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Peerwise Revision > Weekly Quizzes > Flashcards

Weekly Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the surface landmark to locate the third thoracic vertebrae?

A

Spine of scapula

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2
Q

What is the principle eccentric role of the erector spinae muscles?

A

Limit/control flexion of the back

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3
Q

What muscle fails to hold the scapula flat against the back when its innervation is lost, hence the term ‘winged scapula’?

A

Serratus anterior muscle

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4
Q

How is pre-eclampsia diagnosed?

A

Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation

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5
Q

In the action potential of the sino-atrial node, what causes the initial depolarisation?

A

Calcium entry into the cell via voltage gated calcium channels

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6
Q

Although calcium entry initiates depolarisation of the SA node, what is the main cause of depolarisation?

A

Opening of sodium channels

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7
Q

In which phase of the cardiac cycle do the pulmonary and aortic valves open?

A

Ventricular ejection

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8
Q

In which part of the cardiac cycle are all of the heart valves closed?

A
  1. Early ventricular systole

2. Early ventricular diastole

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9
Q

What type of cell junction allows the electrical signal to pass between cells in cardiac muscle?

A

Gap junctions

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10
Q

On auscultation, what would be the physiological reason for splitting of the second heart sound?

A

During inspiration the pulmonary valve closes later and the aortic valve closes earlier.

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11
Q

What is happening to the valves causing the first heart sound?

A

Mitral and tricuspid valves are closing

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12
Q

Which vein can act as an alternative route for blood to the heart if either superior or inferior vena cava are occluded?

A

Azygous vein

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13
Q

What class of molecules will recognise the conserved molecules found on pathogens?

A

Toll like receptors - found on macrophages and recognise conserved patterns in PAMPs.

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14
Q

How does the Gram stain identify gram positive bacteria?

A

Gram positive have a thick proteoglycan layer in the cell wall that stains blue by crystal violet.

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15
Q

Which objectives on a microscope require oil for a clear image?

A

X60 and x100

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16
Q

What is the name of the process whereby DNA is naturally transferred between bacteria?

A

Conjugation

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17
Q

Which immunoglobulin is highly effective at activating mast cells?

A

IgE

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18
Q

Which cardinal sign of inflammation is caused by fluid in the ECM?

A

Swelling

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19
Q

Which cardinal signs of inflammation are caused by vasodilation?

A

Redness and heat

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20
Q

What is the classification of neisseria meningiditis?

A

Gram negative cocci

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21
Q

What is the classification of Escherichia coli?

A

Gram negative bacci/rod

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22
Q

What is the classification of staphylococcus aureus?

A

Gram positive cocci

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23
Q

What is the classification of listeria monocytogenes?

A

Gram positive bacii/rod

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24
Q

Which muscle is primarily responsible for external/lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint?

A

Infraspinatus

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25
Q

Which part of the scapula lies closest to the ribs?

A

Subscapular fossa

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26
Q

Which cords of the brachial plexus contribute to the median nerve?

A

Medial and lateral cords

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27
Q

What is the main type of collagen present in articular cartilage?

A

Type 2

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28
Q

What is the main type of collagen present in a normal tendon?

A

Type 1

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29
Q

Which parts of the brachial plexus give off the long thoracic nerve?

A

Roots of C5, C6 and C7

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30
Q

Propranolol may have side effects of cold fingers and toes. Blocking of which receptor type is responsible for these symptoms?

A

B2

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31
Q

Resistance to flow is directly proportional to…

A

Blood vessel length and viscosity of blood

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32
Q

Which lipoprotein contains the highest proportion of triglyceride?

A

Chylomicron

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33
Q

Which equation can be used to measure mea arterial blood pressure?

A

MAP = DBP + 1/3(SBP-DBP)

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34
Q

Nifedipine can be used to treat hypertension. How does it work?

A

Blocks L-type calcium channels in blood vessels

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35
Q

What is a side effect of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors such as enalapril?

A

A persistent, irritant cough

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36
Q

What is a common side effect of a1-adrenoceptor blockers like prazosin?

A

Postural hypotension

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37
Q

Where is angiotensinogen made?

A

Liver

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38
Q

What are the likely clinical results of blood electrolyte and blood pressure measurements of someone with Conn’s syndrome? (Aldosterone producing tumour)

A
  1. Hypokalaemia
  2. Hypernatraemia
  3. Hypertension
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39
Q

What vaccinations would an infant receive at one year of age?

A
  1. Men B
  2. PCV
  3. HIB/Men C
  4. MMR
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40
Q

Describe bacterial endotoxins.

A

Their toxic effects are caused by immune responses triggered in the host. (Interact with receptors which leads to cytokine release)

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41
Q

Where is the majority of erythropoietin produced?

A

Kidney

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42
Q

Why is sodium citrate added to blood sample tubes?

A

Allows blood to be stored for some time without clotting.

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43
Q

Which vitamin does Warfarin antagonise to inhibit carboxylation?

A

Vitamin K

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44
Q

What does a functional haemoglobin molecule contain?

A

4 haem groups and 4 polypeptide chains

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45
Q

What is the general name for a malignant tumour of epithelial cells?

A

Carcinoma

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46
Q

Which characteristic of p53 protein accounts for the ability of mutant p53 to function in a ‘dominant negative’ manner?

A

It functions as a tetramer - bad alleles function over good alleles.

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47
Q

Which structure prevents end to end fusion of chromosomes?

A

Telomeres

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48
Q

What adjective is used to describe the undifferentiated appearance of malignant cells?

A

Anaplastic

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49
Q

What group of enzymes are largely responsible for breaching the basement membrane?

A

Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs)

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50
Q

List some molecules that would be found in ground substance.

A
  1. Water
  2. Proteoglycans e.g. aggrecan, perlecan
  3. Glycosaminoglycans e.g. hyaluronic acids, heparan sulphate
  4. Glycoproteins e.g. fibrillin, laminin
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51
Q

What type of collagen is predominantly found in the basement membrane?

A

Collagen IV

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52
Q

What is the primary change in the hip joint that results in osteoarthritis?

A

Reduced hyaline cartilage in the joint

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53
Q

When a muscle length is shortened, which sarcomere feature would not shorten?

A

A band - myosin

54
Q

Describe T-tubules.

A
  1. Extensions of the sarcolemma

2. Invaginate in to the muscle fibre so that release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum reaches all myofibrils

55
Q

At the neuromuscular junction what is the result of acetylcholine binding to the acetylcholine receptor?

A

Na+ moves in to cell and K+ moves out of cell

56
Q

What is the function of titin?

A

It maintains the alignment of the thick filament (myosin) in the middle of each sarcomere

57
Q

What kind of virus is influenza?

A

Myxovirus

58
Q

Which cell type is adversely affected in multiple sclerosis?

A

Oligodendrocyte

59
Q

Which area of the brain is primarily associated with emotion?

A

Amygdala

60
Q

Through what mechanism does Vancomycin kill bacteria?

A

Inhibition of cell wall formation

61
Q

In the autonomic nervous system, the pre-ganglionic neurones synapse with post-ganglionic neurones in the…

A

Autonomic ganglia

62
Q

They sympathetic nervous system uses which neurotransmitter at the preganglionic synapse?

A

Acetylcholine

63
Q

In a typical ECG, what is represented by the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular depolarisation

64
Q

Which epithelial lining is typical of the respiratory system?

A

Pseudostratified columnar (ciliated or non ciliated)

65
Q

Where are the main arterial baroreceptors situated in the body?

A

Carotid sinus and aortic arch

66
Q

Where does the bulk of lipid emulsification occur?

A

Duodenum of small intestine

67
Q

Name a molecule which is part of the endocrine function of the pancreas.

A

Glucagon

68
Q

What is steatorrhoea?

A

The presence of excess fat in stool.

69
Q

What does the activity of lactase produce in the ileum?

A

Glucose and galactose

70
Q

Where is the enzyme required for lactose digestion found?

A

Brush border

71
Q

What is hypokalaemia?

A

Low potassium in the blood

72
Q

What can hypokalaemia lead to?

A

Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmia

73
Q

What is the most likely sight of structural abnormality in benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Transitional zone of prostate gland

74
Q

Innervation of which structure contributes to voluntary control of micturition?

A

The external sphincter by the pudendal nerve

75
Q

How frequently are people screened for cervical cancer in Scotland?

A

Every 5 years from 25-64 years

76
Q

Why is a screening programme for ovarian cancer not currently recommended?

A

A diagnostic marker for ovarian cancer, CA125, is found in other conditions such as endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease and pancreatitis.

77
Q

Where does glucose reabsorption take place?

A

In the proximal convoluted tubule

78
Q

What structure is involved in determining pitch?

A

The basilar membrane

79
Q

Which molecule might reset the hypothalamic thermostat during fever?

A

IL-1

80
Q

Why can NSAIDs irritate the gastric mucosa?

A

Because they inhibit production of prostaglandins and prostaglandins have a protective role in the gastric mucosa.

81
Q

What structure in the cochlea is responsible for endolymph production?

A

Stria vascularis

82
Q

A core stabilised by muscles rather than by external devices may be useful because it may prevent which common problem?

A

IV disc herniation

83
Q

A muscle activity lasting a few seconds (2-7 seconds) is generated by?

A

Creatine phosphate

84
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are derived from the region of mesoderm called?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

85
Q

Tennis elbow is most likely the result of which sort of action of the extensor muscles of the forearm at the common extensor origin?

A

Eccentric contraction

86
Q

Which nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

A

Ulnar nerve

87
Q

Which nerve passes through the supinator muscle and is at risk of impingement?

A

Radial nerve

88
Q

Which muscle provides powerful supination of the forearm?

A

Bicep brachii

89
Q

Which nerve is affected in ‘wrist drop’, hence the inability to extend the wrist?

A

Radial nerve

90
Q

Which structure forms the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox of the wrist?

A

Tendon of extensor pollicis longus muscle

91
Q

Which carpal bone is most frequently fractured?

A

Scaphoid

92
Q

The ulnar tunnel (of Guyon) transmits which structures?

A

The ulnar nerve and artery

93
Q

What is innervation of lumbrical muscles in hand?

A

Half median and half ulnar nerve

94
Q

Which structure is palpable proximally in the anatomical snuffbox of the hand?

A

Radial styloid process

95
Q

What is the most common cause of x-linked SCID?

A

Mutations in the IL-2 receptor gamma chain

96
Q

What do the antibodies in Guillain Barre syndrome bind to?

A

Gangliosides

97
Q

Which bone is likely to have problem with union or necrosis after a fracture?

A

Intracapsular fracture of neck of femur

98
Q

During development of muscle groups in the limb bud, dorsal mass develops mainly in to?

A

Extensors, supinators and adductors

99
Q

The anterior compartment of the thigh predominantly receives motor innervation from which nerve?

A

Femoral nerve

100
Q

Which muscle is most effective when lifting the body up a step?

A

Gluteus maximus

101
Q

Which fibrous tissue structure is stretched between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle?

A

Inguinal ligament

102
Q

Glyceryl trinitrate can be used to treat coronary artery disease. What is a defining property of the drug?

A

It is a pro-drug that requires bioconversion to the active principle, nitric oxide

103
Q

What is the main type of lipid present in an atheromatous plaque?

A

Low density lipoprotein

104
Q

Which part of the cardiac conducting system is usually responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles?

A

SA node

105
Q

Diltiazem can be used to manage angina pectoris. How does it work to reduce symptoms?

A

Blocks L-type calcium channels

106
Q

How does Warfarin work?

A

Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors

107
Q

Which anticoagulant works by directly inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa)?

A

Dabigatran exilate

108
Q

Which epidemiological parameter best describes the incidence of a disease in a given population?

A

Absolute risk

109
Q

Which part of the brain receives signals from mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors involved in the control of respiration?

A

Nucleus tractus solitarius

110
Q

What would cause a shift in the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left?

A

Fetal haemoglobin

111
Q

What is the lowest vertebral level reached by the pleura?

A

T12

112
Q

How is carbon dioxide mainly transported around the body?

A

As bicarbonate

113
Q

What causes a shift of the oxygen-haemoglobin curve to the right?

A

Raised hydrogen ion levels in the blood

114
Q

To which class of drugs does fluticasone propionate belong?

A

Corticosteroids

115
Q

Which receptor type is the target for the action of Montelukast?

A

Leukotriene receptor

116
Q

Describe typical features of compensated respiratory acidosis.

A 
CO2: increased
O2: decreased
H+: normal 
Ph: normal 
HCO3-: high
117
Q

What is the acid-base status of a patient with low O2, high CO2 and low pH?

A

Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis

118
Q

What might be indicated by a significantly reduced FEV1, a lower than normal FVC and a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

Decreased lung elastic recoil

119
Q

Which spirometry pattern would be consistent with emphysema?

A

FEV1 decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC ratio decreased

120
Q

How and where in the kidney nephron does the drug Furosemide work?

A

It decreases sodium transport out of the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle

121
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The amount of air exhaled with maximal effort following a maximal inspiration

122
Q

Name a short acting beta agonist.

A

Salbutamol

123
Q

Name a long acting beta 2 agonist.

A

Salmeterol

124
Q

What can be used to diagnose neural tube defects?

A

Ultrasound and alpha-felt protein

125
Q

How is free beta hCG used to screen for Down’s syndrome

A

Blood sample shows higher levels in affected babies

126
Q

By which two methods does a subdermal implant work?

A

Prevents ovulation, alters cervical mucus

127
Q

Which STI is typically a symptomatic?

A

Chlamydia

128
Q

What are some harmful components of cigarettes?

A

CO2, ammonia, cyanide

129
Q

What is a mode of action of nicotine in the body?

A

Stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline

130
Q

How long do symptoms of nicotine withdrawal normally last?

A

Four weeks

131
Q

What pathway is responsible for fixing DNA damage during replication?

A

Mismatch repair

132
Q

What cancer type is associated with inherited mutations in the mismatch repair pathway?

A

Non-polyposis colon cancer

Peerwise Revision (6 decks)

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