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NURS 4390 Adult Health Theory > Week Nine Modules > Flashcards

Week Nine Modules Flashcards

1
Q

what are some common s/s of arthritis?

with arthritis, symptoms can be _____ and may be mild, ____, or ____

severe arthritis can result in _____ and the inability to perform ____

A

common symptoms include swelling, pain, stiffness, and decreased range of motion

intermittent; moderate; severe

chronic pain; ADLs

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2
Q

what is osteoarthritis?

osteoarthritis is a ____, progressive, _______ disorder of the synovial joints

osteoarthritis affects joints _____

with osteoarthritis, there are no _____

A

the most common form of arthritis that affects over 30 million americans

slow; non-inflammatory

asymmetrically

systemic manifestations

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3
Q

osteoarthritis can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects what parts of the body?

who is the most at risk for developing osteoarthritis?

A

knees, hips, lower back, neck, finger joints, and bases of the thumb & big toe

athletes, military members, and people who work physically demanding jobs

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4
Q

is there a cure for osteoarthritis?

A

no, there is no cure

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5
Q

osteoarthritis may be caused by a known event that directly _____ cartilages

what are some causes of osteoarthritis?

A

damages

drugs, inflammation, joint instability, mechanical stress, neurological disorders, and skeletal deformities

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6
Q

what is the pathophysiology behind osteoarthritis?

as osteoarthritis worsens, the bones may _____ and develop ____ known as osteocytes

eventually, the cartilage wears away and leads to _______

A

cartilage breaks down and causes swelling, pain, and problems moving the joint

break down; growths

bone rubbing against bone

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7
Q

how is osteoarthritis treated?

A

treated with pain medications and then joint replacement

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8
Q

what are some modifiable risk factors for osteoarthritis?

what are some non-modifiable risk factors for osteoarthritis?

A

excess weight; joint injury; type of occupation

gender, age, genetics, and race

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9
Q

osteoarthritis tends to affect which gender more?

_______ estrogen during the menopausal transition may contribute to ____ incidence of osteoarthritis in women

what two types of osteoarthritis affect women the most?

what type of osteoarthritis affects men the most?

A

women

decreased; increased

hand & knee osteoarthritis

hip osteoarthritis

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10
Q

name some functions of estrogen?

A

bone growth; cholesterol levels; lubrication of joints; memory; and elasticity of the skin

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11
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A

joint pain that worsens with use, and is relieved by rest

joint stiffness that occurs after periods of rest

crepitation which is a grating sensation that is caused by loose cartilage

herberden’s nodes which is the formation of osteocytes

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12
Q

early morning stiffness that is caused by osteoarthritis usually resolves itself within ____ minutes

what are some diagnostic tests we could run to determine if the patient has osteoarthritis?

diagnostic tests like x-rays help to determine what?

A

30

bone scan, CT scan, MRI, and x-rays

help to confirm presence of the disease and the stage of joint damage

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13
Q

LABS AND OSTEOARTHRITIS:

with osteoarthritis, the patient’s ESR levels will be _____ and there will be a ______ during the acute inflammatory phase

with osteoarthritis, the synovial fluid with ___ or ____ with little or no sign of inflammation

A

within normal limits; slight increase

clear; yellow

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14
Q

what are the goals of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with osteoarthritis?

what are some nursing interventions we can perform for patients who have been diagnosed with osteoarthritis?

A

manage pain; prevent disability; maintain or improve joint function; improve activity tolerance

non-drug interventions tend to be the basis of OA management; rest and joint protection; nutritional therapy & exercise; and complementary/alternative therapies

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15
Q

as a nurse, how can we provide rest and joint protection?

A

teach the patient to balance rest and activity

keep joints in functional positions with braces or splints

avoid mobilization for more than one week due to the risk of joint stiffness

avoid standing, kneeling, or squatting for long periods of time

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16
Q

as a nurse, how can we provide heat and cold applications for nursing interventions?

heat therapy helps to ____ stiffness

A

heat tends to be used more often than ice with OA treatment

reduce

some examples of heat therapy are hot packs, whirlpool baths, ultrasound, and parrafin wax baths

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17
Q

nursing interventions for nutritional therapy and exercise

encourage the patient to maintain a ______ and help the patient evaluate their _____

you’ll want to discuss ____, ROM, and ____ the muscles around the affected area

A

healthy body weight; current diet

cardio exercise; strengthening

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18
Q

when it comes to complementary and alternative therapies what are some things we could do?

when it comes to drug therapy, what are some medications we might offer the osteoarthritis patient?

A

offer acupuncture; massage; or tai chi

tylenol; capsaicin cream; bengay; nsaids like ibuprofen; and salicylates like aspirin

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19
Q

when would we give an osteoarthritis patient methylprednisolone or prednisone?

A

these two drugs are only used during life-threatening exacerbations

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20
Q

rheumatoid arthritis is a _____, systemic _____ disease

rheumatoid arthritis consists of inflammation in the ______ of the synovial joints

rheumatoid arthritis is marked by periods of ____ and _____

rheumatoid arthritis has been considered one of the most _____ forms of arthritis

A

chronic; autoimmune

connective tissue

exacerbations; remissions

disabling

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21
Q

without treatment, patients who have osteoarthritis may need ______ or joint _____

A

mobility; reconstruction

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22
Q

what kinds of things increase a person’s risk for rheumatoid arthritis?

what kinds of things decrease a person’s risk for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

gender/age –> females over the age of 60; genetics; smoking; and menstrual history

use of oral contraceptives; live birth history; and breastfeeding

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23
Q

what is the etiology behind rheumatoid arthritis?

rheumatoid arthritis attacks the ____ of the joints and affects joints _____

rheumatoid arthritis can lead to ____ of cartilage, ligaments, and the ___

A

the exact cause is unknown; however, the autoimmune theory is most widely accepted

lining; symmetrically

erosion; joint caps

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24
Q

what are some s/s of rheumatoid arthritis?

with rheumatoid arthritis, when does stiffness occur?

what are some deformities of the hands and feet that can occur with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss

occurs after periods of inactivity and morning stiffness tends to last more than 60 minutes

hallux valgus; boutonniere deformity; ulnar drift; and swan neck deformity

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25
Q

rheumatoid nodules develop in about ___ the patients with rheumatoid arthritis

rheumatoid nodules often appear ___ the skin as ___, ____ masses

where are rheumatoid nodules mainly found?

A

half

under; firm; nontender

found on bony areas exposed to pressure like fingers and elbows

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26
Q

if a rheumatoid arthritis patient develops rheumatoid nodules in the heart what can occur?

A

pleurisy; pleural effusion; and pericarditis

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27
Q

what are some examples of extra-articular manifestations that can occur due to rheumatoid arthritis?

A

rheumatoid nodules; sjogren’s syndrome; mitral and aortic valve regurgitation; and restrictive lung disease

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28
Q

SJOGREN’S SYNDROME

  • what happens to swallowing in sjogren’s syndrome?
  • what happens to the skin?
  • what happens to the mouth and nose?
  • what are some neuro problems that can occur with sjogren’s syndrome?
A

there is difficulty swallowing followed by heartburn

the skin becomes dry and there’s vasculitis

dry mouth, mouth sores, dental decay; dry nose with reoccurring sinusitis

problems with concentration and memory

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29
Q

what are some lab tests we can perform in patients who have been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

rheumatoid factor test; anti-CCP tests; erythrocyte sedimentation; and c-reactive protein levels

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30
Q

what are some goals of care for rheumatoid arthritis?

what are some nonpharmacologic interventions we can perform for a patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

reduce inflammation; pain management; maintenance of joint function; prevention or correction of joint deformity

electrical stimulation; joint protection; splints; and self-help devices

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31
Q

what are some examples of drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis?

drugs are the _____ of RF treatment

disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs can ___ disease progression and ___ risk for joint erosion and deformity

what medication is preferred for early treatment of RA?

A

disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs and biologic response modifier drugs

cornerstone

slow; decrease

methotrexate

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32
Q

if a rheumatoid arthritis patient is prescribed sulfasalazine, what do we need to look out for?

why are biologic response modifiers used?

what are some examples of TNF medications that are used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

we need to make sure the patient is getting adequate amount of fluids in order to avoid crystal formation in the urine

used to slow disease progression

enbrel, remicade, and humira

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33
Q

why is corticosteroid therapy used in rheumatoid arthritis patients?

A

to temporarily reduce pain and inflammation but they do not affect disease progression

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34
Q

what are some nursing interventions for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

perform head to toe assessment; make sure psychosocial needs are met; reduce the chronic pain and help with disturbed body image

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35
Q

why would we use cold therapy for a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis?

with a rheumatoid arthritis patient we want to make sure they’re getting ___ - ____ hours of sleep

A

cold therapy is used to treat exacerbations

8 - 10

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36
Q

with rheumatoid arthritis patients do we place pillows under their knees?

rheumatoid arthritis patients should avoid what two things?

A

no, we don’t b/c we want to avoid contractures

avoid climbing stairs and avoid repetitious movement

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37
Q

what are some instructions we can give to patients who have hip replacements?

A

don’t cross your legs at the knees for at least 6 - 8 weeks; don’t bring you knee higher than your hip; don’t lean forward while sitting; don’t try to pick something up from the floor while you’re sitting; don’t bend at the waist beyond 90 degrees

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38
Q

with joint replacement surgery what are some post operative conditions to keep in mind?

when we assess patient casts what are we looking for?

how can we decrease swelling?

A

the risk of infection; DVT; pain; and mobility

circulation; compartment syndrome; infection; and pain

elevate the legs

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39
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

with compartment syndrome, capillary perfusion is ____ below a level needed for tissue life

how can we treat compartment syndrome?

A

a condition in which swelling causes increased pressure within a limited space like a cast or muscle compartment

reduced

the cast or dressing must be removed by the orthopedic surgeon and if that doesn’t relieve the pressure then fasciotomies are performed

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40
Q

what are the 6 Ps of compartment syndrome?

if any of the 6 Ps are assessed, then we must call ____ b/c compartment syndrome is a _____

A

pain; increasing pressure; paresthesia; pallor; paralysis; and decreased pulse

the provider; medical emergency

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41
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

  • is an ____ disease
  • the immune system attacks and damages the _____ in the ____
  • multiple sclerosis is a ___, _____, and degenerative disorder
  • multiple sclerosis is characterized by damage to the ____ of the nerve fibers that run along the axon of the neurons
A

inflammatory

nerve tissue; CNS

chronic; progressive

myelin sheath

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42
Q
  • the cause of multiple sclerosis is ____
  • MS is the leading cause of ____ in the young and middle age groups
  • there is ____ prevention for multiple sclerosis
A

unknown

disability

no

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43
Q

people with multiple sclerosis tend to have a leakage in the ____ that allows immune cells through and enables them to ___ the nerve tissue
within

with multiple sclerosis, is the nerve fiber damaged?

multiple sclerosis ____ the flow of information along the nerve pathway

with multiple sclerosis the transmission of the impulse is ____

A

blood brain barrier; attack

no, it is not damaged

disrupts

slowed

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44
Q

what are some environmental risk factors for multiple sclerosis?

what are some other risk factors for multiple sclerosis?

A

where you live, vitamin d deficiency, viral infections, and smoking

being between the ages of 15-40; being a female; other autoimmune diseases like thyroid, type 1 diabetes; and inflammatory bowel disease

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45
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A

widely varying as it depends on the extent and location of nerve damage; can produce almost any neurological symptom; affects the autonomic nervous system

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46
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

with the central nervous system what are some signs/symptoms we would expect to see?

with vision what are some signs and symptoms we’d expect to see?

what are some musculoskeletal s/s we’d expect to see?

what can we expect to see with sensation in a multiple sclerosis patient?

A

fatigue; cognitive impairment; depression; unstable mood

diplopia; nystagmus

weakness, spasms, and ataxia

pain and paranesthesia

47
Q

what can multiple sclerosis do to the bowels?

what can multiple sclerosis do to the urinary tract?

A

can cause constipation; diarrhea; incontinence

incontinence or urine retention

48
Q

is there a specific test we can use to determine if that patient has MS?

A

there is no specific test

49
Q

when it comes to laboratory findings in multiple sclerosis what are some things we might see in cerebrospinal fluids?

A

csf appearance will be clear

leukocytes and total protein levels will be normal

IgG ratio will be elevated in 90% of cases

50
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for multiple sclerosis?

A
  • patient must be between the ages of 15 and 40
  • have s/s of MS
  • 2+ lesions seen on an MRI
  • one episode of MS s/s
51
Q

how can we treat acute attacks of multiple sclerosis?

A

we can treat acute attacks of MS with medications like corticosteroids and immunomodulatory therapy

52
Q

what does corticosteroid treatment do for a MS patient

what does immunomodulatory therapy treatment do for a MS patient?

A

mainly works to reduce inflammation;

slows progression of disease; reduces severity and frequency of attacks and decreases the accumulation of lesions

53
Q

what are some examples of corticosteroids that are used for MS patient treatment?

______ is also a corticosteroid that is used to remove _____ and ____ from your blood plasma

A

prednisolone and methylprednisolone

plasmapheresis; immune cells; factors

54
Q

what are other types of treatment options for acute MS attacks?

A

medications like muscle relaxants which treat muscle stiffness (diazepam, baclofen)

PT/OT for strength to perform ADLs

55
Q

it has also been discovered that there is a link between _____ deficiency and MS development

another treatment option for MS patients would be to correct the _____ deficiency

A

vitamin D

vitamin D

56
Q

what would be some nursing diagnoses for MS?

A

impaired physical mobility; impaired urinary elimination; ineffective health management

57
Q

what would our nursing care plan consist of when it comes to providing care for our MS patients?

A

maximize neuromuscular function; maintain independence in ADLs, manage fatigue, and optimize psychosocial well-being

58
Q

if the MS patient is immobile or confined to the bed what are some nursing interventions we could perform?

A

help with turns, bathing, and cleaning the patient during an exacerbation

ask the pt. what triggers exacerbations, and search for pressure ulcers and educate the pt how to avoid them

59
Q

if the MS patient has impaired urinary elimination what are some nursing interventions we could perform?

A

we might consider teaching the patient how to self-catheterize to help avoid incontinence at home/when out in public

60
Q

when MS patients experience constipation, we should educate them to _____ fiber intake and/or use a ______ if they don’t have a BM in 2 days

if the MS patient is prescribed beta-interferon we must educate them to wear _____ when they’re outside and remind the pts. that _____ symptoms are common after starting beta-interferon therapy

A

increase; stool softener/laxative

sunscreen; flu-like symptoms

61
Q

parkinson’s disease is a chronic, progressive _____ disorder

parkinson’s disease causes _____ which is slow initiation and execution of movement

with parkinson’s, there is ____ muscle tone which results in ____, and oftentimes, there’s ____ at rest

A

degenerative

bradykinesia

increased; rigidity; tremor

62
Q

the exact cause of parkinson’s disease is ____; however a ______ exists in this disease

the deficit of dopamine creates an _____ between dopamine and the excitatory neurotransmitter_____

A

unknown; deficit of dopamine

imbalance; acetylcholine

63
Q

what are some secondary symptoms of parkinson’s disease?

A

micrographia; mask-like expression; stooped posture; shuffling; dystonia (tremors); impaired coordination; slow slurred speech; drooling and difficulty swallowing

64
Q

dopamine is essential for things like what?

A

control of posture; voluntary motion; affects emotions; and starting movement

65
Q

what does treatment for parkinson’s disease look like?

what are some examples of dopamine receptor agonists?

what kinds of medications are used to treat tremors in a parkinson’s patient?

lastly, there is also _____ which is used for deep brain ____

A

levidopa with carbidopa is the primary treatment for symptomatic pts.

dopamine receptor agonists are also prescribed to the patient

requip and mirapex

antihistamines like diphenhydramine are used

surgical therapy; stimulation

66
Q

what are some nursing interventions we can perform to prevent poor nutrition?

A

encourage the patient to eat 6 small meals a day rather than eating 3 large meals; cut the patient’s food into bite sized pieces

67
Q

sometimes patients with parkinson’s disease have difficulty swallowing so we want to make sure to give the patient foods that are _____ and easy to ____

a parkinson’s patient diet should consist of ____and _____ of the patient’s preference

A

appetizing; swallow

fiber; fruits

68
Q

with a parkinson’s patient we want to make sure that when it comes to movement we are providing ______ and making sure they have a ____ to walk

A

stand by assist; clear path

69
Q

we also want to educate the patient about ______ meaning they have a clear schedule for brushing their teeth; changing into pajamas; reading before bed, etc…

A

sleep hygiene

70
Q

with parkinson’s disease we want to educate the patient to practice _____, place the patient in a chair or increase the HOB to ____, always have suction at the bedside; assess the patient for _____

A

coughing and deep breathing exercises; 90 degrees; depression

71
Q

what is a rapid response?

rapid responses are instituted to prevent ____

rapid responses are used to _____ the amount of unnecessary transfers to the ICU

A

a rapid response is called when a patient on the acute care floor is decompensating

code blue calls

decrease

72
Q

who consists of the rapid response team?

A

an ICU nurse, a respiratory therapist; and a medical provider

73
Q

what consists of the rapid response criteria?

what are some changes we might see in mental status?

what are some changes we might see in respiratory status?

A

acute change in mental status and acute change in respiratory status

we can’t wake the patient; somnolence; confusion

stridor (noisy airway); respiratory rate <10 or >32; increased effort to breath; O2 saturation less than 92%

74
Q

what are some other requirements in relation to CV status we would expect to see before calling a rapid response?

if the patient is experiencing a new onset of chest pain, first we would perform an _____, then for treatment options we might do an _____, or give medications _____, _____, or _____

A

HR < 55 or > 120

SBP < 90 or > 170

assessment; EKG; troponin; SL NTG; and morphine

75
Q

a lot of the times, patients who are in need of a rapid response will present himself as very ____ and ____

A

agitated; restless

76
Q

if one of our patients is experiencing a fever greater than 38.5 what of the following will need to be done?

A
  • first we must call the provider
  • check for urine, blood, and wound cultures
  • urinalysis
  • chest xray
  • administer acetaminophen
77
Q

what might cause the patient to have acute changes in their mental status?

what would we do if we noticed that our patient was having acute change in their mental status?

A

too much pain medications; low blood sugar; CVA ischemic stroke; or a head bleed

try to wake the patient; ask about the last dose of pain meds; perform a full set of VS; check the pts. blood sugar; stat head CT

78
Q

if the patient has a heart rate less than ____ or greater than ___ that is sustained for 10 minutes what might be the cause?

A

sinus bradycardia due to head injury or beta blockers; sinus tachycardia due to pain, fever, or dehydration

79
Q

if our patient is experiencing a HR <55 or >120 we would ______ to determine if its regular/irregular and perform an EKG to determine if the patient is experiencing ____, ____, or ___

A

feel the pulse; rapid a-fib; sinus tach; or sinus brady

80
Q

what do you do if your patient’s SBP is less than 90 or greater than 170

A

assess the patient, ask them if they feel dizzy or nauseated; retake the BPl; and check the I&Os

81
Q

what would be some reasons that the systolic blood pressure is less than 90?

what would be some of the reasons why the patient’s blood pressure is greater than 170?

A

dehydration; bleeding from the GI tract; beta blocker medications

pain; BP meds were held prior to OR; new HTN diagnosis;

82
Q

what would you do if the patient’s temperature is less than 35 C or greater than 39.5 C?

A

assess the patient; check if they have too many blankets; did they just get back from the OR?; is the room too hot or too cold?

83
Q

why would the patient have a temperature less than 35C?

why would the patient have a temperature greater than 39.5C?

A

decreased thermoregulation; para or tetraplegia; OR is cold; needs blankets

infection protocol; blood cultures + urine; IV fluid from insensible fluid loss; tylenol

84
Q

if you have a feeling that “something just isn’t right” what would you do?

what could cause this to happen?

A

assess the pt.; get another set of eyes to look at the patient

look at the VS; perform a neuro assessment; medications; pain; ask the patient

85
Q

what would you do if your patient’s RR is less than 10 or greater than 32?

what would be some interventions you could perform to help decrease/increase the RR?

A

assess the patient; take the RR; look at the O2 saturation

re-position; increase HOB; and consider a breathing treatment

86
Q

what would cause your patient to have a RR less than 10?

what would cause your patient to have a RR greater than 32?

A

oversedation; PaCO2 levels

is this a change?; what is the patient’s O2 saturation? do the have pneumonia? do they have anxiety?

87
Q

what would you do if your patient’s hematocrit levels were 6% or less in a span of 24 hours?

what would cause the patient to have low hematocrit levels?

A

assess the patient; VS, what is their prior Hct?; “did the patient have surgery?”

bleeding, loss of blood in the OR; dilutional –> due to a lot of fluids being administered

88
Q

what would you do if your patient was experiencing chest pain?

A

assess the patient; ask them questions (rate your pain 0-10, what does it feel like?, would you point to it?); EKG if you’re suspicious; give troponin; NTG SL

89
Q

what would cause your patient to have chest pain?

A

they’re experiencing angina; patient is having an MI; patient has indigestion; the ultimate goal is to relieve the pain

90
Q

what is the pathophysiology behind HIV?

HIV can replicate only within ____ cell

what are the target cells in HIV?

A

HIV is a RNA virus that is called a retrovirus because it replicates backwards (RNA –> DNA)

one

CD4or T cell lymphocyte

91
Q

with HIV, eventually there is a drop in the number of ____ cells which can lead to ____ or a ___ immune system

with decreased CD4 cells, the immune system cannot fight off ____ or ____ making the body vulnerable

A

CD4 cells; immunodeficiency; weakened

bacteria; viruses

92
Q

how does one become infected with HIV?

how is HIV transmitted?

A

infection takes place when the virus enters the body through a wound or through your mucous membranes

through wounds or soft, moist areas inside your nose, mouth, rectum, vagina, or penis

93
Q

the most common type of HIV transmission is ______ with an infected partner

_____ from other STIs also ____ the likelihood of HIV transmission

contact with ___, ____ and blood all contain lymphocytes which may contain ____

A

unprotected sex

genital lesions; increase

semen; vaginal secretions; HIV

94
Q

what consists of HIV testing?

what is the western blot test?

A

first, you’d do a screening on the patient, if positive, you’d want to perform a confirmatory testing with the western blot test

looks at the proteins within the HIV virus, which are separated and blotted on a type of membrane paper

95
Q

with an acute HIV infection what are some symptoms we would expect to see?

A

flu-like symptoms such as fever, headache, fatigue, swollen lymph glands, and liver/spleen enlargement

96
Q

the symptoms of HIV usually last about ___ to ___ months, after the symptoms pass, you will develop _____

A

2; 3; HIV antibodies

97
Q

if the patient has chronic HIV infection or they are in clinical latency, what will this look like?

A

the patient will have no symptoms because the immune system is in balance with HIV

98
Q

how long does the clinical latency period last?

A

it can vary; however it usually last no more than 10 years

99
Q

a patient cannot be diagnosed with AIDS until at least ____ of the CDC criteria is met

what consists of the CDC criteria?

A

one

CD4 count drops below 200 cells/ul; the patient has an opportunistic infection (fungal candidiasis, toxoplasmosis, pneumoniae); has an opportunistic cancer; or has a diagnosis of wasting syndrome

100
Q

what are some examples of opportunistic infections according to the CDC?

what is wasting syndrome?

A

invasive cervical cancer; kaposi’s sarcoma; burkitt’s lymphoma

loss of 10% or more of ideal body mass

101
Q

untreated HIV has a _____ pattern

when left untreated, HIV will progress in ____ stages

what are the three stages of HIV?

A

predictable

3

acute infection; clinical latency/chronic HIV; AIDS

102
Q

______: a condition where the immune system is so weak, that it can no longer protect the patient from infection from other organisms

what are some symptoms of AIDS?

A

AIDS

rapid weight loss; night sweats; extreme fatigue; swollen lymph nodes; chronic diarrhea; sores in the mouth, anus, and genitals

103
Q

what are some defining diseases of AIDS?

A

fungal infections like thrush (common in the mouth and throat); kaposi’s sarcoma; and pneumocystis pneumonia

104
Q

with fungal infections it’s ____ to swallow which causes the patient to ____ their appetite

A

difficult; lose

105
Q

what is kaposi’s sarcoma?

what are some s/s of kaposi’s sarcoma?

kaposi’s sarcoma can spread to the gut which can cause ____ and it can also spread to the lungs which can make it _____ to breathe

A

it is a tumor caused by human herpes virus

reddish brown/purplish lesions on the face, legs, and mouth

bleeding; difficult

106
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia severely affects the ____

pneumocystis will have a _____ appearance on the xray

this is the most _____ infection of people with AIDS

what are some symptoms of pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

lungs

ground glass

common opportunistic

SOB, fever, cough, and chest pain

107
Q

what can cytomegalovirus do to the eyes?

what can cytomegalovirus do to the gut?

once you have cytomegalovirus, you have it for ____

A

it can cause blindness

bloody diarrhea

life

108
Q

mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is another ______ of aids

MAC exists _____ in the environment

MAC can infect the ____ and _____ of AIDS patients

what are some s/s of MAC?

A

defining disease

everywhere

lungs; intestines

gastroenteritis; watery diarrhea; and weight loss

109
Q

what consists of drug therapy for HIV?

drug therapy for HIV is used to ____ and _____ HIV replication

A

entry inhibitors like enfuvirtide; reverse transcriptase inhibitors like AZT and lamivudine; protease inhibitors; fixed dose combination products

control; suppress

110
Q

what are the five goals of HIV drug therapy?

A

decrease the viral load; maintain or increase CD4 count; prevent HIV opportunistic infections; delay disease progression; prevent HIV transmission

111
Q

when it comes to nursing management for AIDS, we want to ____ the patient

how would we educate our HIV/AIDS patient?

A

educate

adhere to drug management; protect others from HIV; maintain and develop healthy/supportive relationships; maintain activity and productivity

112
Q

what are some nursing interventions we could perform in regards to teaching our HIV/AIDS patients?

A

assist the patient with mental health issues; refer to community resources; and teach the patient their options when it comes to their care

113
Q

overall, what are some nursing interventions we could perform for our HIV/AIDS patients?

A

teach them the importance of condom use to protect others from infection; talk about having a specific time to take their ART/HIV drug therapy; know when to report s/s of headache and fever; SOB; dehydration; and bleeding

NURS 4390 Adult Health Theory (9 decks)

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