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Pre-Clinical Exam Prep > Western > Flashcards

Western Flashcards

1
Q

how many bones are in the body?

A

206

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2
Q

how many cervical bones and cervical nerves?

A

7 cervical vertebrae
8 cervical nerves

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3
Q

floating ribs:
how many? how many pairs? which ones?

A

11th and 12th rib
2 pairs
4 ribs

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4
Q

true ribs

A

are connected directly to the sternum

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5
Q

false ribs

A

connected by cartilage to the 7th rib
-8th, 9th, 10th rib

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6
Q

carpal bones: names and how many

A

8 carpal bones
Scaphoid,
lunate,
triquetrum,
pisiform
Trapezium,
trapezoid,
capitate,
hamate

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Cannot Handle

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7
Q

how many metacarpal bones?

A

5

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8
Q

how many phalange bones?

A

14
(each finger has 3, thumb has 2)

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9
Q

largest bone?

A

femur

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10
Q

medial malleolus is connected to?

A

tibia

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11
Q

lateral malleolus is connected to?

A

fibula

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12
Q

how many tarsal bones? and names

A

7
talus
Calcaneus
Navicular
medial cuneiform
intermediate cuneiform
lateral cuneiform
Cuboid

Tiger Cubs Need MILC

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13
Q

how many metatarsal bones

A

5

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14
Q

how many toe bones

A

14

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15
Q

the bone named vemur is located where?

A

nose bridge

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16
Q

the two floating bones are:

A

hyoid
pisiform (wrist)

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17
Q

head of the clavicle?

A

acromion

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18
Q

head of sternum?

A

manubrium

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19
Q

head of ulna?

A

olecranon

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20
Q

head of femur?

A

great trochanter

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21
Q

strongest muscle

A

soleus

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22
Q

rotator cuff muscles
names and quantity

A

4
SITS

supraspinatus
infraspinatus
teres minor
subscapularis

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23
Q

flow of blood

A
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24
Q

cranial nerves

A
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25
Q

growth hormone (gh)

A

-from anterior pituitary
-in muscle
-in adipose tissue

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26
Q

thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

from ant. pituitary to thyroid, releases:
–thyroxin = (t3/t4, metabolism)
–calcitonin

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27
Q

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

A

-from anterior pituitary

adrenal cortex releases:
1. mineralocorticoids (aldosterone, reabsorbs Na, if Na stays so does water, and BP raises)
2. glucocorticoids (cortisol–anti inflammatory, breaks down carbs and lipids,)
3. androgens (sex hormones - testosterone, estrogen)

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28
Q

Oxytocin

A

-posterior pituitary
-baby delivery
-cxn of uterus
-bonding after birth

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29
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

-posterior pituitary
- anti-diuretic (prevents urination when BP is low)

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30
Q

melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

-intermediate
-melanocytes, skin, skin produces melanin

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31
Q

Epinephrine

A

-adrenal medulla
- BP increases, pupils dilate, fight or flight response, increase blood sugar levels

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32
Q

Norepinephrine

A

-adrenal medulla
- maintains normal blood sugar, sleep, wake cycles, mood, memory

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33
Q

endocrine vs exocrine

A

endocrine = hormones
exocrine = enzymes

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34
Q

calcitonin effect on osteoclasts

A

calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts, lowers blood calcium

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35
Q

parathyroid effect on osteoclasts

A

parathyroid promotes osteoclasts, increases blood calcium

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36
Q

glucagon is released from ____ cells in the _____during ____

A

alpha cells in the pancreas
during fasting/starving

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37
Q

insulin is released from ____ cells in the ____ during _____

A

beta cells in the pancreas
during overeating

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38
Q

somatostatin is released from ____ and does what?

A

pancreas
inhibits the two other hormones (insulin and glucagon)

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39
Q

glycogen

A

stored sugar (liver and muscles)

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40
Q

glucagon

A

breaks down sugar and converts glycogen to glucose, increases blood sugar

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41
Q

insulin

A

converts glucose to glycogen, lowers blood sugar

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42
Q

glycogenolysis

A

done by glucagon

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43
Q

glycogenesis

A

done by insulin

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44
Q

erythropoetin

A

a hormone released by kidney to promote production of RBCs

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45
Q

Calcitriol

A

hormone released from kidney, regulates calcium, reabsorbs remaining Ca in intestines

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46
Q

Renin

A

enzyme from kidney that raises BP

RAA (renin angiotensin aldosterone) = how kd is involved in BP regulation,

activates chain rx–adrenal cortex releases aldosterone

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47
Q

Pineal gland secretes

A

melatonin for circadian rhythm

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48
Q

4 hormones that increase blood sugar

A

epinephrine
norepinephrine
cortisol
glucagon

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49
Q

skin

A

vitamin d
&
melanin

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50
Q

heart is bw which ribs?

A

3rd-5th ICS

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51
Q

where are the kidneys? which is lower?

A

t12-l3
right is sl lower bc of liver (left is sl higher)

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52
Q

dermatomes: on hand

A

c6
c7
c8

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53
Q

dermatome c6:

A

to the thumb

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54
Q

dermatome c7:

A

index finger, middle finger, half of ring finger

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55
Q

dermatome c8:

A

other half of ring finger, pinkie finger

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56
Q

dermatome L4:

A

front of knee

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57
Q

dermatome S 1 and 2:

A

hamstrings/back of legs

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58
Q

RUQ

A

liver
GB
right kidney
head of pancreas
duodenum

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59
Q

LUQ

A

stomach
spleen
body of pancreas
left kidney

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60
Q

RLQ

A

appendix
right ovary
right ureter
caecum

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61
Q

LLQ

A

descending colon
sigmoid colon
left ovary and tube
left ureter

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62
Q

coronal/frontal view

A

divides front and back

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63
Q

sagittal/lateral view

A

divides left and right

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64
Q

transverse/axial view

A

divides above and below

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65
Q

Cranial Nerve I

A

-olfactory
-sensory nerve
-smell

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66
Q

Cranial Nerve II

A

-optic
-sensory nerve
-vision and pupillary reaction

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67
Q

Cranial Nerve III

A

-oculomotor
-motor nerve
-innervates muscles that move eyeball, also pupillary action (dilate/constrict)
-controls most eye muscles
-PERRLA (pupils equal round reaction to light accomodation) –follow pen left, right, up, down

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68
Q

cranial nerve IV

A

-trochlear
-motor nerve
-lateral and downward movement of eye
-test: follow pen with eyes

4

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69
Q

cranial nerve V

A

-trigeminal
-both motor and sensory nerve
-main sensory nerve of face and mouth
-motor: controls muscles of the jaw, chewing
-clench jaw, stroke check

5

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70
Q

cranial nerve VI

A

-abducens
-motor nerve
-lateral movement of eye
-follow pen with eyes moving out to side

6

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71
Q

cranial nerve VII

A

-facial
-both sensory and motor
-sensory: anterior 2/3 of tongue taste receptors. motor: muscles of facial expression
-bell’s palsy
-ask patient to smile/frown

7

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72
Q

cranial nerve VIII

A

-vestibulocochlear
-sensory nerve
-hearing and equilibrium
-romberg’s test (feet together, eyes closed), ask about hearing changes

(8–like 2 ears together)

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73
Q

cranial nerve IX

A

-glossopharyngeal
-both motor and sensory
-motor: swallow, parotid (salivary) gland
-sensory: posterior 1/3 of tongue, bitter taste
-gag reflecx, say “aah” should see uvula rise

9

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74
Q

cranial nerve X

A

-vagus
-both sensory and motor nerve
-innervation of pharynx, larynx, visceral organs, abdomen; most of parasympathetic nervous system
-gag reflex, ask patient to swallow, hyoid bone should move

-longest nerve, only one to come out of skull

10

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75
Q

cranial nerve XI

A

-accessory
-motor nerve
-posture, innervates larynx, pharynx, traps and SCM
-shrug shoulders, rotate head against resistance

11

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76
Q

cranial nerve XII

A

-hypoglossal
-motor nerve
-innervates tongue muscles
-impairment=inarticulate speech,
-stick out tongue, move up/down/left/right

12

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77
Q

double vision

A

4
trochlear (2x2=4)

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78
Q

water soluble vitamins

A

B
C

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79
Q

fat soluble vitamins

A

A, D, E, K

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80
Q

calcium deficiency =

A

hyperflexia

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81
Q

magnesium deficiency =

A

Weakness, fatigue

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82
Q

Sodium deficiency =

A

lack of water

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83
Q

iron & deficiency

A

-required for oxygen transport

-xu: anemia, fatigue, weakness, anorexia, pica, hair loss, best absorbed w vitamin c

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84
Q

iodine & deficiency

A

-required for thyroid hormones

-xu: goiter, hypothyroidism

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85
Q

vitamin A
retinol
beta carotene

& deficiency

A

-required for vision, growth/dvlpmnt of skeletal and epithelial tissue, maintain integrity of mucous membranes required for immune system, hormone synthesis in reproductive system

xu: night blindness, dry eyes, keritinization of cornea cells, respiratory infections, reduced immunity, diarrhea, hyperkeratosis, loss of tooth enamel, loss of bone mass

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86
Q

vitamin b12
cyano- or methyl - cobalamin

and deficiency

A

-required for integrity of myelin sheath, used in carbohydrate metabolism

-xu: pernicious anemia, peripheral neuropathy, fatigue, depression, confusion, memory loss, glossitis, impaired WBCs

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87
Q

vitamin c
ascorbic acid

& deficiency

A

-collagen synthesis, major antioxidant, regulate immune system, helps absorb iron, aids steroid hormone and norepinephrine synthesis, acts as antihistamine

-xu: scurvy, bleeding gums, listlessness, poor wound healing, easy bruising, muscle cramps, dry skin

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88
Q

vitamin d (d3)
cholecalciferol

ergosterol (d2)

and deficiency

A

-increase absorb of calcium in ints & resorption of ca in bones

xu: rickets, osteomalacia

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89
Q

vitamin e
tocopherol

& deficiency

A
  • antioxidant

-dry skin, easy bruising
(all skin related)

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90
Q

vitamin k
phylloquinone

& deficiency

A

-important clotting co factor
helps prevent kd stones

-hemorrhagic dz of newborn, easy bleeding, osteoporosis

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91
Q

trisomy 21

A

down syndrome
triple chromosomes on 21, instead of double
total 47 chromosomes

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92
Q

chromosomes

A

46 total
23 from each parent
22 autosomes, 1 is sex chromosome

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93
Q

DNA

A

adenine – thymine

cytosine – guanine

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94
Q

RNA

A

adenine – uracil

guanine –cytosine

95
Q

cell atrophy:

A

decrease in cell size, like in disuse, denervation, decreased nutrition, or ischemia

96
Q

cell hypertrophy:

A

increase in cell size (normal or pathogenic)

97
Q

cell hyperplasia:

A

increase in cell number (normal or pathogenic)

98
Q

cell metaplasia:

A

changing of one adult cell type to another
(scarring, cancer)

99
Q

cell dysplasia:

A

deranged growth of cells, varies in size/shape, may be reversible may be cancer

100
Q

cell anaplasia:

A

reversal of differentiation in cells
characteristic of malignant tumors

101
Q

hypoxia:

A

insufficient Oxygen in tissues; disrupts ability to make ATP,

less O in blood

102
Q

ischemia:

A

enough O in blood, but clots block O from arriving to tissues

impaired O supply, impaired removal of metabolic end by products – acid accumulation can cause cellular death

103
Q

gangrene

A

often in diabetic patients, large area of cell death

104
Q

necrosis

A

death of body tissue

105
Q

macrophages

A

cleaners

expel as pus

106
Q

RBCs:

A

anucleus
bioconcave
*no mitochondria
live 120 days
contain hemoglobin (O and red color)
carry oxygen and CO2

107
Q

iron deficiency anemia

A

shows as microcytic, hypochromic, most common form of anemia

108
Q

universal blood donor type

A

type O-

109
Q

universal blood recipient type

A

AB+

110
Q

WBC normal range

A

5,000-10,000/mL

above= inflammation
below= poor immunity

111
Q

granulocytes

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

WBCs

112
Q

neutrophils

A

bacteria and fungi

113
Q

basophils

A

chronic inflammation, iron deficiency

114
Q

eosinophils

A

allergic reactions and parasitic infections

115
Q

monocytes

A

innate and adaptive immunity
elevated with malignancy

116
Q

lymphocytes

A

elevates due to viral infection

117
Q

besides a, b, ab, and o, what other blood type is there?

A

rh- and rh+
84-99% is rh+

118
Q

hallmarks of acute inflammation

A

swelling
redness
heat
pain

119
Q

innate immunity

A

natural resistance at time of birth, includes skin, mucous membranes, phagocytes, NK, cells

120
Q

adaptive/acquired immunity

A

gained over experience
passive= natural, like through breastfeeding or induced like in an anti-serum injection
passive is short term immunity

active=natural (had condition and overcame it) or induced (vaccines)
active in long lasting immunity

two types: humoral (B cells) and cell-mediated (T cells) (lymphocytes)

121
Q

humoral immunity

A

B cells are produced in bone marrow and stored in lymph nodes and spleen

have specific receptors for antigen recognition, mature into plasma cells that then create antibodies

122
Q

humoral immunity

IgM

A

FIRST immunoglobulin to respond (M=immediate)
has more binding sites, nonspecific, first type made my newborns

123
Q

humoral immunity

IgG

A

2nd to appear
predominant type
specific, long lasting

crosses placenta

passive immunity to fetus

(g=gestational)

124
Q

humoral immunity

IgA

A

primary defense against local infections in mucosal tissues (ex: colostrum)

125
Q

humoral immunity

IgE

A

specific to inflammation

allergy & parasite

triggers histamine response

126
Q

humoral immunity

IgD

A

helps signal B cell activation, may have role in some allergic rxns or respiratory immunity

least common

127
Q

allergies:

type I

A

Allergy (immediate)

onset: within a min or late phase 2-4 hrs

ex: food/drug/insect allergies, atopy, anaphylaxis

128
Q

allergies:

type IV

A

cell mediated allergy

onset: 2-3 days

ex: poison ivy, poison oak

129
Q

b12 xu anemia

A

absorbed in SI by intrinsic factors released by stomach

aka pernicious anemia

130
Q

thrombocytes

A

clotting

vitamin k and calcium

131
Q

brain and nervous system:

brainstem

A

contains cranial nerves III-XII

contains medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, main motor/sensory innervation of face/neck

132
Q

brain and nervous system:

diencephalon

A

contains thalamus, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary gland, pineal gland

133
Q

brain and nervous system:

hypothalamus

A

controls hormones, body temp, hunger, thirst

134
Q

brain and nervous system:

limbic system

A

supports emotions

135
Q

brain and nervous system:

basal ganglia

A

contains substantia nigra

assoc with voluntary motor control, learning, emotions, and cognition

*assoc with Parkinson’s

136
Q

brain and nervous system:

cerebral cortex

A

contains 4 lobes:
-frontal: thinking

-temporal: visual memories, understanding language

-parietal: sense of touch

-occipital: visual cortex

137
Q

brain and nervous system:

cerebellum

A

major role in motor coordination

(cerebella beautiful dancer with amazing coordination)

138
Q

brain and nervous system:

corpus collosum

A

wide band of connective fibers that join left and right hemispheres

139
Q

brain and nervous system:

surrounding the brain: (layers)

A

outer = dura mater

–subdural space

middle = arachnoid

–subarchnoid space

inner = pia mater

140
Q

brain and nervous system:

myelin

A

protective outer covering of axon

nerve conductance travels faster on axons with myelin

141
Q

brain and nervous system:

efferent vs afferent nerves

A

Efferent: motor neurons, Exit to CNS to stimulate muscles or glands via Ventral horn of spinal cord (motor moves)

Afferent: sensory neurons, carry impulses from the body to the CNS via Dorsal root horn of spinal cord

afferent= touch something hot
efferent = pull hand away

142
Q

brain and nervous system:

somatic nervous system controls…

A

controls voluntary actions

143
Q

brain and nervous system:

autonomic nervous system controls….
and two parts are…

A

involuntary actions.

sympathetic:
is yang. it readies the body for sudden action, dilates pupils and bronchi, increases heart rate, constricts blood vessels, increases renin, increase glycogen to glucose, inhibits digestion and peristalsis, relaxes bladder, promotes ejaculation,

relies on norepinephrine released by adrenergic nerves)

parasympathetic:
is yin. resting state. pupils and bronchi constrict,, heart rate lowers, saliva production and digestion increase, glucose converts to glycogen in liver, bladder constricts,

relies on acetylcholine released by cholinergic nerves

144
Q

circulatory system:

heart is located:

A

bw the 3rd and 5th ics
apex is near the 5th pointing to the left

145
Q

circulatory system:

heart layers

A

from outside in:

pericardium
myocardium
endocardium

146
Q

circulatory system:

order of blood flow

A

-deoxygenated blood from the head and the body enter the right atrium through the superior and inferior vena cava
-blood goes from right atrium through tricuspid valve to right ventricle , out the pulmonary artery to the lungs to pick up oxygen (capillary level of lungs)
-oxygenated blood returns to the heart via pulmonary vein into the left atrium
-blood moves from left atrium through mitral valve to the left ventricle where it is then pumped out the chamber through the aorta to the rest of the body

147
Q

circulatory system:

normal blood pressure

A

120/80

high = 140/90
very high = 180/120
low= 90/60

148
Q

circulatory system:

layers of all blood vessels except capillaries

A

tunica adventitia
tunica media (thicker than veins)
tunica intima

149
Q

circulatory system:

walls of capillaries

A

single layer endothelial cells, not tightly connected

150
Q

circulatory system:

veins in lower limbs have ___

A

valves

151
Q

circulatory system:

what’s different about artery walls?

A

they have more elastic (collagen) fibers bc they have to adjust to different changes in blood pressure (operate under high pressure system)

152
Q

circulatory system:

stroke volume (SV) is the ____

A

amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle in one heartbeat

153
Q

circulatory system:

systolic vs diastolic

A

systolic - push

diastolic - relax

154
Q

circulatory system:

baroreceptors vs chemoreceptors

A

baro=physiology
chemo= chemistry

baroreceptors: located in carotid and aorta, respond to change in stretch of blood vessel, adapt to prolonged change

chemoreceptors: located in carotids and aorta, respond to concentration changes in oxygen, CO2, and H+

155
Q

circulatory system:

lymph vessels travel where? and collect what? and where do they go?

A

travel along blood vessels and collect this excess fluid along with osmotically large particles. they then pass through lymph nodes (sites for collecting pieces of cells and foreign particles)

-spleen is secondary lymphoid organ

-filtered lymph drains into subclavian vein on the right and the internal jugular on the left.

156
Q

circulatory system:

veins and arteries are usually bilateral. what is the exception?

A

the subclavian vein on the right but the internal jugular on the left.

157
Q

circulatory system:

main pacemaker of the heart is the:

and what does it do?

A

SA Node

generate impulse that moves down AV bundle to the Purkinje fibers.

If SA node fails, the cells in the AV bundle will stimulate an impulse. if the AV bundle fails, the Purkinje fibers will generate contraction (they have less action potential so the force is not as strong)

158
Q

circulatory system:

when does fibrillation occur?

A

when the cells of the heart are not in sync, each cell fires on its own resulting in uncoordinated and ineffective heart beat

intermittent pulse in TCM

159
Q

circulatory system:

what is an electrocardiogram (ECG) and what is a normal pattern?

A

a recording of the electrical changes in the heart.

normal pattern includes several deflections. described as pqrst, the P portion of the ECG represents the contraction of the atrium, (depolarization of SA node). QRS represents depolarization of ventricles. T represents repolarization of ventricles

160
Q

circulatory system:

hypertension

A

140/90
severe= 180/20 ==seek emergency care, do not treat

161
Q

circulatory system:

hypotension

A

90/60

162
Q

circulatory system:

what is orthostatic hypotension?

A

abnormal drop in blood pressure upon positional change, from lying/seated to standing

systolic must drop 20 mmHg or more, diastolic must drop 10 mmHg or more to qualify.
AKA drop of 20/10

163
Q

pulmonary system:

inhalation vs exhalation: which is passive and active?

A

inspiration = active
(diaphragm descends, thoracic cavity expands, pressure decreases and air flows in)

exhalation = passive
(recoil)

164
Q

pulmonary system:

rhythm of breathing is controlled by_____

+other info

A

dorsal group of the medulla

ventral group is only activated in the cases of forced inhalation or exhalation. central chemoreceptors are sensitive to short-term. changes in CO2.
CO2 concentration is the primary motivator to breathe.
peripheral receptors are sensitive to O2 concentration.

other factors to breathing include stretch receptors in lungs, irritant receptors, emotion, pain, temperature

165
Q

pulmonary system:

lung has how many lobes? (each side)

A

3 lobes in right lung

2 lobes in left lung (make room for heart)

166
Q

digestive system:

upper GI tract includes:

A

mouth:
saliva for protection, lubrication, digestion, chewing, swallowing, uses cranial nerves V, IX, X, XII

esophagus: moving food to stomach via peristalsis; upper and lower sphincters controlled by vagus nerve

stomach: connected to esophagus via cardiac sphincter, to SI via pyloric sphincter. secretes: HCL and intrinsic factor, chief cells make pepsinogen

167
Q

digestive system:

parts of stomach

A

fundus
body
cardia
pyloris

168
Q

digestive system:

*middle GI tract

A

Small intestine! = primary site of food digestion and absorption

duodenum: secretes mucous, hormones cholecytstokinin, gastrin, secretin, receives secretions from liver and pancreas

jejunum: secretes mucus, LONGEST portion of small intestine, main site of nutrient absorption

ileum: connects to cecum via iliocecal valve, sites of B12 ABSORPTION and resorption of bile salts

169
Q

digestive system:

lower GI tract:

A

large intestine!

consists of cecum, appendix, ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, rectum

secretes mucus, absorbs water and electrolytes, moves stool

170
Q

hepatobiliary system:

what’s the largest organ located within the rib cage?

A

liver

171
Q

hepatobiliary system:

liver lobules are surrounded by ____ and consist of _____

A

liver lobules are surrounded by portal space and consist of hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile ductiles

172
Q

hepatobiliary system:

fx of liver:

A

metabolizes drugs/alcohol, converts lipid soluble to water solube,

modifies cytochrome P450

173
Q

hepatobiliary system:

which organ makes bile for fat digestion?

A

liver

174
Q

pancreas:

is the pancreas an exocrine or endocrine organ?

A

it is BOTH!

175
Q

pancreas:

endocrine secretions:

A

glucagon, insulin, somatostatin

176
Q

pancreas:

exocrine secretions

A

bicarbonates (carbon, carbs)

proteolytic enzymes
(protein)

amylase

lipase (fats)

177
Q

hormones:

what are hormones?

A

hormones are chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands in response to specific stimuli

178
Q

hormones:

functions of hormones (5)

A
  1. modulate physiological processes (do not initiate)
  2. are present in body fluid at all time (in some quantity)
    ***3. travel via bloodstream
  3. have local or general effects
  4. local hormones do not travel - either paracrine (used nearby) or autocrine (used by organ producing it)
179
Q

hormones:

negative vs positive feedback

A

negative: an increase in the hormone results in the lowering production of hormone; most common hormonal mechanism

positive: increase in hormone leads to increased production, such as with oxytocin

180
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Growth Hormone (gh)

A

–anterior pituitary gland!

– goes to liver which makes IGF-1 (insulin like growth factor)

–stimulates growth, cellular reproduction, regeneration

affects height, length of bones, healing

181
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

A

–anterior pituitary gland!

–thyroid

–stimulates thyroid to release thyroxin

–important for metabolism

182
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

–anterior pituitary gland!

–adrenal cortex

–signals to adrenal cortex to secrete steroid hormones

–important for managing stress, blood pressure, water balance, reproduction

183
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Prolactin (PRL)

A

–anterior pituitary gland!

–breasts

–milk production

–if not lactating, high levels often due to pituitary tumor

184
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Lutenizing Hormone
(LH)

A

–anterior pituitary gland!

–gonads

–maturation of sex cells

–female: ovulation
male: secretion of androgens

185
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

A

–anterior pituitary gland

–gonads

–maturation of sex cells

–female: menstruation, ova, secretion of androgens, estrogen, progesterone
Male: maturation of sperm, production of androgen binding protein

186
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

–intermediate lobe of pituitary gland

–skin cells

–determines skin pigmentation

–skin color determined by amount of melanin produced, not by number of melanocytes

187
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Oxytocin (OT)

A

–posterior pituitary!

–reproductive organs

–contraction of uterus, promote ejection of milk

–bonding hormone, causes a desire to cuddle, groom and bond with a mate

188
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

A

–posterior pituitary

–kidneys

–concentrates urine, boosts reabsorption of water

–structurally similar to OT

189
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Melatonin

A

–Pineal Gland

–CNS

–helps regulate the circadian rhythm

–influenced by artificial and UV light; derived from serotonin

190
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

thyroxin, thyroxine, and triiodothyromine

A

–thyroid

–many target cells

–regulates metabolism

–requires iodine, all cells need thyroid hormones

191
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

calcitonin

A

–thyroid

–blood and kidneys

–lowers blood calcium by reducing osteoclast activity, lowers absorption in intestines/kidneys

–along with parathyroid hormones, regulates blood calcium level

192
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

parathyroid hormone, parathormone (PTH)

A

–parathyroid gland

–target: bones and kidneys

–signals osteoclasts to release calcium, enhances intestinal absorption and kidney resorption of calcium

–increases activity of enzyme required to change vit D to its active form

193
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

thymic hormone - thymosin, thymopoetin

A

–thymus

–target: lymph

–stimulates t-cell maturation

–along with bone marrow, primary lymph organ

194
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

glucagon

A

–from pancreas alpha cells

–target = liver

–conversion of glycogen to glucose

–increase blood sugar

195
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

insulin

A

–from pancreas beta cells

–target = body cells

–converts glucose to glycogen or fat, enables cellular uptake of glucose

–lowers blood sugar

196
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

somatostatin

A

–from pancreas delta cells

–target = digestive system

–inhibits release GI hormones, insulin, and glucagon

–hypothalamus also releases somatostatin to inhibit GH, TSH, PRL

197
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Mineralcorticoids – aldosterone

A

–adrenal cortex

–target = blood

–regulates sodium/water balance, long term regulation BP

–all adrenal cortex hormones originally derive from cholesterol

198
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Glucocorticoids – cortisol

A

–adrenal cortex

–blood, lymph

–mobilization of fats, proteins, carbs

–vital for stress response, anti-inflammatory

199
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Sex hormones – DHEA, androgens

A

–adrenal cortex

–target = reproductive organs

–gives rise to sex characteristics

–DHEA is precursor for sex hormones, main androgen is testosterone

200
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Catecholamines -
epinephrine, norepinephrine

A

–adrenal medulla

–target = blood

–increases heart rate, bp, resp rate, blood glucose, relaxes smooth muscle of bladder and GI tract

–prepares for fight, flight, or fright

201
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Renin

A

–kidney

–target = adrenal cortex

–signals to adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone

–enzyme, not a hormone, but part of RAA system

202
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Erythropoietin

A

–kidney

–target = bone marrow

–stimulates RBC production

–kidney failure cal lead to low RBC

203
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Calcitriol

A

–kidney

–target = intestines

–assists calcium absorp in intestines and reabsorption from renal tubules

–biologically active form of Vit D

204
Q

Endocrine Gland:
what is this and where is it released from?

Vit D

A

–Skin

–target = intestines

–assists calcium absorp in intestines and reabsorption from renal tubules

–derived from cholesterol, acts as hormone

205
Q

Adrenal Glands:

3 zones of the adrenal cortex:

A
  • zona glomerulosa: mineralcorticoids (aldosterone) regulated by renin-angiotensis (RAA) and blood potassium; promotes sodium retention by the distal tubules
  • zona fasciculata: glucocorticoids (cortisol), regulated by negative feedback of hypothalamus-pituitary adrenal system, peak level 30-60min after waking (testing often recommended 6-8am, increases glycemia , breakdown of protein, mobilization of fatty acids, suppresses macrophage activity (antiinflammatory) and contributes to emotional stability by helping to regulate blood sugar
  • zona reticularis: sex hormones (DHEA, pregnenolone), stimulates gonads to make sex hormones and contributes to secondary sexual characteristics
206
Q

true of false:

a person can live without an adrenal medulla, but loss of adrenal cortex can be fatal

A

true

207
Q

kidneys:

approx where are kidneys located?

A

level with T12-L3

208
Q

kidneys:

which kidney is slightly lower?

A

right kidney is sl lower than left due to displacement from liver

209
Q

kidneys:

what is renin?

A

an enzyme released by kidney when renal blood flow is low, either from low blood volume or a drop in blood pressure.

210
Q

the filer of the kidney is called:

A

glomerulus

211
Q

kidneys:

what do they kidneys reabsorb and excrete?

A

reabsorb water, glucose, amino acids, bicarbonates, Na+ Cl- Ca ++, Mg++, K+

excrete nitrogenous waste, uric acid, hydrogen ions, Na+, Cl-, K+

212
Q

Acid-base Balance:

what is the largest buffer system, regulated by plasma proteins (mainly albumin)

A

Protein Buffer System

213
Q

Acid-base Balance:

what is the normal blood pH of the body?

A

7.35-7.45

214
Q

Acid-base Balance:

what is the most important buffer system, in lungs and kidneys,
H2CO3 into HCO3- (bicarbonate and a base)

A

bicarbonate buffer system

215
Q

Acid-base Balance:

which buffer system is in the kidneys

A

phosphate buffer system

216
Q

Acid-base Balance:

decrease in pH due to increase in CO2, occurs in emphysema

A

respiratory acidosis

217
Q

Acid-base Balance:

increase in pH due to decrease of CO2, occurs in hyperventilation, anxiety

A

Respiratory alkalosis

218
Q

Acid-base Balance:

decrease of pH due to less HCO3-, in prolonged diarrhea, increase of acids (lactic acid)

A

metabolic acidosis

219
Q

Acid-base Balance:

increase pH due to more bicarbonate, as in excess antacid use, loss of acids from vomiting stomach contents, potassium loss through some diuretics

A

metabolic alkalosis

220
Q

Water Balance:

what regulates water output?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

221
Q

Water Balance:

when is ADH released?

A

if there is a decrease in blood volume or blood pressure

(post. pituitary releases ADH, keeps water in body)

222
Q

Urinary Bladder:

how much urine does the bladder need to signal the urge to urinate?

A

150-300mL

223
Q

Urinary Bladder:

where is the control of the urinary reflex?

A

in spinal cord at level S2-S4

224
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

how many days does ovulation occur before onset of menses?

A

14 days

225
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

the follicular phase is in which half of cycle?

A

first half

day 1 to ovulation
estrogen dominates, body temp is lower

of days depends on length of cycle

226
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

the luteal phase is in which half of cycle?

A

second half

ovulation to onset of menses
progesterone dominates, body temp is higher

luteal phase is 14 days

227
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

what happens days 1-5?

A

FSH and LH are low, menstruation occuring

228
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

what happens days 5-7

A

egg follicle getting bigger, more FSH, increased estrogen promotes proliferation of endometrium, vaginal secretion creamy to sticky (egg white)

229
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

what happens day 14?

A

LH surges, developed follicle released, ovulation occurs, temp spikes1 degree, secretion remains sticky/stretchy

230
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

days 15-20

A

progesterone increases
increase in blood vessels, endometrium prepares to receive fertilized egg, vag fluids start to become dry interspersed with sticky

231
Q

Menstrual Cycle:

days 21-22

A

if no fertilization, progesterone drops , corpus luteum dissolves, blood vessels shrink, thinner vag secretions.

if conception, corpus luteum will continue to produce preogesterone for 3 months until the placenta makes progrsterone

232
Q

cancer:

benign

A

differentiated cells, slow growth, no metastasis, no tissue destruction, defined edges, growth by expansion

233
Q

cancer:

malignant

A

cells undifferentiated, faster growth, metastasis, tissue destruction, poorly defined edged, growth by infiltration

234
Q

unintentional weight loss,
bone pain at night,
fever,
fatigue,
new onset persistent cough, blood in stools/urine, coughing up blood,
lump in breast or testes, changes in moles

are all:

A

cancer red flags

Pre-Clinical Exam Prep (13 decks)

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