the aircraft can be steered with brakes.
204
When should Hi (sensitivity nosewheel steering) be used?
Normally low, Hi only when maneuvering or parking
205
How is the gear lever prevented from moving on the ground?
Spring loaded lock, released via a solenoid.
206
How is the emergency gear system activated?
EMERGENCY GEAR DOWN handle on left side of control pedestal.
207
How many wheel speed detectors are there in the brake system?
2
208
What type of brakes are fitted?
Disc brakes on main wheels
209
What is a precaution when setting the park brake?
Anti-skid must be off.
210
Where are the Anti-Skid inop lights?
Windshield centre post and next to anti skid switch on left side panel
211
How is the park brake set?
Pressing the toe brakes to build pressure and locking the pressure in with the park brake lever.
212
Which pressure does the park brake use?
Normal or emergency park hydraulic pressure
213
What is the emergency hydraulic system for?
Emergency brakes only
214
When does the emergency hydraulic pump operate?
When gear is not locked up and main pressure drops below 800PSI
215
Where is bleed air sourced?
HP and LP from each engine
216
What does bleed air supply?
```
Pressurisation;
Aircon;
anti-ice;
deice;
Hydraulic reservoir pressure.
```
217
What temp does bleed air exit the engine?
250deg F and 500deg F above ambient respectively.
218
Where do the De-Ice boots get air from?
LP duct
219
Where does the nacelle anti-ice get air from?
HP Duct
220
Which side provides better Aircon on the ground?
RH
221
When does the BLEED LINE OVERPRESS annunciator come on?
Bleed air pressure >44 PSI +-4
or;
Temp > 575 deg F +-25
222
What does the flood duct valve do?
Closed(pulled out): more air to rear cabin through bulkheads
| Open(pushed in): normal flow
223
What do the manual DEFOG and AIR COND PILOTS controls do?
Supply air to windshield and pilots foot wells respectively.
224
What does ram air supply(aircon)?
cools air in refrigeration unit and can be ducted into cabin if RAM selected.
225
Where is ram air sourced (aircon)?
Flush type scoops on upper fuselage.
226
How much water is removed in the water separator?
up to 80%
227
How is cabin air temp sensed?
Sensor below RH emergency exit with electric fan below cabin floor to pass air across sensor
228
What is the minimum temperature exiting the water separator?
35 deg F (1.66C)
229
What does the selection of RAM on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Opens ram air valve and outflow valves and depressurizes the cabin.
230
What does the selection of L/R ENG on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Only L or R engine bleed air is used for pressurisation.
231
What does the selection of BOTH ENGINES on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Both engine bleed air is used for pressurisation
232
What does the selection of EMER on the cabin temperature control panel cause?
Only R engine LP bleed air is used for pressurisation bypassing the ECU.
233
How is cabin pressure regulated?
controlling the outflow valve position
234
What does the GROUND PRESS switch do?
Stops pressurisation surges during takeoff by disabling the dump solenoid on outflow valve #2
235
What differential pressure does the pressurisation system maintain?
8.8 PSI
236
What does the MAN DUMP bezel do?
manually controls the No.1 outflow valve.
237
What happens to the pressurisation system during engine start?
The cabin pressures rapidly after the 1st engine start, it would be advantageous to open the pilot's window.
238
How does the GROUND PRESS switch work?
select cabin air to BOTH ENGINES with thrust partially advanced for 30 Sec, then press GROUND PRESS
239
When does the CABIN ABOVE 10,000 illuminate?
Cabin at 10,000ft
240
Where do the captain's pitot/static instruments get their data?
LH pitot and lower heated static ports via the air data computer
241
Where do the FOs pitot/static instruments get their data?
RH pitot and Upper heated static ports
242
Which static port is used for the outflow and safety valves?
Unheated triple unit on the left side of the aircraft, only 2 ports are used.
243
The Captains altimeter supplies which other devises with ALT info?
Transponder and Altitude alerter.
244
Pressing test on the Captains altimeter does what?
moves needle to 750ft and inhibits transponder output.
245
When does the altitude alerter provide alerts?
when within 1000ft and 300ft of preselected level
246
What else does the altitude alerter provide?
Autopilot altitude preselect.
247
Where is the free air temp bulb sensor?
Fuselage skin above co-pilots windshield.
248
When does the magnetic compass red heading correctly?
When windshield heat is off.
249
What does the emergency AH run off?
Emergency batteries (NiCad) located in the radio rack.
250
How long will the Emergency AH operate for?
30 min or 60 min depending on unit installed.
251
Does the clock need to be re-set after power up?
No, an internal battery keeps the clock running when power is off.
252
How can VHF radio frequencies be tuned up?
Either through the respective radio control head or the FMS-90
253
Where is the HF antenna?
Long wire between fuselage and tail of aircraft.
254
What do the 3 position toggle switches do on the audio panel?
up-speakers, down-phones, centre-off
255
Which controls select which source to listen to?
3 position toggles
256
How does one select who to talk to through transmitter?
rotating bezel: COM 1, COM 2, PA, INTER, HF
257
How many VHF transceivers are there?
2
258
How many VHF NAV transceivers are there?
2
259
What does VHF NAV provide?
VOR, LOC, G/S, Marker beacon
260
Does the VHF NAV require testing?
Has built in self-test
261
What does VHF NAV drive?
Flight Director HSI, RMI, Autopilot, CDI and RNAV.
262
How many and where are the VHF nav antennae?
single glideslope on nose supplying both NAV and dual VOR/LOC either side of Vert stabiliser
263
How is the VHF NAV controlled?
Either through the respective radio control head or the FMS-90
264
Where do the RMIs get heading info?
Opposite side HSIs
265
What additional info is displayed on Captains' RMI?
DME
266
What range is DME accurate?
250nm
267
Where is RADALT displayed?
on ADI
268
What does the CVR record?
Last 30 min of remote microphone and both pilot's mics.
269
How many autopilots are installed?
1
270
How does the Autopilot/YD control the aircraft surfaces?
Autopilot controls the Elevator and ailerons, YD: rudder
271
How many static dischargers are there per control surface?
3 on top of tail;
4 on each elevator;
5 on each wing tip/tank.
272
What de/anti ice systems are there?
```
Deice boots;
Engine inlet and sensor;
windshield heat;
Pitot and AOA;
Windshield desiccant and defog.
```
273
What rain protections are there?
Windshield wipers.
274
Which surfaces have deice boots?
Wings and stabiliser
275
What pressure does the deice boots run on?
18PSI
276
When should deice boots not be used?
Takeoff and landing and below -40 Deg C/F
277
What does the selection of SINGLE on the deice panel do?
Operates the wing deice boots for 6 sec then the tail for 4 sec.
278
What does the selection of CONT on the deice panel do?
Operates the wing deice boots for 6 sec then the tail for 4 sec then 50 sec rest, on repeat.
279
Should CONT or SINGLE be selected on the deice panel?
SINGLE is not recommended.
280
How much ice should be allowed to form prior to deice deployment?
half an inch
281
What does operation of the MANUAL switch on the deice panel do?
Inflates the selected boots
282
How long should the MANUAL switch on the deice panel be held?
not more than 10sec
283
What does the SURFACE DEICING annunciator indicate?
too much pressure or too little vacuum, do not use deice boots.
284
When electrical power fails, what happens to nacelle anti-ice?
Fails to on.
285
How is the P2/T2 sensor protected?
If oil pressure drops below 25PSI then the sensor is switched off.
286
What does the green NAC light indicate?
The nacelle is receiving adequate anti-ice air
287
What does the green ENG light indicate?
The P2/T2 sensor is receiving power
288
Which windshields are heated?
Both main
289
How does the windshield heat operate in AUTO mode?
The temperature controller maintains the windshield at 68-92 deg F when skin temperature is above 5 deg C when below 5 deg C the temperature controller maintains the windshield at 100-118 deg F
290
How does the windshield heat operate in HI mode?
The temperature controller maintains the windshield at 100-118 deg F
291
If a generator fails, how does this affect windshield heat?
it is disconnected, to reconnect, switch the battery master to OVRD LOAD REDUCTION
292
When must desiccant be replaced?
When the colour changes to the REPLACE DESICCANT colour.
293
When should wipers not be used?
on dry windshield
294
When should windshield heat be used?
during icing conditions
295
Where is defog air supplied?
windshields and side windows
296
What does selecting AUTO on the pitot/static anti-ice panel do?
The pitot tubes, static vents and AOA probe a provided with power as soon as the nose gear lifts off the ground.
297
What does the oxygen system provide?
Supplemental oxygen for crew and passengers
298
When is oxygen available to passengers?
Manually or automatically at 13500ft +- 500ft Cabin ALT
299
Where is the oxygen bottle?
Front right nose compartment
300
Where is the oxygen overpressure disc?
Green, right nose skin
301
Can the oxygen bottle be isolated from the system?
Yes, with the oxygen shutoff valve FWD of RH console
302
What must happen above 41,000ft?
Crew must use oxygen and passengers must wear masks
303
What pressures does the oxygen system operate at?
1800-2000 PSI from bottle, 65-95 PSI after pressure reduction
304
Which type of mask is fitted to the CJR aircraft?
Eros type, integrated regulator
305
What are the 3 parts of the Eros mask?
Microphone, Mask and hose assembly
306
When in normal position, what does the Eros mask supply?
Air/Oxygen mix up to 30,000ft when 100% oxygen is supplied.
307
When above 33,000ft, what happens to the Eros mask?
positive pressure is supplied (100%oxy)
308
When in TEST position, what does the Eros mask supply?
positive pressure oxygen at any altitude <33,000ft
309
How many therapeutic masks are there?
1
310
What does the bypass valve switch do on the passenger oxygen system?
bypasses the solenoid valve in case of power failure.
