Weeks 1 & 2 - Theory, birth & infancy Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is considered the most important consideration in human development research?
a. Informed consent prior to participation
b. Confidentiality
c. Deception and debriefing
d. Protection from physical and psychological harm

A

d. Protection from physical and psychological harm

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2
Q

Early in their lives, one out of ten Western infants has frequent episodes of crying that last for 3 hours a day ____.
a. because of separation anxiety
b. for no apparent cause
c. as a function of frustration for lack of parental attention
d. because their environment is not warm enough

A

b. for no apparent cause

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3
Q

What percent of the current world’s population lives in the most affluent countries?
a. 18%
b. 34%
c. 51%
d. 68%

A

a. 18%

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4
Q

What is one of the most important indicators of a neonate’s survival and healthy development?
a. Gestational age
b. The Brazelton score
c. The Apgar score
d. Birth weight

A

d. Birth weight

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5
Q

An infant who scores extremely low on the Bayley scales ____.
a. may need the intervention of a social psychologist and paediatric dietician
b. is predicted to do extremely well on an IQ test
c. may have serious development problems and needs immediate attention
d. is doing extremely well and above normal development milestones

A

c. may have serious development problems and needs immediate attention

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6
Q

How much larger was the size of early Homo’s brain compared to the brains of earlier hominids?
a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 55%
d. 70%

A

b. 200%

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7
Q

What was one of the ways that Erikson’s theory differed from Freud’s theory? Erikson believed that _______
a. sexuality was more important than Freud did
b. personality was set at birth, while Freud thought it was completed by age 6
c. development continued throughout the lifespan, and Freud believed that only the early years were important
d. biological factors were more important in terms of development, and Freud believed that culture was more important

A

c. development continued throughout the lifespan, and Freud believed that only the early years were important

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8
Q

Down syndrome is also known as trisomy 21 because individuals with Down syndrome ____.
a. have three distinct facial features by the twenty-first week of pregnancy
b. show three distinct temperament patterns by the twenty-first week of infancy
c. have a third chromosome on the twenty-first pair
d. have 21 genes on the third pair of chromosomes

A

c. have a third chromosome on the twenty-first pair

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9
Q

Which of the following are examples of teratogens?
a. Calcium, iron and iodine
b. Prenatal vitamins and micronutrients
c. Meats, grains and legumes
d. Alcohol, tobacco and other drugs

A

d. Alcohol, tobacco and other drugs

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10
Q

Which of the following most contributed to the large increase in world population that occurred around the 1800s to 1900s?
a. Families increased the average number of children per household from one to three children.
b. Less women were dying in childbirth because they waited longer to have children.
c. The domestication of animals provided a larger food supply.
d. The elimination or sharp reduction of deadly diseases.

A

d. The elimination or sharp reduction of deadly diseases.

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11
Q

Working with patients suffering from various mental health problems, Freud concluded that a consistent theme across patients was that they seemed to have experienced some kind of _____________.
a. incongruent self-concept that is interfering with daily functioning
b. momentous event that classically conditioned a fear within them
c. traumatic event in childhood now buried in their unconscious
d. biological unfolding of the genetic code that is interfering with daily life

A

c. traumatic event in childhood now buried in their unconscious

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12
Q

What happens when a person who had difficulty with the developmental challenge in one of Erikson’s stages has trouble in the next stage? He or she is ___________
a. equally likely to do well with the new stage as someone who successfully resolved the developmental challenge at the earlier stage
b. at high risk for being unsuccessful at the next stage as well
c. more likely to do well since he or she experienced difficulty in the previous stage
d. none of the above

A

b. at high risk for being unsuccessful at the next stage as well

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13
Q

When did the early hominid species evolve into Homo sapiens?
a. 20,000 years ago
b. 200,000 years ago
c. 2,000,000 years ago
d. 20,000,000 years ago

A

b. 200,000 years ago

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14
Q

Jill’s mother and father both have brown eyes, yet she has blue eyes. She has come to believe that she is not her parents’ actual biological daughter. What would you tell her?
a. Her mother and father probably carry the recessive trait for blue eyes.
b. She is correct; there is no way that she would have blue eyes if she were really her parents’ biological daughter.
c. Blue eyes are dominant, so her parents should have blue eyes too.
d. Only the environment determines eye colour once the foetus has been born.

A

a. Her mother and father probably carry the recessive trait for blue eyes.

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15
Q

From a global perspective, which of the following is the most common teratogen to affect pregnancies?
a. lead
b. alcohol
c. rubella
d. malnutrition

A

D. Malnutrition

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16
Q

It is estimated that half of all conceptions have too many or too few chromosomes. According to the text, what happens to most of the zygotes that are formed in these situations?
a. they are spontaneously aborted
b. they result in neonates with birth defects
c. they result in twins
d. they have no problems

A

a. they are spontaneously aborted

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17
Q

The first 2 weeks after fertilisation are known as:
a. conception
b. the germinal period
c. the embryonic period
d. the foetal period

A

b. the germinal period

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18
Q

What term refers to malnutrition, disease, alcohol, tobacco and other drugs that are harmful to the foetus?
a. teratogens
b. fetogens
c. carcinogens
d. octatogens

A

a. teratogens

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19
Q

What describes the profound and enduring effect on later development that teratogens can have during the embryonic period?
a. Critical period
b. Sensitive period
c. Embryonic period
d. Foetal period

A

a. Critical period

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20
Q

Susan is talking to her friend, who is at the end of her second trimester. Lucila wants to be reassured that she is not crazy, but thinks her baby actually kicks, turns and hiccups. Lucila even thinks that the baby becomes more active if she talks to it. If you were Susan, how would you respond to Lucila’s observations?
a. ‘Lucila, those activities are normal for the end of the second trimester, and foetuses can hear even in the womb.’
b. ‘Lucila, I think you are going crazy. A foetus really doesn’t kick that early in the pregnancy and it’s crazy to think it can hear.’
c. ‘Lucila, all those things do happen, but not really until the end of the third trimester.’
d. ‘Lucila, I think you need to go see your doctor because something is absolutely wrong.’

A

a. ‘Lucila, those activities are normal for the end of the second trimester, and foetuses can hear even in the womb.’

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21
Q

Dr. Mitchell is conducting a research study on temperament. As a basis of this study, he plans to follow 1,000 subjects from the age of 5 to the age of 35. At periodic times he will revisit subjects and their temperament. Dr. Mitchell’s research study is planned to last for 30 years. Which of the following best describes the type of research Dr. Mitchell is conducting?
a. Ethnographic research
b. Quasi-experimental research
c. Longitudinal research
d. Observational research

A

c. Longitudinal research

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22
Q

What does the text refer to as the biologically based raw material of personality?
a. Genetics
b. Temperament
c. Physiological set
d. Bio-personality

A

b. Temperament

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23
Q

An individual with Down syndrome has how many chromosomes?
a. 45
b. 46
c. 47
d. 48

A

c. 47

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24
Q

Who are generally carriers of X-linked disorders?
a. Females
b. Males
c. Individuals who have been exposed to teratogens
d. Individuals with a trisomy

A

a. Females

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25
Q

What is Bronfenbrenner’s term for the immediate environment, the settings where people experience their daily lives?
a. Microsystem
b. Mesosystem
c. Exosystem
d. Macrosystem

A

a. Microsystem

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26
Q

According to Freud, traumatic events during childhood that are buried in the unconscious mind are also known as ____ memories.
a. repressed
b. expressed
c. conscious
d. conditioned

A

a. repressed

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27
Q

Your sister did everything that she could to have a healthy pregnancy, but her baby was born at 33 weeks and was ‘small-for-date’. She is not sure what that means. What would you tell her? This means that her baby was ____.
a. born weighing less than was expected for her gestational age
b. born prematurely
c. very short
d. lucky not to be resuscitated at birth

A

a. born weighing less than was expected for her gestational age

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28
Q

Who is more affected by X-linked inherited disorders?

a. females
b. males
c. children under 1 year of age
d. adults with mutations

A

b. males

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29
Q

What type of correlation occurs when both variables increase in the same direction together?
a. Positive correlation
b. Negative correlation
c. Inverse correlation
d. Multiple correlation

A

a. Positive correlation

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30
Q

What is a disadvantage of the case study method? The results are_______
a. not valid
b. difficult to generalise
c. only of interest to the participant
d. too difficult to analyse

A

b. difficult to generalise

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31
Q

Observational methods have an advantage over questionnaires and interviews in that they involve _________.
a. the reporting of behaviour by a close relative of the participant
b. actual behaviour rather than self-reports of behaviour
c. the self-reporting of behaviour
d. less involved data analysis

A

b. actual behaviour rather than self-reports of behaviour

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32
Q

According to Lewis, what type of emotion requires social learning such as embarrassment, shame and guilt?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Elementary
d. Primitive

A

b. Secondary

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33
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of Erik Erikson’s third, fourth and fifth stages of psychosocial development?
a. Initiative vs. guilt, identity vs. identity confusion, generativity vs. stagnation
b. Ego integrity vs. despair, intimacy vs. isolation, identity vs. identity confusion
c. Trust vs. mistrust, industry vs. inferiority, autonomy vs. shame and doubt
d. Initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs. identity confusion

A

d. Initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs. identity confusion

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34
Q

What happens after infants have been babbling for a few months?

a. They begin making holophrases.
b. They cease to babble in sounds they have not heard used by the people around them.
c. They begin gesturing along with babbling.
d. They begin to make sounds to which they are not exposed.

A

b. They cease to babble in sounds they have not heard used by the people around them.

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35
Q

The totality of an individual’s genes is referred to as his or her ______
a. phenotype
b. genotype
c. x-linked inheritance
d. reaction range

A

b. genotype

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36
Q

What was one of the ways that Erikson’s theory differed from Freud’s theory? Erikson believed that _______
a. sexuality was more important than Freud did
b. personality was set at birth, while Freud thought it was completed by age 6
c. development continued throughout the lifespan, and Freud believed that only the early years were important
d. biological factors were more important in terms of development, and Freud believed that culture was more important

A

c. development continued throughout the lifespan, and Freud believed that only the early years were important

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37
Q

Working with patients suffering from various mental health problems, Freud concluded that a consistent theme across patients was that they seemed to have experienced some kind of _____________.
a. incongruent self-concept that is interfering with daily functioning
b. momentous event that classically conditioned a fear within them
c. traumatic event in childhood now buried in their unconscious
d. biological unfolding of the genetic code that is interfering with daily life

A

c. traumatic event in childhood now buried in their unconscious

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38
Q

Between now and 2050, the increase in the population of the United States will be nearly entirely caused by what?
a. increased life expectancy
b. Higher majority fertility
c. Higher minority fertility
d. immigration

A

d immigration

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39
Q

Sally is a young girl who lives in rural area of a developing country. Her family adheres strongly to the historical traditions of their culture. S. lives in a(n) ______________ culture.
a. conservative
b. traditional
c. archaic
d. conventional

A

b traditional

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40
Q

A. and W. are brothers. A. owns a cleaning business, and W. helps when the jobs are too big for A. to do alone. These brothers most likely live in a(n) ______________ culture.
a. collectivistic
b. individualistic
c. conventional
d. caste

A

a collectivistic

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41
Q

Dr Wu is conducting research and plans to measure the socioeconomic status (SeS) of his participants. His measure of SeS will most likely include which of the following?
a. income level, education level and occupational status
b. income level, area of education or specialised training, and race
c. income level and reputation
d. income level and ethnicity

A

a income level, education level and occupational status

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42
Q

Phoebe is very proud of her ability to speak Japanese, her parents’ native language, and she has taught herself a number of traditional Japanese dances and songs. Phoebe is proud of her ______________.
a. ethnicity
b. majority culture
c. socioeconomic status
d. caste status

A

a. ethnicity

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43
Q

Unlike earlier hominids, Homo sapiens had ______________.
a. much heavier and thicker bones
b. smaller teeth and jaws
c. a slightly smaller brain
d. a narrower pelvis among females and a larger pelvis among males

A

b. smaller teeth and jaws

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44
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the effects of natural selection?
a. Species are eliminated, or ‘selected’, one-by-one over thousands of years, and no new species are developed.
b. Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species.
c. New species are naturally developed only every 2000 years, and all previously existing species die out.
d. Species change over short periods of time, and this change occurs roughly every 1000 years.

A

b. Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species.

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45
Q

Dr Jenks is interested in how mate selection is shaped by our evolutionary history. She most likely considers herself a(n) ______________.
a. biopsychologist
b. developmental psychologist
c. evolutionary psychologist
d. social archaeologist

A

c. evolutionary psychologist

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46
Q

The dramatic change in the development of the human species that took place during the Upper Palaeolithic period was that, for the first time, ______________.
a. brains got larger
b. tools were created
c. art appeared
d. jaws got larger to eat a wider variety of plants

A

c. art appeared

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47
Q

Which of the following is True?
a. The development of larger brains allowed our species to be capable of altering our environment.
b. Biologically, humans have changed drastically since the origin of Homo sapiens.
c. There are fewer than 10 cultures around the world today.
d. We are a species that originated in South Asia.

A

a. The development of larger brains allowed our species to be capable of altering our environment.

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48
Q

The Dharmashastras are the sacred law books of the __________ religion that describe four stages of a man’s life.

a. Christian
b. Hindu
c. Jewish
d. Buddhist

A

b. Hindu

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49
Q

According to the Jewish holy book, _________ is the age of moral responsibility.
a. 10
b. 8
c. 13
d. 18

A

c. 13

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50
Q

The Dharmashastras, the Talmund and the conception of life proposed by Solon _________.
a. each divide the life span into 5-year periods
b. are all sacred law books of the Hindu religion
c. were all written by men
d. were written within a year of one another

A

c. were all written by men

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51
Q

The three traditional conceptions of life (in the Dharmashastras, the Talmund and as proposed by Solon) differ _________.
a. in the level of maturity they attribute to youth
b. in the stage of life when wisom is evident
c. in the way that they divide the life span
d. in that only one is a view of how we develop if all goes well

A

c. in the way that they divide the life span

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52
Q

A man decides to spend the next 25 years living in the forest. According to the Dharmashastras, what event has occurred to mark this new life phase?
a. The man has left his father’s home
b. The man’s first grandson is born
c. The man has achieved renunciation of all worldly attachments
d. The man’s wife has died

A

b. The man’s first grandson is born

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53
Q

According to Freud, ________.
a. Children experience the anal stage that leads them to want to have sexual access to their opposite-sex parent.
b. Everything important in development happened before adulthood
c. The oral stage lasts from about ages 3 to 6
d. The root of mental health problems in his patients was that they seemed to have experienced some type of traumatic event during the transition to young adulthood

A

b. Everything important in development happened before adulthood

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54
Q

One critique of Freud’s theory is that ________.
a. It was derived from studying his own patients, most of whom were middle-class men
b. He focused on culture much more than other aspects of development
c. Freud never studied children
d. It reduced human behaviour to only one motive: the need to be integrated into the social environment

A

c. Freud never studied children

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55
Q

Bram does not ever want to get married. The idea of a lifetime commitment makes him anxious and uncomfortable, and any time a girlfriend brings up the subject of marriage, he breaks up with her. According to Erikson, Bram will not successfully resolve the _________ crisis.
a. Autonomy versus commitment
b. Generativity versus stagnation
c. Identity versus role confusion
d. Intimacy versus isolation

A

d. Intimacy versus isolation

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56
Q

Belinda’s parents are divorced, but they work together to be sure that they will have open lines of communication with their daughter’s teacher and attend as many school functions as possible. The strong interconnection between Belinda’s parents and the various aspects of her school is an example of the __________.
a. mesosystem
b. ecosystem
c. microsystem
d. macrosystem

A

a. mesosystem

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57
Q

Which statements concerning the developmental period known as emerging adulthood is most accurate according to Arnett?
a. Compared to emerging adults of past generations, today’s emerging adults are more dependent upon their romantic partners.
b. It is a life stage in which most people have not yet made commitments to the stable roles of love and work that structure adult life for most people
c. It is more common in developing countries than in developed countries.
d. Emerging adulthood is a period that replaces middle age.

A

b. It is a life stage in which most people have not yet made commitments to the stable roles of love and work that structure adult life for most people

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58
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding research methods?
a. The strength of the case study approach is the ability to generalise the findings
b. Qualitative data are considered unscientific among most researchers in the field of psychology.
c. The most commonly used method in social science research is the open-ended interview.
d. The ethnographic method allows the researcher to learn how people behave in their daily lives.

A

d. The ethnographic method allows the researcher to learn how people behave in their daily lives.

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59
Q

Where does the developmental life stage of emerging adulthood usually appear?
a. In traditional cultures
b. In collectivistic cultures
c. In developed countries
d. In developing countries

A

c. In developed countries

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60
Q

The United States’ belief in the value of individual freedom, as demonstrated in its capitalistic economic system and its governmental system of representative democracy, reflects which system of Bronfenbrenner’s theory?
a. Microsystem
b. Exosystem
c. Macrosystem
d. Chronosystem

A

c. Macrosystem

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61
Q

Although Shananmae makes a good salary in sales, she is questioning whether her work in the retail industry is making a meaning contribution to society. She is thinking of going back to school to train to be a nurse so that she can give back to society by helping others. According to Erikson, she is in the stage of:
a. Ego integrity versus despair
b. Industry versus stagnation
c. Generativity versus stagnation
d. Industry versus inferiority

A

c. Generativity versus stagnation

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62
Q

According to Freud, ________ is the driving force behind human development.
a. attachment to one’s mother
b. sexual desire
c. cognitive development
d. trust

A

b. sexual desire

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63
Q

The Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, describe ________ stages of a person’s life.
a. 2
b. 10
c. 4
d. 12

A

c. 4

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64
Q

Which of the following best represents the impact of evolution on human development?
a. Biologically, humans have changed drastically since the origin of Homo sapiens
b. Instincts reduce humans’ capacity for cultural learning more than they reduce animals’ capacity for cultural learning.
c. Our development of bipedal locomotion is the most distinctive characteristic of our species
d. Cultures shape the raw material of biology into widely different paths throughout the life span.

A

d. Cultures shape the raw material of biology into widely different paths throughout the life span.

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65
Q

Which of the following occurred during the Neolithic period?
a. The climate got much colder
b. Humans reach Australia for the first time.
c. The domestication of animals developed.
d. Humans began to bury their dead for the first time.

A

c. The domestication of animals developed.

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66
Q

If a researcher wanted to measure the socioeconomic status (SES) of her adult participants, she would need to ask them about which of the following?
a. Education level
b. Religion
c. Number of children
d. Ethnicity

A

a. Education level

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67
Q

The United States ____________.
a. is expected to have approximately the same proportion of Latinos by 2050, but far fewer African Americans
b. is the developed country that will experience the steepest decline in population between now and 2050
c. has a total fertility rate that is lower than most developed countries due to the availability of birth control
d. is one of the few developed countries that will experience an increase in population, due largely to immigration

A

d. is one of the few developed countries that will experience an increase in population, due largely to immigration

68
Q

Enrico’s biological parents were both musicians, so he was born with a(n) __________ that included exceptional musical ability, but because he was never exposed to musical instruments or instruction when he was adopted, he never developed his musical ability.
a. heritability
b. allele
c. phenotype
d. genotype

A

d. genotype

69
Q

Errol’s father carries two recessive genes for sickle-cell anaemia, and Errol’s mother carries two normal dominant genes. Therefore, Errol has inherited ______________.
a. Huntington’s chorea
b. a resistance to malaria
c. sickle-cell anemia
d. anaemia

A

b. a resistance to malaria

70
Q

Individuals of _________ descent are most likely to have sickle-cell anamia.
a. European
b. African
c. Native American
d. Asian

A

b. African

71
Q

Sadie carries the recessive gene from haemophilia, a disorder in which the blood does not clot properly. If Sadie had two children, a boy and a girl, and passed the recessive gene for the disorder onto both children, which of her children would develop haemophilia if the father does not have haemophilia himself?
a. Both children
b. The girl
c. The boy
d. Neither of the two children

A

c. The boy

72
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome
b. All eggs in the mother contain an X chromosome
c. All sperm carry a Y chromosome
d. The X chromosome and the Y chromosome carry the same amount of genetic material

A

b. All eggs in the mother contain an X chromosome

73
Q

The heritability of intelligence __________ from childhood to adulthood.
a. decreases
b. stays the same
c. increases
d. has not been calculated in this area of research

A

c. increases

74
Q

The higher the concordance rates, ________.
a. the higher the person’s quality of life is likely to be
b. the more different two people are
c. the more similar the two people are
d. the higher the person’s chances of having twins

A

c. the more similar the two people are

75
Q

Girls normally begin menstruating between the ages of 11 and 16, towards the lower end of this range under health conditions and towards the higher end when nutrition is insufficient. This is an example of __________.
a. epigenetics
b. a low concordance rates
c. a high concordance rates
d. heritability

A

a. epigenetics

76
Q

In recent decades in Western countries, there has been little change in average height, indicating that the populations of these countries have reached the upper boundary of their __________ for height.
a. reaction range
b. concordance rate
c. heritability
d. polygenic inheritance

A

a. reaction range

77
Q

A toddler from the Hamer tribe in Ethiopia was adopted by an American couple who described themselves as ‘non-athletes’. This tribe is known for having members who are exceptionally tall. Once she started school, she asked to play in the after-school basketball program, tried out for the team in high school and eventually went on to earn a scholarship to play at university. This is an example of _______.
a. incomplete dominance
b. niche picking
c. polygenic inheritance
d. a self-fulfilling prophecy

A

b. niche picking

78
Q

At what age do most women run out of ova?
a. In their late 20s
b. Sometime in their early 30s
c. Sometime in their 40s
d. In their late 30s

A

c. Sometime in their 40s

79
Q

As a result of the process of crossing over, ________.
a. the risk of sickle-cell anaemia decreases
b. boys are more likely to be born with a learning disability
c. the genetic material originating from the mother and father is rearranged
d. women are at increased risk for infertility

A

c. the genetic material originating from the mother and father is rearranged

80
Q

_______ is formed when the ovum and sperm unite and fertilisation takes place.
a. The zygote
b. The blastula
c. The embryo
d. The blastocyst

A

a. The zygote

81
Q

Fertilisation can only take place only ________.
a. in the first 24 hours after the ovum enters the fallopian tube
b. if intercourse occurs on the day of ovulation
c. in the first 2 hours after the ovum enters the fallopian tube
d. within 3 days after the ovum enters the fallopian tube

A

a. in the first 24 hours after the ovum enters the fallopian tube

82
Q

In general, ________ have the highest rates of DZ twins.
a. South Americans
b. Europeans
c. Africans
d. Asians

A

c. Africans

83
Q

After fertilisation, the first 2 weeks of pregnancy is called the _______.
a. first-trimester
b. germinal period
c. embryonic period
d. fetal period

A

b. germinal period

84
Q

The blastocyst forms during the ________.
a. germinal period
b. embryonic period
c. fetal period
d. second trimester

A

a. germinal period

85
Q

The _______ form from the outer layer of the embryonic disk.
a. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system
b. brain and spinal cord
c. lungs and heart
d. digestive and respiratory systems

A

a. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system

86
Q

During the ________ period of prenatal development, nearly all the major organs are formed.
a. fetal
b. embryonic
c. germinal
d. zygotic

A

b. embryonic

87
Q

Maddox, a baby born 6 weeks prematurely, is more at risk of not surviving than his sister, Sheika, who was born full term, because Maddox’s ______ is/are still immature
a. intestines
b. pancreas
c. heart
d. lungs

A

d. lungs

88
Q

Melinda is a healthy woman who just found out she was pregnant and went for her first prenatal visit. Which of the following pieces of advice is she most likely to receive from her doctor?
a. Avoid Kegal exercises
b. Drink slightly less fluid than usual
c. Avoid even mild exercise
d. Eat foods with sufficient iodine

A

d. Eat foods with sufficient iodine

89
Q

Your sister is pregnant. She has always been health conscious and exercises regularly. She is planning on engaging in aerobic exercise by continuing to go to her exercise classes. According to most doctors, she should ________.
a. exercise regularly as she will stimulate the circulatory and muscle systems
b. exercise regularly because she lowers the chances of teratogens reaching the fetus
c. avoid aerobic exercise as it has been shown to dangerously increase fetal heart rate
d. be very careful as this type of exercise during pregnancy could lower muscle mass

A

a. exercise regularly as she will stimulate the circulatory and muscle systems

90
Q

The most common teratogen worldwide is ______.
a. alcohol
b. tobacco
c. malnutrition
d. rubella

A

c. malnutrition

91
Q

Marie is a heavy drinker and managed to stop drinking for most of her pregnancy. If she drank alcohol during the ______ period, her baby would be most at risk of structural damage
a. blastula
c. postnatal
c. embryonic
d. germinal

A

c. embryonic

92
Q

It is January 1989 in Beijing, Cina, and Huang and Jiao have just married. They want to conceive a child as soon as possible, as most newly married Chinese couples do. Considering it is the middle of winter, and fruits and vegetables are not readily available, what important nutrient in Huang’s prenatal diet is likely to be missing, potentially causing her child to be born with spinal bifida?
a. Calcium
b. Vitamin D
c. Folic acid
d. Potassium

A

c. Folic acid

93
Q

Keisha has inherited one recessive gene for the sickle-cell trait along with one normal dominant gene. As a result of this ________, she is resistant to malaria and she does not have sickle-cell anaemia.
a. reaction range
b. incomplete dominance
c. dominant-recessive inheritance
d. polygenic inheritance

A

b. incomplete dominance

94
Q

Who has the greatest risk of developing haemophilia, which is an X-linked recessive disorder?
a. Males and females with one X chromosome that contains the gene for the disorder will have equal risk
b. a female who has one X chromosome that contains the gene for this disorder
c. Only Aboriginal and torres Strait Island peoples, due to their unique genetic make-up
d. A male who has one X chromosome that contains the gene for this disorder

A

d. A male who has one X chromosome that contains the gene for this disorder

95
Q

Which of the following questions would a behaviour geneticist be more likely to ask?
a. ‘Why are children in the same family so different from one another?’
b. ‘Are preterm babies more likely to have learning difficulties during the school years?’
c. ‘What effects does alcohol have on the developing organism?’
d. ‘How can prenatal tests be used to detect Down Syndrome?’

A

a. ‘Why are children in the same family so different from one another?’

95
Q

Which of the following questions would a behaviour geneticist be more likely to ask?
a. ‘Why are children in the same family so different from one another?’
b. ‘Are preterm babies more likely to have learning difficulties during the school years?’
c. ‘What effects does alcohol have on the developing organism?’
d. ‘How can prenatal tests be used to detect Down Syndrome?’

A
96
Q

Why has there been little change in the average height in Western countries over the last few decades?
a. Evolutionary influences are causing all populations to decrease in height?
b. People in Western countries have been exposed to more diseases.
c. The population has become overweight or obese, which negatively affects height.
d. People have reached the upper boundary of their reaction range for height.

A

d. People have reached the upper boundary of their reaction range for height.

97
Q

John is short for his age and is very coordinated. Although exposed to a variety of activities, none has particularly interested him. His father, who used to wrestle when he was younger, signs John up for wresting, thinking this could be the perfect sport. He convinces John to give it a try and John goes on to become a champion wrestler. This is an example of _________.
a. heritability
b. evocative genotype > environment effects
c. active genotype > environment effects
d. passive genotype > environment effects

A

d. passive genotype > environment effects

98
Q

If Susan learns that her infertility problems is due to a problem with the _________ successfully implanting, something went wrong during the germinal period.
a. fetus
b. trophoblast
c. zygote
d. blastocyst

A

d. blastocyst

99
Q

During the embryonic period, _________.
a. the zygote attaches to the uterine wall
b. the major organs develop
c. the blastocyst forms
d. the zyfgote is created

A

b. the major organs develop

100
Q

In traditional cultures, prenatal massage _______.
a. is usually considered dangerous
b. has beneficial effects for both mother and fetus
c. is almost exclusively performed by the parent and mother herself in complete isolation
d. is usually done only when there is reason to believe that the fetus is not developing properly

A

b. has beneficial effects for both mother and fetus

101
Q

Ben and Janet attended a prenatal visit with a specialist to assess the growth and size of their developing fetus. Which procedure did they use?
a. Non-invasive prenatal testing
b. Chrionic villus sampling
c. Ultrasound
d. Amniocentesis

A

c. Ultrasound

102
Q

A married woman from a non-Western, collectivistic culture has been unable to have a child for over 3 years. Which of the following is most likely?
a. She will try IVF.
b. She will get a lot of social support from her mother-in-law and father-in-law
c. She will be blamed for this ‘problem’
d. She will have a higher status relative to her husband

A

c. She will be blamed for this ‘problem’

103
Q

What Apgar score indicates that a newborn is in good to excellent condition?
a. 2
b. 10
c. 20
d. 5

A

b. 10

104
Q

What is the definition of low birth weight?
a. Neonates weighing less than 2400 grams
b. Neonates weighing 1000-1500 grams
c. Neonates weighing less than 1000 grams
d. Neonates born less than 37 weeks

A

a. Neonates weighing less than 2400 grams

105
Q

When individuals who were born with low birth weight become adolescents, they are more likely to ________.
a. suffer from clinical depression
b. have delayed development of secondary sex characteristics
c. be obese and have poor muscle tone
d. have low IQ scores and repeat a grade

A

d. have low IQ scores and repeat a grade

106
Q

Marina and Paolo’s preterm baby boy was born weighing only 2000 grams. To stabilise their baby’s heart rate, breathing, body temperature and sleep-wake cycles, Marina and Paolo have been placing the baby on their chests, skin-to-skin, for 2 to 3 hours a day. This is well-known, scientifically proven method for stimulating neonatal functioning is called ________.
a. contact comfort
b. koala care
c. kangaroo care
d. massage care

A

c. kanagroo care

107
Q

Preterm babies who get massaged three times a day for 15 minutes at a time in their first days of life __________ compared to those who do not.
a. produce more surfactant
b. are more coordinated later in life
c. gain more weight
d. are less likely to develop jaundice

A

c. gain more weight

108
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding infants’ sleep?
a. Infants in different cultures have very similar sleep patterns, suggesting that the environment plays no role in the sleep-wake cycle.
b. Infants spend a greater proportion of time in REM sleep than adults do.
c. On average, male infants sleep longer than females.
d. The average newborn sleeps 16-17 hours per day.

A

d. The average newborn sleeps 16-17 hours per day.

109
Q

While being held by her grandmother, newborn Juliette starts to turn towards her grandmother’s body and open mouth. She is demonstrating the ______ reflex.
a. Babkin
b. rooting
c. Moro
d. Babinski

A

b. rooting

110
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to have survival value?
a. The rooting reflex
b. The Moro reflex
c. The Babkin reflex
d. The swimming reflex

A

c. The Babkin reflex

111
Q

What sense(s) is (are) the first to develop in neonates?
a. Hearing
b. Sight
c. Touch
d. Taste and smell

A

c. Touch

112
Q

At birth, the last development of a neonate’s senses is _______.
a. sight
b. hearing
c. smell
d. taste

A

a. sight

113
Q

Which of the following best describes the Piagetian term of ‘schemes’?
a. When new information is altered to fit existing information
b. When a mental structure is changed to adapt to new information
c. When a person’s self-concept is changed to adapt to new information
d. Cognitive structures for processing, organising, and interpreting information

A

d. Cognitive structures for processing, organising, and interpreting information

114
Q

Seena likes to suck on a dummy during naptime at her day care. One day, her mother forgets to pack the pacifier, so her teacher offers her a plastic toy to suck on instead. In learning to suck on this toy, Seena relies heavily on _________.
a. assimilation
b. object permanence
c. accommodation
d. maturation

A

a. accommodation

115
Q

Troy is 12 months old and loves to eat biscuits. While sitting in the kitchen he sees a packet of biscuits. When his actions become intentional and goal-directed, he actively moves, reaches for and grasps the packet of biscuits, it is clear that he is in sensorimotor substage ___________.
a. 4. coordination of secondary schemes
b. 3. secondary circular reactions
c. 2. first habits and primary circular reactions
d. 1. simple reflexes

A

a. 4. coordination of secondary schemes

116
Q

Schaffer loves it when his mother puts a towel over her face and then quickly pulls it down. His big belly laugh at this game of peek-a-boo indicates that he _________.
a. is assimilating rather than accommodating
b. has made the A-not-B error
c. lacks intermodal perception
d. has a limited understanding of object permanence

A

d. has a limited understanding of object permanence

117
Q

Which of the following is a critique of Piaget’s sensorimotor theory?
a. His tests of object permanence require motor ability
b. His theory was based mostly on children from non-Western cultures
c. It describes the cognitive abilities of girls more accurately than boys
d. It may have overestimate infants’ cognitive abilities

A

a. His tests of object permanence require motor ability

118
Q

Which of the following is analogous to, and was the model for, the information processing approach?
a. The human brain
b. The computer
c. The animal brain
d. The circuits of a radio

A

b. The computer

119
Q

You and your brother are babysitting your infant cousin. Initially, he is very interested in a puppet that you were using but seems to not be very interested in it after a few minutes. Your brother thinks that he might not have a very long attention span. You tell your brother that your cousin is actually displaying ________.
a. the A-not-B-error
b. habituation
c. insensitivity to stimuli
d. dishabituation

A

b. habituation

120
Q

You are watching your next-door neighbour’s 8-month-old infant. You notice that she is getting increasingly social. She directs her attention not just to whatever sensations are most stimulating but to what the people around her are doing. She is ________.
a. showing the A-not-B error
b. engaging in joint attention
c. showing recognition
d. displaying object permanence

A

b. engaging in joint attention

121
Q

Researchers have proposed that the immaturity of the ___________ at birth is why humans show infantile amnesia.
a. hippocampus
b. frontal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. cigulate gyrus

A

a. hippocampus

122
Q

One reflection of the development of infants’ short-term memory is their improvement __________.
a. in their fine motor skills
b. in their language skills
c. in their gross motor skills
d. at the task of object permanence

A

d. at the task of object permanence

123
Q

According to the text, infants who score extremely low on the Bayley scale ________.
a. score above normal on development milestones and tests of object permanence
b. are predicted to do extremely well on IQ tests
c. are predicted to do poorly in school due to low motivation and boredom despite high IQ scores
d. may have serious developmental problems and require intervention

A

d. may have serious developmental problems and require intervention

124
Q

Your brother is concerned that your nephew is not going to be a very good student when he goes to school because whenever he shows him something new, your nephew only looks at it for a short time. Is your brother likely to be correct?
a. No, infants who are short-lookers tend to have higher IQs and higher educational achievement than long-lookers later.
b. Yes, infants who are short-lookers have lower IQs, but they work harder than long-lookers
c. No, infants who are short-lookers tend to have higher IQs in primary school, but their scores decrease more later in development compared to long-looks.
d. Yes, infants who are short-lookers have lower IQs and lower educational achievement later.

A

a. No, infants who are short-lookers tend to have higher IQs and higher educational achievement than long-lookers later.

125
Q

The three main scales on Bayley-4 are the cognitive scale, language scale, and ______ scale.
a. motor
b. temperament
c. personality
d. attachment

A

a. motor

126
Q

The Bayley scales produce a _____________ as an overall measure of infants’ developmental progress.
a. developmental quotient (DQ)
b. Habituation quotient (HQ)
c. Intelligence quotient (IQ)
d. Bayley quotient (BQ)

A

a. developmental quotient (DQ)

127
Q

The Bayley Scales of Infant Development is a widely used assessment of infant development from
a. 16 days to 3.5 years
b. 3 years to 5 years
c. 60 days to 2 years
d. 1 day to 30 days

A

a. 16 days to 3.5 years

128
Q

Patrice is 6 months old and is quite talkative. She is now using repetitive consonant-vowel combinations, and her favourite appears to be ‘ba-ba-ba-ba’. Patrice has reached the _______ milestone in language development.
a. Cooing
b. Infant-directed speech
c. Gurgling
d. Babbling

A

d. babbling

129
Q

Babbling _________.
a. is universal
b. only occurs if the infant can hear
c. is found only in infants from the Western Hemisphere
d. is the stage immediately before cooing.

A

a. is universal

130
Q

Cressida talks to her 5-month-old baby in a sweet-high-pitched, exaggerated manner and says things like, ‘Good girl, you ate your sweet potatoes! You’re a good girl, yes you are!’ This special way of speaking to infants is called ________.
a. simplified speech
b. intimate speech
c. speech praise
d. infant-directed speech

A

d. infant-directed speech

131
Q

The Gusii of Kenya, like people in many traditional cultures, are in physical contact with their children nearly constantly. How do they view talking to children?
a. They do not think that it is necessary or useful to speak to infants.
b. They speak only to the upper-caste infants.
c. They speak to male infants directly, but hardly ever to the females.
d. They speak to them much more than in Western cultures.

A

a. They do not think that it is necessary or useful to speak to infants.

132
Q

Use of infant-directed speech ________.
a. leads to slower development of language than the more sophisticated style of language typically spoken with adults
b. involves speaking in a low tone that infants are better able to hear
c. has been shown to be less interesting to babies than normal speech; a reason why many parents do not use this ‘baby talk’
d. varies from culture to culture outside the West

A

d. varies from culture to culture outside the West

133
Q

Which statement is TRUE about temperament?
a. It has been defined by the same dimensions and measured the same way by various researchers
b. It has only been a topic of study in the last decade; before this, psychologists thought that infants were similar in emotionality
c. It is considered to have a biological basis
d. It has only been assed using cross-sectional methods

A

c. It is considered to have a biological basis

134
Q

In Chess and Thomas’s (1984) longitudinal study, they classified the infants to their three categories and then followed these infants as they developed into adulthood. What did they find?
a. It was impossible to predict later development from infant temperament
b. Temperament in infancy predicted later development in some respects
c. Infant temperament was only predictive of the later development of the 35% who were not able to be classified into one of the three groups.
d. Infant temperament was only predictive of the later development of middle-and high-socioeconomic status individuals.

A

b. Temperament in infancy predicted later development in some respects

135
Q

The most common classification for the babies in Thomas and Chess’ original study was ________-.
a. unclassifiable
b. difficult
c. easy
d. slow-to-warm-up

A

c. easy

136
Q

Based on research, if Ru Fong, an infant with a difficult temperament, were able to be adopted by parents that show a lot of anger and frustration, we might predict which of the following outcomes?
a. A child who is high in self-confidence but low in sociability
b. A child who is outgoing
c. An easygoing child who is good at self-regulating
d. A child who is defiant and disobedient

A

d. A child who is defiant and disobedient

137
Q

Which of the following best illustrates a good fit between caregiver and child?
a. A ‘difficult’ infant whose parents love their child, but respond with anger
b. An irritable baby who is reared by parents who are rigid and intolerant
c. A slow-to-warm-up baby whose parents are patient and understanding
d. A shy and often fussy child whose parents try to overcome this by encouraging face-to-face-interactions with others

A

c. A slow-to-warm-up baby whose parents are patient and understanding

138
Q

Arman is showing intense fear of a large dog that is approaching his pram. fear is an example of a _________.
a. secondary emotion
b. sociomoral emotion
c. primary emotion
d. tertiary emotion

A

c. primary emotion

139
Q

Social smiles first appear _________.
a. after 18 months
b. within the first 2 weeks after birth
c. later in the first year
d. in the second or third month

A

d. in the second or third month

140
Q

Of the emotions listed. below, _______ is the emotion an infant would likely display latest in its development
a. fear
b. shame
c. disgust
d. anger

A

b. shame

141
Q

Across cultures _________.
a. infants are usually relatively isolated during the course of the day to decrease the chance of infection
b. infants are cared for by their older brothers so that the mother can devote time and energy to her work
c. infants are hardly ever carried out of concern that they may become spoiled
d. fathers are usually remote or absent during the first year

A

d. fathers are usually remote or absent during the first year

142
Q

Combining what scholars have learned from observing infants in a variety of different cultures today, along with what other scholars have learned from studying human evolutionary history and the history of human societies, what is one of the things that infants’ social worlds have in common across most cultures?
a. Infants are put down in a quite space for most of the day while the rest of the family goes about its daily routines.
b. Fathers are very hands-on with infants, especially during the first year.
c. Infants are with their mothers almost constantly during the early months of life.
d. Infants see few people other than their own mother for the first year.

A

c. Infants are with their mothers almost constantly during the early months of life.

143
Q

Baby Hibiki feels safe and secure with his mother and knows that she will feed him, keep warm, and love him. Because of the solid emotional foundation he has at home, Hibiki will come to believe that he can count on others in his social world and that they too are worthy of love. Hibiki is likely to successfully resolve what Erik Erikson called the ________ crisis.
a. intimacy versus isolation
b. trust versus mistrust
c. ego integrity versus despair
d. industry versus inferiority

A

b. trust versus mistrust

144
Q

The origins of Bowlby’s theory were in ______ theory.
a. information-processing theory
b. Piagetian
c. behaviourist
d. evolutionary

A

d. evolutionary

145
Q

Both Erikson and Bowlby viewed _________ as crucial to future emotional and social development.
a. one’s biological makeup
b. the first attachment relationship
c. an easy or slow-to-warm-up temperament
d. language ability

A

b. the first attachment relationship

146
Q

Dayle goes to the doctor and expresses concern that her infant’s head is too big for his body. The doctor tells her that this is normal because of _______.
a. the proximodistal principle
b. the fact that head size varies widely
c. the cephalocaudal principle
d. the fact that after infancy, growth slows dow considerably

A

c. the cephalocaudal principle

147
Q

If Salma is typical of most infants, her first tooth will appear at _________ of age.
a. 15 months
b. 10-11 months
c. 5-9 months
d. 2 months

A

c. 5-9 months

148
Q

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is almost unknown in cultures where co-sleeping is the norm because ________.
a. babies tend to sleep with their parents on relatively hard surfaces
b. babies are less likely to be breastfed and therefore parents are less likely to roll over on them
c. babies are less likely to be aroused during the night in these quieter settings
d. parents tend to put cloth on both sides of their babies so the remain on their sides

A

a. babies tend to sleep with their parents on relatively hard surfaces

149
Q

Rupert goes to the market with his mother and calls all men he sees ‘Dada’. This is an example of _________.
a. a secondary circular reaction
b. coordination of secondary schemes
c. the A-not-B error
d. assimilation

A

d. assimilation

150
Q

Critics of Piaget’s sensorimotor theory argue that the likelihood of making the A-not-B error depends on the _________.
a. sex of the child
b. time of the day the child is tested
c. colour of the object
d. delay between hiding and searching

A

d. delay between hiding and searching

151
Q

Speed of _________ is a good predictor of later memory and intelligence
a. secondary circular reactions
b. making the A-not-B error
c. accommodation
d. habituation

A

d. habituation

152
Q

Scores on the Bayley Scales of Infant Development _________.
a. are useful as a screening tool because those who score very low may have developmental problems
b. are no longer used because they are considered out of date
c. are predictive of later IQ or school performance
d. are calculated for use with children aged 3 months to 9 years

A

a. are useful as a screening tool because those who score very low may have developmental problems

153
Q

When mothers show negative emotions in relation to a toy in the laboratory, infants will avoid the toy, which illustrates
a. goodness-of-fit
b. the still-face paradigm
c. social referencing
d. habituation

A

c. social referencing

154
Q

Erikson and Bowlby both view _____ as the key issue in an infant’s attachment to others
a. nourishment
b. trust
c. age
d. personality

A

b. trust

155
Q

The harm done by teratogens __________.
a. is always apparent at birth
b. rarely goes beyond physical damage
c. depends on age at the time of exposure
d. is straightforward and predictable

A

c. depends on age at the time of exposure

156
Q

Thomas’s biological mother and father are both gifted athletes. He was adopted by a couple who had no interest in him being involved in sports. Although Thomas likely inherited athletic ability, it was never expressed in his _____.
a. genotype
b. phenotype
c. genes
d. alleles

A

d. Alleles

157
Q

Dr. Singh believes that a basic psychosocial conflict, which is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative, determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Dr. Singh’s beliefs are aligned with those of which theorist?
a. G. Stanley Hall
b. Erik Erikson
c. Sigmund Freud
d. B.F. Skinner

A

b. Erik Erikson

158
Q

Ecological systems theory views the person as __________.
a. a computer-like system that actively codes, transforms, and organises information
b. a blossoming flower whose development is a genetically determined series of events that unfold automatically
c. developing within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment
d. a social being influenced primarily by observational learning or adult modeling

A

c. developing within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment

159
Q

When children are not changing much cognitively, they __________ more than they __________.

a. accommodate, assimilate
b. assimilate, accommodate
c. accommodate; calibrate
d. calibrate, assimilate

A

b. assimilate, accommodate

160
Q

In a correlational design, researchers __________.
a. gather information on individuals without altering their experiences
b. directly control or manipulate changes in the independent variable
c. use an evenhanded procedure to assign people to two or more treatment conditions
d. are able to infer causation between two variables

A

a. gather information on individuals without altering their experiences

161
Q

One criticism of the information-processing approach is that it __________.
a. underestimates the individual’s contribution to his or her own development
b. underestimates the competencies of infants and preschoolers, focusing on older children and adolescents
c. ignores transformation in adulthood, concluding that no major cognitive changes occur after adolescence
d. is better at analysing thinking into its components than at putting them back together into a comprehensive theory

A

d. is better at analysing thinking into its components than at putting them back together into a comprehensive theory

162
Q

__________ make(s) classical conditioning possible in the young infant

a. Habituation
b. Observational learning
c. A novelty preference
d. Newborn reflexes

A

d. Newborn reflexes

163
Q

Two-year-old Eva’s parents meet her assertions of independence with tolerance and understanding. They provide suitable guidance and reassurance. According to Erikson’s theory, Eva will develop __________ as a result
a. industry
b. mistrust
c. basic trust
d. autonomy

A

d. autonomy

164
Q

According to the __________ trend, the head develops more rapidly than the lower part of the body during the prenatal period.
a. cephalocaudal
b. neuroproximal
c. cranial
d. proximodistal

A

a. cephalocaudal

165
Q

Compared to other animals, the birth process for human beings is complicated by _____.
a. the infant’s muscle-to-fat ratio
b.the size of the infant’s head
c. the amount of amniotic fluid expelled
d. the mother’s expectation of the birthing process

A

b.the size of the infant’s head