Weight loss Flashcards

1
Q

Define weight loss.

A

A measurable decline in body weight either intentionally or from malnutrition or illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How would you differentiate between mild, moderate and high weight loss?

A

mild - 5% loss of body weight
moderate - 5-10%
high - more than 10% loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is malnutrition?

A

malnutrition refers to deficiencies, excesses, or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List some GI causes of weight loss.

A

Malabsorption - coeliac disease, IBD
Structural - pharyngeal pouch, strictures, malignancy
Gastric or duodenal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What other GI clinical symptoms would you ask about in a patient complaining of weight loss?

A

mouth ulcers, dysphasia, dyspepsia, N/V, early satiety, abdominal pain, change in bowel habit (diarrhoea, constipation, haematochezia, mucus in stool, black stool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What signs would you be looking for in a weight loss patient’s full blood count?

A

anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leucopenia/leucocyotis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the endocrine causes of weight loss?

A

Addison’s, diabetes, hyperthyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some inflammatory causes of weight loss?

A

rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define cancer.

A

An abnormal growth of cells which tend to proliferate in an uncontrolled way and in some cases metastasise or spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three screening programmes available in the UK?

A

breast - women aged 50-70 every 3 years
bowel - aged 50-74 every 2 years
cervical - women aged 25-64 every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Differentiate between the cancer types.

A

Carcinoma: derived from epithelial cells e.g. breast, prostate, lung, pancreas, colon
Sarcoma: connective tissues e.g. bone, cartilage, fat, nerve
Lymphoma and leukaemia: arise from haematopoietic cells
Germ cell: derived from pluripotent cells - present in testicles or ovaries
Blastoma: derived from immature ‘precursor’ cells or embryonic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe how cancer cells spread through the body.

A
  • growing into or invading nearby normal tissue
  • moving through the walls of nearby lymph nodes or blood vessels
  • travelling through lymphatic system and bloodstream to other parts of the body
  • stopping in small blood vessels in a distant location, invading the blood vessel walls, and moving into the surrounding tissue
  • growing in this tissue until a tumour forms
  • causing new blood vessels to grow, which creates a blood supply that allows the tumour to continue growing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the common sites and symptoms of cancer metastasis?

A

Brain: headaches, seizures, vertigo
Respiratory: cough, haemoptysis, dyspnoea
Lymphadenopathy
Liver: hepatomegaly, jaundice
Skeletal: pain, fractures, spinal cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is frailty?

A

a common clinical syndrome of increased vulnerability and functional impairment due to progressive changes in multiple different organ syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the five Fried criteria for frailty?

A
  1. Unintentional weight loss
  2. Exhaustion
  3. Muscle weakness
  4. Slowness while walking
  5. Reduced activity levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is sacropenia?

A

loss of skeletal muscle mass and strength as a result of aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discuss the different areas for management of frailty.

A

Medical: problems, medications, treatment, cognition
Nursing: continence, sleep, nutrition, behaviour
PT: mobility, gait, balance, aids
OT: ADLs, cognition, environment
Social work: POC
SLT, dietician, podiatry, optician, dentistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List some of the features of depression.

think SIGECAPS

A
Sleep disorder (may be increased or decreased)
Interest deficit (anhedonia)
Guilt (worthlessness, hopelessness, regret)
Energy deficit
Concentration deficit
Appetite disorder
Psychomotor retardation or agitation
Suicidality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some of the risk factors for the development of depression?

A
recent bereavement
social isolation
stroke
chronic medical conditions
polypharmacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Using the DSM-5 criteria, how is a diagnosis of depression made?

A

> /=5 of the following symptoms for 2 weeks:
Core (diagnosis requires >/=1): depressed mood for most of the day, anhedonia in almost all activities
Additional: significant change in weight or appetite, insomnia or hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation or retardation, fatigue or loss of energy, feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt, indecisiveness or decreased ability to concentrate, recurrent thoughts of death or suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List some examples of infections associated with weight loss.

A

TB, HIV, Hep C, infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes microcytic anaemia?

A
IDA
thalassaemia
sideroblastic anaemia
lead poisoning
anaemia of chronic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes normocytic anaemia?

A

haemorrhage
renal failure
anaemia of chronic disease
IDA (early stages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes macrocytic anaemia?

A
liver disease
alcohol excess
folate deficiency
B12 deficiency
myelodysplastic syndrome
hypothyroidism
haemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
List some of the causes of thrombocytosis.
``` trauma post surgical haemorrhage malignancy hyposplenism RA essential thrombocytosis ```
26
What are some of the causes of eosinophilia?
``` asthma acute drug allergy strongyloidiasis lymphoma leukaemia hypoadrenalism Churg-Strauss ```
27
On chest percussion, what are the causes of unilateral dullness, bilateral dullness and hyperresonance?
unilateral: pleural effusion, pneumonia, tumour bilateral: pulmonary oedema (renal or heart failure) hyperresonance: emphysema, pneumothorax
28
What two important tests should you run in a patient with suspected TB?
sputum culture, AAFB
29
A histology report states the presence of binucleate Reed-Sternberg cells and mononuclear Hodgkin's cells. What is the diagnosis?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
30
What is the difference between leukaemia and lymphoma?
broadly leukaemias affect the bone marrow and often the peripheral blood while lymphomas develop within other tissues
31
How would you differentiate between acute and chronic leukaemia?
Acute: rapid onset of symptoms with death in weeks to months without treatment Chronic: insidious onset over years
32
How does acute myeloid leukaemia happen?
Cells of the leukaemic clone proliferate but typically don't mature, these blasts (immature precursors) then take over the bone marrow causing anaemia and thrombocytopenia
33
How is AML treated?
high dose chemotherapy and often allogeneic bone marrow transplant
34
What are some of the presenting features of AML and ALL?
splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, lymphadenopathy, pallor, fatigue, SOB, bleeding, bruising, infection
35
In which leukaemia would you see Aeur rods?
AML
36
How does CML occur?
specific translocation between chromosome 9 and 22 t(9;22) forming the oncogenic fusion gene BCR:ABL1 - Philadelphia chromosome - results in increased cell proliferation, genomic instability, inhibition of apoptosis
37
Which drugs are used to target the cause of CML?
tyrosine kinase inhibitors e.g. imatinib
38
What are the symptoms of CML?
fatigue, weight loss, anaemia, sweating, splenomegaly
39
How does CLL occur?
result of proliferation of a clone of mature B cells
40
What is the treatment of CLL?
many patients will never require treatment
41
How do patients with CLL typically present?
``` 80% incidental (raised lymphocyte count) lymphadenopathy anaemia splenomegaly hepatomegaly increased susceptibility to infection ```
42
It is typical to adopt a watch and wait approach in CLL except in 5 cases. What are they?
- Progressive lymphocytosis >50% increase over 2 months Lymphocyte doubling time < 6 months - Progressive marrow failure (CLL cells take over marrow): Hb < 10, plt <100, neutrophils <1 - Massive or progressive lymphadenopathy/splenomegaly - Systemic symptoms - Autoimmune cytopenias such as ITP or autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
43
Lymphomas are always of lymphoid lineage. What is the difference between high grade and low grade?
``` high = aggressive low = indolent/slow progression ```
44
How does the cell lineage of Hodgkin v Non Hodgkin lymphoma differ?
The neoplastic cell in Hodgkin disease is always of B cell lineage The neoplastic cell in non Hodgkin lymphoma may be of B, T or NK cell lineage
45
What are the clinical features of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?
- painless rubbery cervical lymphadenopathy (<10% pain at site when drinking alcohol) - cough, SOB, chest pain (mediastinal lymphadenopathy) - pruritis - B symptoms (weight loss, unexplained fever, night sweats)
46
How would you treat Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?
- Early stage, low-risk disease can be offered 2-4 cycles of chemotherapy (doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine ABVD) foolowed by radiotherapy. 90% are cured. - Advanced disease patients (stages 3 or 4) are typically offered 6-8 cycles of ABVD chemotherapy followed by irradiation of bulky sites. 50-60% will have a median survival in excess of 5 years. - Haematopoietic stem cell transplant may be considered for patients with refractory or relapsed disease
47
What are some of the neurological causes of weight loss?
Parkinson's MS MND Huntington's
48
What is Parkinson's disease?
progressive neurological condition caused by death of dopamine secreting neurones within the substantia nigra
49
What are the symptoms of PD?
bradykinesia rigidity tremor less common: low mood, memory issues, sleep issues,, postural instability, autonomic symptoms (constipation, incontinence)
50
How is PD diagnosed?
history examination improvement with levodopa DaT scan
51
What is the treatment of PD?
medication - levodopa, dopamine agonists, MAO-B inhibitors MDT surgery
52
What is MS?
a neurological condition caused by demyelination of neuron's myelin sheath
53
What are the 4 main types of MS?
clinically isolated syndrome, relapsing remitting, primary progressive, secondary progressive
54
MS can cause a wide spectrum of neurological symptoms. List some examples.
``` changes in sensation pins and needles numbness visual disturbance weakness muscle spasms ataxia speech or swallow difficulties fatigue pain bowel or bladder difficulties low or unstable mood ```
55
In relation to MS, what is Uhthoff's phenomenon?
temporary worsening of symptoms following exposure to heat
56
In relation to MS, what is Lhermitte's sign?
an electrical sensation that runs down the back when bending the neck
57
What signs would be present in an examination of a patient with MS?
``` cerebellar signs internuclear ophthalmoplegia, diplopia, nystagmus, abnormal extra-ocular movements spasticity hyperreflexia and upgoing plantars muscle weakness abnormal sensation tremor or muscle spasms ```
58
How is a diagnosis of MS made?
``` history examination MRI brain and spine CSF - oligoclonal bands, raised protein McDonald's criteria ```
59
How is MS treated?
- acute ?steroids - RR: disease modifying medications e.g. interferon, glatiramer, natalizumab, alemtuzumab, rituximab - severe acute ?plasmapheresis - non pharmacological: PT, OT, CBT - analgesia, neuropathic pain relief, baclofen
60
What is MND?
rare neurodegenerative disorders that selectively affect motor neurones
61
What are the symptoms of MND?
``` muscle weakness muscle cramps or spasms bulbar symptoms (speech problems, swallowing problems, excessive saliva) emotional lability cognitive impairment breathlessness fatigue ```
62
What would you find on the examination of a patient with MND?
``` mixture of lower and upper motor signs muscle wasting fasciculations brisk reflexes upgoing plantars increased tone and spasticity dysarthric speech ```
63
How is a diagnosis of MND made?
MRI brain and spine normal LP normal nerve conduction studies and EMG - denervation and fasciculations signs of respiratory failure
64
How is MND treated?
``` no curative treatments Riluzole - 10% improvement in survival treatment of symptoms NIV for resp failure PEG MDT ```
65
What causes Huntington's disease?
autosomal dominant | repetition of CAG segment of DNA
66
What are the symptoms of Huntington's disease?
``` chorea (involuntary jerking or writhing movements) dystonia slow or abnormal eye movements impaired gait or posture difficulty with speech or swallowing cognitive impairment low mood or irritability fatigue sleep disturbance ```
67
How is Huntington's disease treated?
None specific Symptoms e.g. antipsychotics, tetrabenazine, amantidine, clonazepam, levetiracetam anti-depressants or mood stabilisers MDT
68
Discuss the Ann Arbor system for classification of lymphoma.
I = one node region involved, II = 2+ ipsilateral regions, III = bilateral node involvement, IV = extranodal disease), suffix "A" (B symptoms absent) or "B" (B symptoms present)
69
What is sarcoidosis?
multisystem disease of unknown aetiology characterised by non-necrotising granulomas in many organs