Week 9: HEENT Flashcards

1
Q

General HEENT diagnostic tools and what they do (2)

A
  • CT scan: noninvasive test that hows a more detailed picture of the head
  • MRI: noninvasive test that shows VERY detailed pictures of virtually all internal body structures
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2
Q

Sinus specific diagnostic tool

A

CT scan

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3
Q

Throat-specific diagnostic tools and what they do (4)

A
  • Swallowing evaluation: observe the muscles of the face and throat to assess for dysphagia
  • Modified barium swallow study: barium sulfate is given to highlight the upper GI tract + see abnormalities
  • Fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing: endoscope passed through the nose into the pharynx
  • Throat culture: swab of the back of the throat is analyzed for infectious organisms
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4
Q

Neck-specific diagnostic tools and what they do (5)

A

TSH test: evaluates thyroid gland functioning
T3 test: blood test used to diagnose an overactive thyroid gland
Free T4: blood test used to differentiate different causes of thyroid dysfunction
Thyroid ultrasound: Noninvasive test that gets an image of the thyroid gland via sound waves
Thyroid scan: Nuclear medicine test to assess functioning, masses, and/or inflammation of the thyroid gland

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5
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

Thin, watery discharge from the nose

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6
Q

Postnasal drip

A

Mucus drips from the back of the nose into the upper pharynx

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7
Q

Epistaxis

A

Nosebleeds

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8
Q

Xerostomia

A

Dry mouth

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9
Q

Drug classes that cause xerostomia (7)

A
  • Anticholinergics
  • Anticonvulsants
  • Antidepressants
  • Antihistamines
  • Antihypertensives
  • Antineoplastics
  • GI smooth muscle relaxants + antipasmodics
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10
Q

Implications of jaw pain (3)

A
  • Grinding teeth
  • TMJ disorder
  • Cardiac conditions
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11
Q

Characteristics to observe when inspecting the head (4)

A
  • Size
  • Shape
  • Configuration
  • Movement
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12
Q

Macrocephaly

A

Abnormally large head size

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13
Q

Acromegaly

A

Enlargement of the bones of the face, hands, and feet

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14
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Bell’s palsy

A

Facial paralysis on one side of the face

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15
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Cushing’s syndrome

A

Excessive accumulation of fat in the face (“moon face”), facial redness due to increased blood volume

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16
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Graves’ disease

A

Bulging eyes, Lid lag and edema, corneal ulceration

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17
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Hirsutism

A

Woman have terminal hair growth on face

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18
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Menopause

A

Peach fuzz, dry skin with increased facial wrinkles

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19
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Myxedema

A

Dull expression, periorbital puffiness, hypothermia, yellow skin, facial pallor/swelling

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20
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Parkinson’s disease

A

Mask-like facial appearance, soft speech, slurred speech

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21
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Rosacea

A

“Flush/blush” area, “sunburned” appearance, visible small blood vessels

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22
Q

Medical conditions with facial identifiers: Sideroblastic anemia

A

Facial mask of fatigue, sallow-colored skin, pale mucous membranes

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23
Q

Angular cheilitis

A

Inflammation at the corners of the mouth

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24
Q

Angioedema

A

Edema of the lips

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25
Q

Herpes simplex virus

A

Cold sores or blisters on lips

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26
Q

Aphthous stomatitis

A

Canker sore manifested by one or more painful erosions or ulcers on the oral mucosa

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27
Q

Gingivitis

A

Red, swollen, bleeding gums

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28
Q

Gingival hyperplasia

A

Enlargement or overgrowth of the gum tissue

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29
Q

Periodontal disease

A

Chronic infection of the gums, gums pull away from teeth and allow bacteria to accumulate

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30
Q

Thrush

A

Thick, white to yellow patches on the tongue or buccal mucosa (fungal infection)

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31
Q

Torus palatinus

A

Abnormal growth that develops midline in the hard palate

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32
Q

Atrophic glossitis

A

Smooth red or pink tongue

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33
Q

Hairy tongue

A

White to dark overgrowth

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34
Q

Leukoplakia

A

White spots or patches on the mucous membrane of the tongue

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35
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Thickened white or red patches or plaques

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36
Q

Tonsillitis: Definition and grading

A
  • Viral or bacterial infection of the tonsils where they become large and have drainage
  • 1-4 scale based on swelling:
    +1 tonsils are visible and slightly protruding
    +2 tonsils are halfway between the tonsillar pillars and uvula
    +3 tonsils are almost touching uvula
    +4 tonsils are touching each other
37
Q

Pharyngitis

A

Diffuse pharyngeal erythema at the back of throat

38
Q

Torticollis

A

Contraction or contracture of the muscles of the neck, causing head to tilt to one side

39
Q

Reasons for tracheal shift: Trachea deviates to affected side (3)

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Pleural adhesions
  • Large pulmonary atelectasis
40
Q

Reasons for tracheal shift: Trachea deviates to unaffected side (3)

A
  • Tumor or aneurysm
  • Thyroid lobe enlargement
  • Pneumothorax
41
Q

Characteristics assessed when auscultating the thyroid

A

Appearance and movement, palpability

42
Q

Ear-specific diagnostic tests and what they do (2)

A
  • Audiometric testing: Hearing evaluation to assess hearing loss at different high and low frequencies
  • Tympanometry: Assesses the movement of the tympanic membrane and disorders of the middle ear
43
Q

Presbycusis

A

Age-related hearing loss

44
Q

Tinnitus

A

The perception of sound when no actual external noise is present

45
Q

Darwin’s tubercle

A

A congenital deviation; a small cartilaginous protuberance on the helix of the ear

46
Q

Cauliflower ear

A

Occurs from repeated trauma or hitting the ear; a blood clot forms under the skin or there is damage to the cartilage causing a change in shape and structure of the ear; commonly seen in wrestlers or individuals who play contact sports

47
Q

Microtia

A

A congenital deformity of abnormally small ears; the pinna is underdeveloped or incompletely formed; may involve one or both ears; less than 4 cm (approximately 1.5 inches) in vertical height in adults.

48
Q

Macrotia

A

Abnormally large ears; greater than 10 cm (approximately 4 inches) vertical height in adults.

49
Q

Tophi

A

Hard, whitish, or cream-colored, nontender deposits of uric acid crystals indicative of gout.

50
Q

Types of hearing loss: Conductive

A

When sound is not conducted through the outer ear canal to the eardrum and bones of the middle ear.

Potential causes:
- Ear canal: Physical blockage
- Middle ear: Fluid, infection, bone abnormality
- Eardrum injury

51
Q

Types of hearing loss: Sensorineural

A

Inner ear hearing loss due to damage to inner ear/cochlea or nerve pathways

Speech sounds muffles, most common type of permanent hearing loss

52
Q

Types of hearing loss: Mixed

A

Includes both conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

53
Q

Weber test vs Rinne test

A

BOTH SHOULD ALWAYS BE DONE TOGETHER

Weber: Tuning fork placed on the top of the head
- Ask if the sound is heard equally loud in both ears
Rinne: Tuning fork placed on mastoid bone (behind ear)
- Record how long pt can hear the fork when its on their mastoid bone (bone conduction - BC). Then record how long pt can hear the fork when its next to their ear but not touching (air conduction - AC)

54
Q

Rinne test: Grading

A

Positive Rinne (normal): AC is heard twice as long as BC
Negative Rinne (abnormal): BC is heard longer than AC, indicative of conductive hearing loss

55
Q

Cranial nerves that control motor activity of the eye (3)

A

CN III - Oculomotor
CN IV - Trochlear
CN VI - Abducens

56
Q

Extraocular structures (4)

A
  1. Eyebrows and eyelashes
  2. Eyelids
  3. Conjunctiva (water line)
  4. Lacrimal glands
57
Q

Intraocular structures (12)

A
  1. Sclera: Whites of eyes
  2. Extraocular rotator muscles
  3. Aqueous humor: Fluid that helps maintain eyeball shape and supplies nutrition to the eye
  4. Choroid: Supplies blood to the retina
  5. Iris: Colored part of eyes
  6. Lens
  7. Pupil: Hole in the iris
  8. Posterior chamber: Space between iris and lens
  9. Fundus: Back of the eye
    10: Macula: Most sensitive area of the retina
  10. Optic disk: Where optic nerves leave the eye
  11. Retina: Where all the photoreceptors are
58
Q

Eye-specific diagnostic tools and what they do (2)

A
  • Comprehensive dilated eye examination: Eye is completely dilated to observe inner structures
  • Tonometry: A device to measure intraocular pressure
59
Q

Cataracts

A

Clouding of the lens that causes blurry, decreased, or lost vision.

60
Q

Glaucoma

A

A buildup of intraocular pressure that damages the eye’s optic nerve causing loss of peripheral vision.

61
Q

Macular degeneration

A

A deterioration of the central part of the retina causing loss of central vision.

62
Q

Describe how vision is graded

A

Using Snellen Chart. The top number is your distance in feet from the chart. The bottom number is the distance at which a person with normal eyesight can read the same line

Normal vision is 20/20. ‘Legally blind’ is 20/200 or worse

63
Q

Loss of visual acuity vs visual field

A

Loss of visual acuity: The inability to see objects clearly
Loss of visual field: The inability to see from side to side or up and down without moving the eyes or turning the head

64
Q

Hyperopia vs myopia

A

Hyperopia: Farsightedness, difficulty seeing near objects
Myopia: Nearsightedness, difficulty seeing far objects

65
Q

Diplopia

A

Double vision

66
Q

Sequence of eye assessment (9)

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Assess visual acuity
  3. Assess for color blindness
  4. Assess central vision
  5. Assess peripheral vision
    6.Assess ocular motility
    7.Assess for accommodation
    8.Assess pupil size and consensual response
    9.Assess internal structures using ophthalmoscope
67
Q

Nyctalopia

A

Night blindness

68
Q

Characteristics to assess during inspection of the eye: Eyelids, eyelashes, eyebrows, cornea, lens, sclera, conjunctiva, lacrimal duct, palpebral fissures

A
  1. Eyelids
    - Open and close completely
    - Drainage
  2. Eyelashes
    - Distribution
    - Drainage
    - Crusting
  3. Eyebrows
    - Symmetry
    - Distribution of hair and any scaly, flaky skin
  4. Cornea
    - Smoothness and clarity
  5. Lens
    - Clarity
    - Color and round shape
  6. Sclera
    - Color and smooth surface area.
  7. Conjunctiva
    - Color of the mucosa
  8. Lacrimal duct
    - Swelling or excessive tearing
  9. Palpebral fissures
    - Symmetry
69
Q

Exopthalamos

A

A protrusion of the anterior portion of the eyeball; common in hyperthyroidism; may cause patient to have dry eyes and difficulty closing the lids.

70
Q

Periorbital edema

A

Swelling in the tissues around the eye.

71
Q

Ectropion

A

An everted eyelid (turns outward); lower eyelid is most commonly affected.

72
Q

Entropion

A

An inverted eyelid (turns inward); lower eyelid is most commonly affected.

73
Q

Hordeolum

A

A stye, is an infection of a follicle of an eyelash that causes redness, inflammation, and a lump at the site.

74
Q

Corneal abrasion

A

A painful scratch to the clear surface of the eye, usually related to trauma to the eye.

75
Q

Scleral jaundice

A

A sign of elevated bilirubin in the blood; occurs with patients who have a liver disease.

76
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

A bacterial or viral infection causing erythema of the sclera and yellow-green drainage of the conjunctiva.

77
Q

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

Bleeding from broken blood vessels under the clear surface of the eye; may be related to coughing, sneezing, clotting disorders, or be spontaneous.

78
Q

Pterygium

A

A gelatinous, abnormal growth of the conjunctiva; occurs more commonly on the nasal side of the eye.

79
Q

Presbyopia

A

The progressive loss of the ability to focus clearly on near objects related to aging; the patient holds the print farther away to focus; magnifying glasses are used to read.

80
Q

Macular degeneration

A

A breakdown of cells in the macula of the retina, causes loss of central vision.

81
Q

Scotoma

A

An area of reduced or absent vision surrounded by an area of normal vision.

82
Q

Hemianopia

A

When half of the visual field is lost.

83
Q

Diplopia

A

A visual impairment in which a single object becomes doubled that may be related to a muscular dysfunction of the eye or neurological problem.

84
Q

Nystagmus

A

An involuntary, cyclical movement of the eyes; occurs when the patient gazes or follows an object; may also occur if the patient has a fixed gaze in the peripheral field; may indicate a neurological disorder.

85
Q

Anisocoria

A

Unequal size of the pupils; may be harmless or a medical emergency; causes may be related to genetics, medications, or a neurological disorder or injury

86
Q

Mydiasis

A

Bilateral dilated and fixed pupils; may be caused by eye drops, stimulation of sympathetic nerves, anesthesia, or central nervous system injury.

87
Q

Miosis

A

An abnormal constriction of the pupils; may be caused by a stroke, medications, or brain damage.

88
Q

Horner syndrome

A

A sign of a medical condition that affects one side of the face; drooping eyelid, constricted pupil (miosis).