(Weeks 8-14) Lecture/Lab Multi-Choice

Question 1

• Carcinomas are tumours that originate in:

a) Mesenchyme
b) Bone marrow
c) Striated muscle
d) Epithelial cells

Answer 1

d) Epithelial cells

Question 2

• Antineoplastic drugs destroy human cells. They are most likely to cause cell death among healthy cells that:

a) Have poor cell membranes
b) Are rapidly turning over
c) Are in dormant tissues
d) Cross the blood-brain barrier

Answer 2

b) Are rapidly turning over

Question 3

• Cancer treatment usually occurs in several different treatment phases. In assessing the appropriateness of another round of chemotherapy for a particular person, which of the following would be evaluated as the most important

a) Hair loss
b) Bone marrow function
c) Anorexia
d) Heart rate

Answer 3

b) Bone marrow function

Question 4

• A bacteriostatic substance is one that:

a) Directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with
b) Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
c) Prevents the growth of bacteria
d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance

Answer 4

d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance

Question 5

• The goal of antibiotic therapy is:

a) to eradicate all bacteria from the system
b) To suppress resistant strains of bacteria
c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection
d) To stop the drug as soon as the person feels better

Answer 5

c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection

Question 6

• In general all people receiving antibiotics should receive teaching that includes which of the following points?

a) The need to complete the full course of drug therapy
b) The possibility of oral contraceptive failure
c) When to take the drug related to food and other drugs
d) The need for assessment of blood tests
e) Advisability of saving any leftover medication for future use
f) How to detect super infections and what to do if they occur

Answer 6

a) The need to complete the full course of drug therapy
b) The possibility of oral contraceptive failure
c) When to take the drug related to food and other drugs

Question 7

• While teaching the client about taking oral tetracycline, which of the following does the nurse advise the client to do?

a) Consume calcium rich products to decrease the duration of the antibacterial effect
b) Use a soft toothbrush and floss teeth gently to remove staining on teeth
c) Report any ringing in the ears or dizziness
d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors.

Answer 7

d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors.

Question 8

• The client is prescribed ciprofloxacin and is instructed to take each dose of medication as evenly spaced apart during the day as possible. The nurse recognizes that this instruction is essential because:

a) The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances
b) Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates
c) Super infections may develop if a dose of the medication is missed
d) Allergic reactions are more likely to occur if a dose is missed.

Answer 8

b) Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates

Question 9

• Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:

a) Can lead to addiction
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication

Answer 9

b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses

Question 10

• The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief. Which client is at the highest risk of developing hypotension, respiratory depression, and mental confusion?

a) A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix
b) A 16 year old male, post-motorcycle injury with lacerations
c) A 54 year old female, post-myocardial infarction
d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture

Answer 10

d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture

Question 11

• The client asks you if paracetamol will help his arthritis like ‘ my aspirin does’. You base your response on the knowledge that the pharmacotherapeutic actions of paracetamol are:

a) Analgesic and antipyretic
b) Analgesic and anti-inflammatory
c) Anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet
d) Antipyretic and anti-inflammatory

Answer 11

a) Analgesic and antipyretic

Question 12

• Naloxone hydrochloride is classified as an:

a) Opioid analgesic
b) Opioid agonist
c) Opioid partial agonist
d) Opioid antagonist

Answer 12

d) Opioid antagonist

Question 13

• The parenteral opioid analgesic that carries the greatest risk for respiratory depression with its use is:

a) Fentanyl citrate
b) Morphine sulfate
c) Hydromorphone
d) Pethidine

Answer 13

c) Hydromorphone

Question 14

• While a person is receiving a general anaesthetic, he or she must be continually monitored because:

a) The person has no pain sensation
b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function
c) The person cannot move
d) The person cannot communicate

Answer 14

b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function

Question 15

• Local anaesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If given in increasing concentrations, local anaesthetics can cause loss, in order, of the following:

a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone
b) Touch sensation, skeletal muscle tone, temperature sensation and proprioception
c) Proprioception, skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation and temperature sensation
d) Skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, temperature sensation and proprioception

Answer 15

a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone

Question 16

• Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:

a) Can lead to addiction
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication

Answer 16

b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses

Question 17

• The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because:

a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis
b) They can be stimulating
c) They are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs
d) They do not affect the neurotransmitters

Answer 17

a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis

Question 18

• The nurse or midwife would expect administration of a NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which of the following

a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation
b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation
c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy
d) Relieve pain during labour and birth
e) Treat myasthenia gravis
f) Treat a person with a history of malignant hyperthermia

Answer 18

a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation
b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation
c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy

Question 19

• Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non-depolarising NMJ blockers because it:

a) Does not bind well to receptor sites
b) Rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and is lost
c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma
d) Is very unstable

Answer 19

c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma

Question 20

• Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts:

a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver
c) As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin Immediately, so it is the drug of choice in emergency situations

Answer 20

b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver

Question 21

• The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing deep venous thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is:

a) tinzaparin
b) dalteparin
c) heparin
d) enoxaparin

Answer 21

d) enoxaparin

Question 22

• A thrombolytic agent could be safely used in:

a) CVA within the last 2 months
b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours
c) Recent, serious GI bleeding
d) Caesarian birth.

Answer 22

b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours

Question 23

• Evaluating a person who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss would usually include assessing for which of the following?

a) The presence of petechiae
b) Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth
c) Dark-coloured urine
d) Yellow colour sclera or skin
e) The presence of ecchymotic areas
f) Loss of hair

Answer 23

a) The presence of petechiae
b) Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth
c) Dark-coloured urine
e) The presence of ecchymotic areas

Question 24

• The client with deep vein thrombosis is being treated with a heparin infusion. The nurse would monitor for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following?

a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
b) Prothrombin time (PT)
c) Platelet counts
d) International normalised ratio (INR)

Answer 24

a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Question 25

• A patient who is taking clopidogrel to prevent another stroke asks the nurse how the medication works. The nurse’s response should be based on an understanding that clopidogrel:

a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation
b) Activates antithrombin III and subsequently inhibits thrombin
c) Inhibits enzymes involved in the formation of vitamin K
d) Converts plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve fibrin clots

Answer 25

a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation

Question 26

• An example of a drug allergy is:

a) Dry mouth occurring with use of an antihistamine
b) Increased urination occurring with use of a thiazide diuretic
c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin
d) Skin rash associated with procainamide use.

Answer 26

c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin

Question 27

• A person is experiencing a reaction to the penicillin injection that was administered approximately 30 minutes ago. The healthcare provider is concerned that it might be an anaphylactic reaction. What signs and symptoms would validate her suspicion?

a) Rapid heart rate
b) Diaphoresis
c) Constricted pupils
d) Hypotension
e) Rash
f) The person reporting a panic feeling

Answer 27

b) Diaphoresis
e) Rash
f) The person reporting a panic feeling

Question 28

• A woman has repeated bouts of bronchitis throughout the autumn and has been taking antibiotics. She calls the clinic with complaints of vaginal pain and itching. When she is seen, it is discovered that she has developed a yeast infection. You would explain to her that:

a) Her bronchitis has moved to the vaginal area
b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection
c) She probably has developed a sexually transmitted disease related to her lifestyle
d) She will need to take even more antibiotics to treat this new infection

Answer 28

b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection

Question 29

• A drug reaction that does not occur unless the client has been previously exposed to the agent is a:

a) Idiosyncratic reaction
b) Teratogenic reaction
c) Allergic reaction
d) Liberation reaction

Answer 29

b) Teratogenic reaction

Question 30

• When the pharmacological effects of one medication are potentiated or diminished by another medication, this is termed a:

a) Adverse drug reaction
b) Medication incompatibility
c) Medication interaction
d) Placebo effect

Answer 30

b) Medication incompatibility

Question 31

• A nurse or midwife is about to administer digoxin to a person whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should

a) Give the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low
b) Retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug if the pulse has not changed
c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug is the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min.
d) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is below 60 beats/min

Answer 31

c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug is the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min.

Question 32

• Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential, antiarrhythmic drugs often:

a) Cause heart failure
b) Alter blood flow to the kidney
c) Cause new arrhythmias
d) Cause electrolyte disturbances

Answer 32

c) Cause new arrhythmias

Question 33

• A person who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs:

a) Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised
b) Frequent blood tests, including drug levels
c) An antidepressant to deal with the psychological depression
d) Dietary changes to prevent irritation of the heart muscle

Answer 33

a) Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised

Question 34

• Medications that increase the force of myocardial contractions have what type of effect?

a) Positive inotropic
b) Negative inotropic
c) Positive chronotropic
d) Negative chronotropic

Answer 34

a) Positive inotropic

Question 35

• Digoxin is classified as a:

a) Hypokalaemic
b) Cardiac glycoside
c) Coronary artery vasodilator
d) Positive chronotropic

Answer 35

b) Cardiac glycoside

Question 36

• Atropine and hyoscine work by blocking

a) Nicotinic receptors only
b) Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
c) Muscarinic receptors only
d) Adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate

Answer 36

c) Muscarinic receptors only

Question 37

• A nurse or midwife would expect atropine to be used for which of the following?

a) To depress salivation
b) To dry up bronchial secretions
c) To increase the heart rate
d) To promote uterine contractions
e) To treat myasthenia gravis
f) To treat alzheimer’s disease

Answer 37

b) To dry up bronchial secretions

c) To increase the heart rate

Question 38

• A health care provider prescribes adrenaline to a patient who was stung by several wasps 30 minutes ago. The nurse knows that the primary purpose of this medication for this client is to:

a) Stop the systemic release of histamine produced by the mast cells
b) Counteract the formation of antibodies in response to an invading organism
c) Increase the number of white blood cells produced to fight the primary invader
d) Increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis

Answer 38

a) Stop the systemic release of histamine produced by the mast cells

Question 39

• The nurse is teaching a group of clients with cardiac conditions who are taking diuretic therapy. The nurse explains that individuals prescribed frusemide should:

a) Avoid consuming large amounts of cabbage, cauliflower, and kale.
b) Rise slowly from sitting or lying position
c) Count their pulse for 1 full minute before taking the medication
d) Restrict fluid intake to no more than 1000mL in a 24 hour period.

Answer 39

b) Rise slowly from sitting or lying position

Question 40

• A person with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the person

a) A loop diuretic
b) A thiazide diuretic
c) A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
d) An osmotic diuretic

Answer 40

d) An osmotic diuretic

Question 41

• Clients prescribed spironolactone are often at risk for electrolyte imbalance. The nurse assesses for this adverse effect because this drug may cause the body to:

a) Retain potassium
b) Release magnesium
c) Excrete potassium
d) Bind calcium

Answer 41

a) Retain potassium

Question 42

• Routine Care of a person receiving a diuretic would include which of the following?

a) Daily weighing
b) Tight fluid restrictions
c) Periodic electrolyte evaluations
d) Monitoring of urinary output
e) Regular intraocular pressure testing
f) Teaching the person to report muscle cramping

Answer 42

a) Daily weighing
b) Tight fluid restrictions
c) Periodic electrolyte evaluations
d) Monitoring of urinary output
f) Teaching the person to report muscle cramping

Question 43

• Combination oestrogens and progestins are commonly used as oral contraceptives. It is thought that this combination has its effect by:

a) Acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development
b) Directly suppressing the ovaries and preventing ovulation
c) Keeping the endometrium constantly lush and blood filled
d) Preventing menstruation, which prevents pregnancy

Answer 43

a) Acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development

Question 44

• Oxytocin, a synthetic form of the hypothalamic hormone, is used to:

a) Induce labour by stimulating uterine contraction
b) Stimulate milk production in the lactating woman
c) Increase fertility and the chance of conception
d) Relax the gravid uterus to prevent preterm labour

Answer 44

a) Induce labour by stimulating uterine contraction

Question 45

• Testosterone is approved for use in:

a) Treatment of breast cancers
b) Increasing muscle strength in athletes
c) Oral contraceptives
d) Increasing hair distribution in male pattern baldness

Answer 45

a) Treatment of breast cancers