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NUR 256 (Medication Management) > (Weeks 1-7) Lecture Multi-Choice > Flashcards

(Weeks 1-7) Lecture Multi-Choice Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When teaching a person receiving tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), it is important to remember that TCAs are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of:
    a. Increased libido and increased appetite
    b. Polyuria and polydipsia
    c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
    d. Hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares
A

c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation

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2
Q
  1. Drugs that are commonly used to treat grand mal seizures include
    a. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins
    b. Barbiturates, antihistamines and local anaesthetics
    c. Hydantoins and phenobarbitone
    d. Benzodiazepines and sodium valproate
A

a. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins

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2
Q
  1. Haloperidol is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with:
    a. Severe extrapyramidal effects
    b. Severe sedation
    c. Sever hypotension
    d. Severe anticholinergic effects
A

a. Severe extrapyramidal effects

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2
Q
  1. The nurse, who is monitoring a client taking phenytoin has noted symptoms of nystagmus, confusion, and ataxia. Considering these findings, the nurse would suspect that the dose of the drug should be
    a. Reduced
    b. Increased
    c. Maintained
    d. Discontinued
A

a. Reduced

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3
Q
  1. Morphine Sulphate is classified as a
    a. Schedule 1 agent
    b. Schedule 2 agent
    c. Schedule 4 agent
    d. Schedule 8 agent
A

d. Schedule 8 agent

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4
Q
  1. The half-life of a drug:
    a. Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes
    b. Is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a person
    c. Is influenced by the fat distribution of the person
    d. Can be calculated with the use of a body surface nomogram
A

a. Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes

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5
Q
  1. When reviewing a drug to be given, the nurse or midwife notes that the drug is excreted in the urine. What points should be included in the nurse’s assessment of the person
    a. The persons liver function tests
    b. The persons bladder tone
    c. The persons renal function tests
    d. The persons fluid intake
    e. Other drugs being taken that could affect the kidney
    f. The persons intake and output for the day
A

c. The persons renal function tests

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6
Q
  1. When considering the pharmacokinetics of a drug, what points would the healthcare professional need to consider?
    a. How the drug will be absorbed
    b. The way the drugs affects the body
    c. Receptor-site activation and suppression
    d. How the drug will be excreted
    e. How the drug will be metabolised
    f. The half-life of the drug
A

a. How the drug will be absorbed
d. How the drug will be excreted
e. How the drug will be metabolised

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7
Q
  1. A patient is being discharged from the hospital with a nebuliser for self-administration of inhalation medication. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that client education has been successful?
    a. ‘inhaled medications should only be taken in the morning’
    b. Doses for inhaled medication are larger than those taken orally’
    c. ‘medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid response’
    d. Inhaled drugs are often rendered inactive by hepatic metabolic reactions’
A

c. ‘medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid response’

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8
Q
  1. If the half-life of intravenous morphine sulfate is 20-30 minutes, this means that:
    a. In 60 minutes, all of the drug will be eliminated
    b. In 20-30 minutes, 50 per cent of the drug concentration will be eliminated
    c. The peak of the agent is 40 minutes
    d. All doses should be reduced by 50 per cent to prevent adverse effects
A

b. In 20-30 minutes, 50 per cent of the drug concentration will be eliminated

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9
Q
  1. A client has developed severe diarrhoea following four days of self-administered antacid preparation. The nurse suspects that the diarrhoea may be caused by which type of antacid?
    a. Aluminium Compounds
    b. Magnesium Compounds
    c. Calcium Compounds
    d. Sodium Compounds
A

b. Magnesium Compounds

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11
Q
  1. A nurse taking care of a person who is receiving a proton pump inhibitor should teach the person to:
    a. Take the drug after every meal
    b. Chew or crush the tablets to increase their absorption
    c. Swallow tablets or capsules whole
    d. Stop taking the drug after 3 weeks of therapy
A

c. Swallow tablets or capsules whole

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12
Q
  1. H2 receptors are found throughout the body including:
    a. In the nasal passages, upper airways, and stomach
    b. In the CNS and upper airways
    c. In the respiratory tract and the heart
    d. In the heart, CNS and stomach.
A

d. In the heart, CNS and stomach.

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13
Q
  1. Most antiemetic’s work with the CNS to decrease the activity of:
    a. The medulla
    b. The CTZ
    c. The respiratory centre
    d. The sympathetic nervous system
A

b. The CTZ

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14
Q
  1. The 5-HT3 receptor blockers, including ondansetron and granisetron are particularly effective in decreasing the nausea and vomiting associated with
    a. Vestibular problems
    b. Cancer chemotherapy
    c. Pregnancy
    d. Severe pain
A

b. Cancer chemotherapy

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14
Q
  1. Cathartic dependence can occur when:
    a. People do not use laxatives routinely and experience severe bouts of constipation
    b. Chronic laxative use leads to a reliance on the intense stimulation of laxatives
    c. People maintain a nutritious high-fibre diet
    d. People start an exercise program to promote bowel elimination
A

b. Chronic laxative use leads to a reliance on the intense stimulation of laxatives

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15
Q
  1. Laxatives are drugs that are used to:
    a. Increase the quantity of wastes excreted
    b. Speed the passage of the intestinal contents through the GI tract
    c. Increase digestion of intestinal contents
    d. Increase the water content of the intestinal contents
A

d. Increase the water content of the intestinal contents

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16
Q
  1. The nurse should inform the client who is prescribed a nebuliser treatment with salbutamol that a common adverse effect is:
    a. An increased heart rate with palpitation
    b. A predisposition to infection
    c. Sedation
    d. Temporary dyspnoea
A

a. An increased heart rate with palpitation

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17
Q
  1. People who are using inhalers require careful teaching about which of the following
    a. avoiding food 1 hour before and 2 hours after dosing
    b. storage of the drug
    c. administration techniques to promote therapeutic effects and avoid adverse effects
    d. Lying flat for as long as 2 hours after dosing
    e. Timing of administration
    f. The difference between rescue treatment and prophylaxis
A

c. administration techniques to promote therapeutic effects and avoid adverse effects
e. Timing of administration
f. The difference between rescue treatment and prophylaxis

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19
Q
  1. The nurse understands that ipratropium bromide is an effective bronchodilator because it:
    a. Enhances the action of acetylcholine
    b. Stimulates the beta-adrenergic cells in the bronchi
    c. Antagonises the action of acetylcholine
    d. Blocks the histamine receptors in the bronchi
A

c. Antagonises the action of acetylcholine

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19
Q
  1. Symbicort is an example of a combination medication preparation containing:
    a. Eformoterol and budesonide
    b. Ipratropium bromide and salbutamol
    c. Fluticasone and salmeterol
    d. Eformoterol and fluticasone
A

a. Eformoterol and budesonide

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20
Q
  1. Examples of preventer respiratory medications are:
    a. Sympathomimetics and IgE monoclonal
    b. Methylxanthines and corticosteroids
    c. Mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids
    d. Antimuscarinics and leukotriene receptor antagonists
A

c. Mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids

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21
Q
  1. Examples of corticosteroids used in the treatment of asthma are:
    a. Fluticasone, budesonide and aminophylline
    b. Beclamethasone, salbutamol and ipratropium
    c. Ephedrine, eformoterol and theophylline
    d. Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone
A

d. Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone

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22
Q
  1. The primary modifiable risk factors associated with hypertension are:
    a. Heredity
    b. Environmental factors
    c. Lifestyle behaviours
    d. genetics
A

c. Lifestyle behaviours

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23
Q
  1. ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 11, because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, use of ACE inhibitors often results in:
    a. Spontaneous pneumothorax
    b. Pneumonia
    c. Unrelenting cough
    d. Respiratory depression
A

c. Unrelenting cough

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24
Q
  1. A person taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. The nurse or midwife should:
    a. Stop the drug
    b. Alert the surgeon and mark the persons chart prominently
    c. Cancel the surgery and consult with the prescriber
    d. Monitor fluid levels and make sure the fluids are restricted before surgery
A

b. Alert the surgeon and mark the persons chart prominently

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26
Q
  1. Enalapril is used to lower elevated blood pressure by:
    a. Inhibiting beta-adrenergic receptors in the cardiac muscle
    b. Interfering with the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
    c. Directly dilating peripheral arterioles
    d. Blocking the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors
A

b. Interfering with the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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27
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic hypertension. The client is receiving Losartan daily. Which client manifestations would the nurse conclude is an adverse effect of this medication?
    a. Irritability and tremors
    b. Headache and dizziness
    c. Sleepiness and slurred speech
    d. Pruritus and rash
A

b. Headache and dizziness

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following would the healthcare provider include when teaching a person about HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
    a. The person will not develop CAD
    b. The person might develop cataracts as a result
    c. The person will not have a heart attack
    d. he person might stop absorbing fat-soluble vitamins
A

b. The person might develop cataracts as a result

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28
Q
  1. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is associated with which of the following?
    a. Intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation
    b. Blood flow through the kidneys
    c. Production of surfactant in the lungs
    d. Release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
    e. Retention of sodium and water in the kidneys
    f. Liver production of fibrinogen
A

a. Intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation
b. Blood flow through the kidneys
d. Release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
e. Retention of sodium and water in the kidneys

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30
Q
  1. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors work in the:
    a. Process of bile secretion
    b. Process of cholesterol formation in the cell
    c. Intestinal wall to block fat absorption
    d. Kidney to block fat excretion
A

b. Process of cholesterol formation in the cell

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32
Q
  1. The client taking atorvastatin reports weakness and fatigue, pain in the shoulders, and aching joints. The nurse initially assesses the client for which condition?
    a. Rhabdomyolysis
    b. Renal failure
    c. Rheumatoid arthritis
    d. Hepatic insufficiency
A

a. Rhabdomyolysis

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33
Q
  1. Teaching a person who is prescribed an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor to treat high cholesterol and high lipid levels should include which of the following?
    a. The importance of exercise
    b. The need for dietary changes to alter cholesterol levels
    c. That taking a statin will allow a full, unrestricted diet
    d. That drug therapy is always needed when these levels are elevated
    e. The importance of controlling blood pressure and blood glucose levels
    f. That stopping smoking may also help to lower lipid levels.
A

a. The importance of exercise
b. The need for dietary changes to alter cholesterol levels
e. The importance of controlling blood pressure and blood glucose levels

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34
Q

1 When reviewing a drug to be given, the nurse or midwife notes that the drug is excreted in the urine. What points should be included in the nurse’s assessment of the person

a) The persons liver function tests
b) The persons bladder tone
c) The persons renal function tests
d) The persons fluid intake
e) Other drugs being taken that could affect the kidney
f) The persons intake and output for the day

A

c) The persons renal function tests

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35
Q

People who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include

a) Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift
b) Acne development and hypertension
c) Water retention and increased speed of healing
d) Hyperglycaemia and water retention

A

a) Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift

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36
Q

People who are taking corticosteroids would be expected to report which of the following?

a) Weight gain
b) Round or ‘moon face’ appearance
c) Feeling of wellbeing
d) Weight loss
e) Excessive hair growth
f) Fragile skin

A

a) Weight gain
b) Round or ‘moon face’ appearance
f) Fragile skin

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37
Q

1 Glucocorticoids are hormones which

a) Are released in response to high glucose levels
b) Help to regulate electrolyte levels
c) Help to regulate water balance in the body
d) Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation.

A

d) Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation.

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38
Q

Despite repeated demonstrations of proper inhaler use by the nurse, the client is unable to return a proper demonstration on the training inhaler. The client is becoming frustrated. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

a) Encourage the client to keep practicing just a little longer
b) Notify the health care provider that the client is incompetent
c) Provide a spacer for use with the inhaler
d) Switch to an oral form of a beta agonist

A

c) Provide a spacer for use with the inhaler

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39
Q

A person with hyperglycaemia will present with:

a) Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia
b) Polycythaemia, polyuria, polyphagia
c) Polyadenitis, polyuria, polydipsia
d) Polydipsia, polycythaemia, polyarteritis

A

a) Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia

40
Q

35 Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in their

e) Effect on the pancreas
f) Onset and duration of action
g) Means of administration
h) Tendency to cause adverse effects

A

f) Onset and duration of action

41
Q

A client with type 1 diabetes will use a combination insulin that includes NPH and regular insulin. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this important information for the client to know?

a) The client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection of insulin based on peaks
b) The risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity
c) It is best to plan activities or exercise around peak insulin times for the best utilisation of glucose
d) Additional insulin may be required at the peak periods to prevent hyperglycaemia

A

b) The risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity

42
Q

Treatment of diabetes may include which of the following?

a) Replacement therapy with insulin
b) Control of glucose absorption through the GI tract
c) Drugs that stimulate insulin release or increase sensitivity of insulin receptor sites
d) Surgical clearing of the capillary basement membranes
e) Slowing of gastric emptying
f) Diet and exercise programs

A

a) Replacement therapy with insulin
c) Drugs that stimulate insulin release or increase sensitivity of insulin receptor sites
f) Diet and exercise programs

43
Q

The nurse would consider which of the following assessment findings as adverse effects to metformin therapy?

a) Hypoglycaemia
b) Gastrointestinal distress
c) Lactic acidosis
d) Weight loss

A

c) Lactic acidosis

44
Q
  1. An example of a drug allergy is:
    a) Dry mouth occurring with use of an antihistamine
    b) Increased urination occurring with use of a thiazide diuretic
    c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin
    d) Skin rash associated with procainamide use
A

c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin

45
Q
  1. A woman has repeated bouts of bronchitis throughout Autumn and has been taking antibiotics. She calls the clinic with complaints of vaginal pain and itching. When she is seen, it is discovered that she has developed a yeast infection. You would explain to her that:
    a) Her bronchitis has moved to her vaginal area
    b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection
    c) She probably has developed a sexually transmitted disease related to her lifestyle
    d) She will need to take even more antibiotics to treat this new infection
A

b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection

46
Q
  1. Glucocorticoids are hormones that:
    a) Are released in response to high glucose levels
    b) Help to regulate electrolyte levels
    c) Help to regulate water balance in the body
    d) Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown and fat formation
A

d) Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown and fat formation

47
Q

. People who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include:

a) physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift
b) acne development and hypertension
c) water retention and increased speed of healing
d) hyperglycaemia and water retention

A

physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift

48
Q

A person with many adverse reactions to drugs is tried on an inhaled steroid for treatment of Bronchospasm. For the first 3 days the person does not notice any improvement. You should:

a) Switch the person to xanthine
b) Encourage the person to continue the drug for 2 to 3 weeks
c) Switch the person to a sympathomimetic
d) Try the person on a surfactant

A

b) Encourage the person to continue the drug for 2 to 3 weeks

49
Q

. Atrophine and hyoscine work by blocking

a) Nicotinic receptors only
b) Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
c) Muscarinic receptors only
d) Adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate

A

c) Muscarinic receptors only

50
Q

A smoker who is being treated for hypertension with a beta-blocker is most likely receiving:

a) A non-specific B-blocker
b) An a1-specific B-blocker
c) B- and a-blockers
d) A B1- specific blocker

A

d) A B1- specific blocker

51
Q

You would caution a person who is taking an adrenergic blocker

a) To avoid exposure to infections
b) To stop the drug if he or she experiences flu-like symptoms
c) Never to stop taking the drug abruptly
d) To avoid exposure to the sun

A

c) Never to stop taking the drug abruptly

52
Q

Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non-depolarising NMJ blockers because it:

a) Does not bind well to receptor sites
b) Rapidly crosses the blood brain barrier and is lost
c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma
d) Is very unstable

A

c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma

53
Q

The nurse or midwife would anticipate an order for a loop diuretic as the drug of choice with a person with

a) Hypertension
b) Shock
c) Pulmonary oedema
d) Fluid retention of pregnancy

A

c) Pulmonary oedema

54
Q

. A person with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the person

a) A loop diuretic
b) A thiazide diuretic
c) A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
d) An osmotic diuretic

A

d) An osmotic diuretic

55
Q

A nurse of midwife is about to administer digoxin to a person whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should

a) Give the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low
b) Retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug if the pulse has not changes
c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min
d) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is below 60 beats/min

A

c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min

56
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential, antiarrhythmic drugs often:

a) Cause heart failure
b) Alter blood flow to the kidney
c) Cause new arrhythmias
d) Cause electrolyte disturbances

A

c) Cause new arrhythmias

57
Q

A person who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs:

a) Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised
b) Frequent blood tests, including drug levels
c) An antidepressant to deal with the psychological depression
d) Dietary changes to prevent irritation of the heart muscle

A

a) Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised

58
Q

. Carcinomas are tumours that originate in:

a) Mesenchyme
b) Bone marrow
c) Striated muscle
d) Epithelial cells

A

d) Epithelial cells

59
Q

. Antineoplastic drugs destroy human cells. They are most likely to cause call death among healthy cells that:

a) Have poor cell membranes
b) Are rapidly turning over
c) Are in dormant tissues
d) Cross the blood-brain barrier

A

b) Are rapidly turning over

60
Q

Cancer treatment usually occurs in several different treatment phases. In assessing the appropriateness of another round of chemotherapy for a particular person, which of the following would be evaluated as the most important

a) Hair loss
b) Bone marrow function
c) Anorexia
d) Heart rate

A

b) Bone marrow function

61
Q

A bacteriostatic substance is one that:

a) Directly kills any bacteria that it comes into contact with
b) Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
c) Prevents the growth of bacteria
d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance

A

d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance

62
Q

The goal of antibiotic therapy is:

a) to eradicate all bacteria from the system
b) To suppress resistant strains of bacteria
c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection
d) To stop the drug as soon as the person feels better

A

c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection

63
Q

. The penicillins

a) Are bacteriostatic
b) Are bactericidal, interfering with the cell walls
c) Are effective only when given intravenously
d) Do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class

A

b) Are bactericidal, interfering with the cell walls

64
Q

. Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts:

a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver
c) As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
d) Immediately so it is the drug of choice in emergency situation

A

b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver

65
Q

The low-molecular weight heparin of choice for preventing deep venous thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is:

a) Tinzaparin
b) Dalteparin
c) Heparin
d) Enoxaparin

A

d) Enoxaparin

66
Q

. A thrombolytic agent could be safely used in:

a) CVA within the last 2 months
b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours
c) Recent, serious GI bleeding
d) Caesarean birth

A

b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours

67
Q

When administering a systemic antifungal agent, the nurse or midwife incorporates understanding that all systemic antifungal drugs function to:

a) Break apart the fungus nucleus
b) Interfere with fungus DNA production
c) Alter cell permeability of the fungus, leading to cell death
d) Prevent the fungus from absorbing needed nutrients

A

c) Alter cell permeability of the fungus, leading to cell death

68
Q

Care interventions for the person receiving antiviral drugs for the treatment of HIV probably would include:

a) Monitoring renal and hepatic function periodically during therapy
b) Administering the drugs just once a day to increase drug effectiveness
c) Encouraging the person to avoid eating if GI upset is severe
d) Stopping the drugs and notifying the prescriber if severe rash occurs

A

a) Monitoring renal and hepatic function periodically during therapy

69
Q

While a person is receiving a general anaesthetic, he or she must be continually monitored because:

a) The person has no pain sensation
b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function
c) The person cannot move
d) The person cannot communicate

A

b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function

70
Q

Local anaesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If given in increasing concentrations, local anaesthetics can cause loss, in order, of the following:

a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone
b) Touch sensation, skeletal muscle tone, temperature sensation and proprioception
c) Proprioception, skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation and temperature sensation
d) Skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, temperature sensation and proprioception

A

a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone

71
Q

. Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:

a) Can lead to addiction
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for a larger dose
c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
d) Should rely on the person’s request for the medication

A

b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for a larger dose

72
Q

The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because:

a) There are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis
b) They can be stimulating
c) They are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs
d) They do not affect the neurotransmitters

A

a) There are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis

73
Q

Drugs that are commonly used to treat grandma seizures include:

a) Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins
b) Barbiturates, antihistamines and local anaesthetics
c) Hydantoins and phenobarbitone
d) Benzodiazepines and sodium valproate

A

a) Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins

74
Q

Combination oestrogens and progestin’s are commonly used as oral contraceptives. It is thought that this combination has its effects by:

a) acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development
b) directly suppressing the ovaries and preventing ovulation
c) keeping the endometrium constantly lush and blood filled
d) preventing menstruation, which prevents pregnanacy

A

a) acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development

75
Q

Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts:

a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver
c) As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
d) Immediately so it is the drug of choice in emergency situation

A

b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver

76
Q

Oxytocin, a synthetic form of the hypothalamic hormone, is used to:

a) Induce labour by stimulating uterine contractions
b) Stimulate milk production in the lactating woman
c) Increase fertility and the chance of conception
d) Relax the gravid uterus to prevent preterm labour

A

a) Induce labour by stimulating uterine contractions

77
Q

Testosterone is approved for use in:

a) Treatment of breast cancer
b) Increasing muscle strength in athletes
c) Oral contraception
d) Increasing hair distribution in male pattern baldness

A

a) Treatment of breast cancer

78
Q

A drug reaction that does not occur unless the client has been previously exposed to the agent is a:

a) Idiosyncratic reaction
b) Teratogenic reaction
c) Allergic reaction
d) Liberation reaction

A

c) Allergic reaction

79
Q

When the pharmacological effects of one medication are potentiated or diminished by another medication, this is termed a:

e) Adverse drug reaction
f) Medication incompatibility
g) Medication interaction
h) Placebo effect

A

g) Medication interaction

80
Q

Thyroxine is classified as a:

a) Antithyroid agent
b) Thyroid replacement hormone agent
c) Pituitary agent
d) Adrenal agent

A

b) Thyroid replacement hormone agent

81
Q

At what time of day should thyroid replacement agents be taken?

a) In the morning on an empty stomach
b) In the evening
c) At bedtime
d) After meals

A

a) In the morning on an empty stomach

82
Q

Sally’s thyroid condition is being treated with thyroxine. She should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects of this agent?

a) Bradycardia
b) Weight loss
c) Fatigue
d) Constipation

A

b) Weight loss

83
Q

Medications that increase the force of myocardial contractions have what type of effect?

a) Positive inotropic
b) Negative inotropic
c) Positive chronotropic
d) Negative chronotropic

A

a) Positive inotropic

84
Q

Digoxin is classified as a:

a) Hypokalaemic
b) Cardiac glycoside
c) Coronary artery vasodilator
d) Positive chronotropic

A

b) Cardiac glycoside

85
Q

. Atropine and hyoscine work by blocking

a) Nicotinic receptors only
b) Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
c) Muscarinic receptors only
d) Adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate

A

) Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

86
Q

. A health care provider prescribes adrenaline to a patient who was stung by several wasps 30 minutes ago. The nurse knows that the primary purpose of this medication for this client is to:

a) Stop the systemic release of histamine produced by the mast cells
b) Counteract the formation of antibodies in response to an invading organism
c) Increase the number of white blood cells produced to fight the primary invader
d) Increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis

A

d) Increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis

87
Q

The nurse is teaching a group of clients with cardiac conditions who are taking diuretic therapy. The nurse explains that individuals prescribed frusemide should:

a) Avoid consuming large amounts of cabbage, cauliflower, and kale.
b) Rise slowly from sitting or lying position
c) Count their pulse for 1 full minute before taking the medication
d) Restrict fluid intake to no more than 1000mL in a 24 hour period.

A

b) Rise slowly from sitting or lying position

88
Q

. Clients prescribed spironolactone are often at risk for electrolyte imbalance. The nurse assesses for this adverse effect because this drug may cause the body to:

a) Retain potassium
b) Release magnesium
c) Excrete potassium
d) Bind calcium

A

a) Retain potassium

89
Q

A client with type 1 diabetes will use a combination insulin that includes NPH and regular insulin. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this important information for the client to know?

a) The client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection of insulin based on peaks
b) The risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity
c) It is best to plan activities or exercise around peak insulin times for the best utilisation of glucose
d) Additional insulin may be required at the peak periods to prevent hyperglycaemia

A

b) The risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity

90
Q

While teaching the client about taking oral tetracycline, which of the following does the nurse advise the client to do?

a) Consume calcium rich products to decrease the duration of the antibacterial effect
b) Use a soft toothbrush and floss teeth gently to remove staining on teeth
c) Report any ringing in the ears or dizziness
d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors.

A

d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors.

91
Q

The client is prescribed ciprofloxacin and is instructed to take each dose of medication as evenly spaced apart during the day as possible. The nurse recognizes that this instruction is essential because:

a) The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances
b) Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates
c) Superinfections may develop if a dose of the medication is missed
d) Allergic reactions are more likely to occur if a dose is missed.

A

a) The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances

92
Q

The client with deep vein thrombosis is being treated with a heparin infusion. The nurse would monitor for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following?

a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
b) Prothrombin time (PT)
c) Platelet counts
d) International normalised ratio (INR)

A

a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

93
Q

A patient who is taking clopidogrel to prevent another stroke asks the nurse how the medication works. The nurse’s response should be based on an understanding that Plavix:

a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation
b) Activates antithrombin III and subsequently inhibits thrombin
c) Inhibits enzymes involved in the formation of vitamin K
d) Converts plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve fibrin clots

A

a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation

94
Q

A client has a fever and is allergic to aspirin. Which medication will the nurse anticipate administering to reduce the client’s fever?

a) Ibuprofen
b) Ketorolac
c) Paracetamol
d) Celecoxib

A

c) Paracetamol

95
Q

The nurse should question the use of paracetamol for which client?

a) A client with cirrhosis of the liver
b) A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c) A client with breast cancer
d) A client who is taking warfarin

A

a) A client with cirrhosis of the liver

96
Q

The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief. Which client is at the highest risk of developing hypotension, respiratory depression, and mental confusion?

a) A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix
b) A 16 year old male, post-motorcycle injury with lacerations
c) A 54 year old female, post-myocardial infarction
d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture

A

d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture

NUR 256 (Medication Management) (9 decks)

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