Week 9 - Clotting and Coagulation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best way to determine surgical bleeding risk?

A

Thorough history and physical –> During interview may aid in a decision to get labs drawn to if indicated

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2
Q

What things may patients complain about with undiagnosed coagulopathies during the interview?

A

Frequent hematomas, runaway bruising, and oozing after minor injuries

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3
Q

What are some physical signs of bleeding that warrants further investigation?

A

Bruising or petechial hemorrhages on chest, abdomen, or upper extremities

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4
Q

Where is vitamin K created?

A

Bacteria from the gut

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5
Q

What factors does vitamin K form?

A

Factors 2, 7, 9, 10, proteins C and S

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6
Q

What patient problems may be present in patients who are unable to form or use clotting factors?

A

LIVER DISEASES

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7
Q

What 2 things are important to ask the patient when assessing anticoagulant drugs they are taking?

A

What drug they are taking and when they took the last dose

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8
Q

How does Aspirin work?

A

Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase which inhibits formation of prostaglandins and in turn Thromboxane A2 –> decreases function of the platelet

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9
Q

Patients should stop taking aspirin _____________ days prior to surgery

A

7-10 days

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10
Q

NSAIDS need to be withheld ______________ hours prior to surgery, why?

A

24-48 hours. These drugs reversibly block cyclooxygenase which prevents prostaglandin from forming, preventing the synthesis of thromboxane A2, so only a day or two is needed for platelets to regain function

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11
Q

Which herbal supplements can cause increased bleeding time?

A

All herbal supplements on table

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12
Q

What is a normal bleeding time?

A

3 - 7 minutes –> Qualitative assessment platelet count and function!

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13
Q

When can cryoprecipitate be given due to low fibrinogen levels?

A

80-100 mg / dL or less

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14
Q

What is a normal ACT?

A

80 - 150 seconds

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15
Q

What must the anesthesia provider do in an emergent or trauma situations that require surgery in regard to blood coagulation?

A

Must rely on on information supplied by family members, physical, and lab testing

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16
Q

Should coagulation labs be ordered on every patient prior to surgery?

A

No, only if indicated through doing a thorough history and physical

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17
Q

What can be done in a situation where a patient requires surgery, but not emergently. The patient presents with an elevated PT time

A

Administer vitamin K 4-6 hours prior to surgery for reversal –> 10-20 mg IM

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18
Q

If bleeding risk is moderate, what should be done prior to surgery? A type and crossmatch OR a type and screen?

A

Type and crossmatch

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19
Q

What should be done in an emergent surgery when the patient could be at an increased risk for bleeding?

A

Ordering all the blood components to have access to in the OR –> PRBCs, FFP, Platelets, and cryoprecipitate

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20
Q

What is the purpose of thromboxane A2 in the clotting process? What medications prevent this from occuring?

A

Constrict the vessel so vWF and platelets can adhere to the site of injury –> NSAIDS reversibly block this and ASA agents irreversibly block this
Prolonged bleeding will occur resulting in inadequate hemostasis

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21
Q

If a patient has a prolonged bleeding time, but hasn’t taken any medications that would cause this, what would be suspected? Should the case be cancelled?

A

Primary hemostasis abnormality –> Further investigation should be done
Just because a patient has a prolonged bleeding time DOES NOT mean they are at increased risk of bleeding or that an abnormality is present.

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22
Q

Is an isolated, slightly elevated bleeding time reason enough to cancel or delay a surgery?

A

No

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23
Q

Does a patient with a normal platelet count mean they have normal platelet function

A

No, only a representation of the quantity of platelets in the plasma with no correlation to function of the platelets

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24
Q

When is a patient considered throbocytopenic?

A

Counts less than 100,000

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25
Q

The patients platelet count drops below 50,000? What should be suspected?

A

You should suspect the patient will have prolonged bleeding under surgical conditions.

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26
Q

What platelet count is minimum for adequate hemostasis?

A

Greater than 100,000

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27
Q

When is a platelet count considered at a critical level? What can occur?

A

Less than 20,000. Spontaneous bleeding can occur

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28
Q

What does a PT time evaluate?

A

PET –> All extrinsic pathways and common pathways (3, 7, 10, 5, 1, and 2)
Most commonly used test to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy (Coumadin derivatives –> Warfarin)
Prolonged in deficiencies in these factors or warfarin.

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29
Q

What are some drawbacks to a PT test?

A

Not very sensitive. Does NOT tell you which clotting factor is deficient or what the issue is. Only which pathways (extrinsic and common)

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30
Q

What is considered mild thrombocytopenia?

A

50,000 - 100,000

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31
Q

How is a PT test preformed?

A

Patient plasma is incubated with source of tissue factor

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32
Q

What does a PTT test measure?

A

Intrinsic and common pathway deficiencies or heparin therapy (12, 11, 9, 8, 10, 5, 2, 1, and ultimately 13) –> Also screens for acquired coagulation inhibitors like factor 8 antibodies and lupus anticoagulants

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33
Q

What factor would be missing in hemophiliacs?

A

Hemophilia A (Factor 8) and Hemophilia B (Factor 9)

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34
Q

Does a prolonged PTT always indicate a bleeding disorder?

A

No

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35
Q

What would be suspected if both a PT and PTT time were elevated?

A

Typically a common pathway deficiency –> Liver disease or DIC

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36
Q

What must occur within the body before a patient presenting with a prolonged PT or PTT time?

A

Factor that is deficient must be decreased by 30%

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37
Q

What factor deficiency won’t cause increased bleeding? Which ones will?

A

Factor 12 WILL NOT, Factors 9 and 8 WILL

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38
Q

What does an activated clotting time test?

A

Quick test used in surgery to monitor the ability of blood to clot –> Normal is 90 - 150 seconds
Most commonly used to guide anticoagulant dosing

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39
Q

What does thrombin time assess?

A

The ending phase of coagulation

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40
Q

What three things does a thromboelastogram (TEG) measure?

A
  1. Platelet reactions
  2. Coagulation
  3. Fibrinolysis
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41
Q

What does a normal TEG look like?

A
42
Q

What would a hemophiliacs TEG look like?

A
43
Q

What are some tests that can be used to evaluate fibrinolysis?

A

D-dimer, fibrin degradation products, and thromboelastogram (TEG –> Can be used to look at the whole coagulation process)

44
Q

What is a therapuetic INR for patients taking warfarin?

A

2-3

45
Q

What is a normal INR?

A

1.1 or less

46
Q

INR formula

A

INR = (Patient PT / Mean normal PT)^ISI

47
Q

Is a PT/INR sensitive to heparin?

A

No

48
Q

What is an acceptable INR for a neuraxial block? What about a peripheral nerve block?

A

INR 1.4 or less, INR 1.6 or less

49
Q

What do you do for a patient with an INR of 3 who needs an emergent surgery?

A

Give FFP

50
Q

How do you interpret a TEG?

A
51
Q

In RBC’s, what component decreases with increased length of storage but improves once transfused?

A

O2 carrying capacity –> Improves when 2,3 DPG regenerates during transfusion

52
Q

What is the recommended dose for platelet replacement?

A

One concentrate per 10 kg of patient weight –> Should increase count by 5 - 10 K

53
Q

Life span of transfused platelets?

A

4 - 5 days

54
Q

Why might a platelet transfusion be indicated in a patient with a normal platelet count?

A

Potent anti-platelet agents, pulmonary bypass, congenital platelet dysfunction and bleeding –> Just because you have a “normal” platelet count doesn’t mean they are working correctly
Qualitative issue

55
Q

When is a platelet transfusion usually recommended? When isn’t it?

A

It ISN’T generally indicated in surgical or obstetric patients with a platelet count greater than 100,000

It IS generally indicated with counts less than 50,000 in the presence of excessive bleeding

56
Q

Can unmatched platelets be given?

A

Yes, but they should be matched because unmatched can result in quicker death of the transfused platelets

57
Q

What needs to occur prior to discharge if pooled platelets are administered to women of child bearing years?

A

Administer RHOGAM (Rh immune globulin)

58
Q

Surgeries involving the central nervous system should include a patient platelet count of at least

A

100,000 plts

59
Q

Does FFP need to be ABO compatible?

A

Yes

60
Q

Coagulation factors in one unit of FFP equals how many units of platelets and whole blood?

A

4-5 platelet concentrates or 1 unit of single donor apheresis or 1 unit of fresh whole blood

61
Q

When has dilutional coagulopathy occurred within a patient?

A

Blood is diluted 30% or the patient has lost more than one volume of blood

62
Q

What does cryoprecipitate contain?

A

Fibrinogen (200 mg), factor 8, vWF, and fibronectin

63
Q

When treating vWD patients, what is the correct order of administering products?

A
  1. Desmopressin –> Increases vWF
  2. Subsequently administer specific vWF/factor 8 concentrate
  3. If no response to either, administer cryoprecipitate
64
Q

What is a “transfusion trigger” for high risk pateints?

A

Hgb less than 7

65
Q

What factor is approved for use in hemophilia A, B, factor 7 deficient, and universal hemostatic agent by the FDA?

A

Factor 7 –> VERY expensive

66
Q

What two things can inhibit the administration of factor 7 concentrate?

A

Acidosis and hypothermia

67
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Too many platelets –> More than 440,000

68
Q

Does a PT or PTT indicate the risk of perioperative bleeding?

A

NO

69
Q

Two types of von Willebrand disease

A

Aquired –> AvWS, can be due to autoimmune clearance of vWF, increased binding of vWF to platelets, or increased proteolysis of vWF
Inherited –> Lifelong bleeders

70
Q

Two purposes of vWF

A

Attach to walls for platelets to stick to and behave as a plasma carrier of factor 8

71
Q

Where is wWF synthesized?

A

Endothelium and megakaryocytes

72
Q

What patient population would you likely see a factor 11 deficiency?

A

Jewish population

73
Q

What gender does hemophilia affect almost exclusively?

A

Males –> Although females can be carriers

74
Q

What drug can be given to hemophiliacs to help with coagulation?

A

Desmopressin

75
Q

In a hemophiliac, what factor can be given preop while the other factor should be given intraoperativley

A

Factor 8 preoperatively
Factor 7 intraoperatively –> Augments thrombin generation and deters bleeding

76
Q

What is DIC?

A

Coagulation and fibrinolysis increased
Use up all of the clotting factors and causing microthrombi –> This causes thrombocytopenia, bleeding and end organ failure

77
Q

Treatment of DIC

A
  1. Treat underlying cause
  2. Anticoagulation with heparin
  3. Platelet transfusion
  4. FFP
  5. Antithrombin III
78
Q

What plays into the pathogenesis of DIC?

A

TF is released but TFPI doesn’t stop this like it normally should –> This leads to more clotting factors being activated than normal
After this, Plasminogen activator inhibitor type one is released, preventing the breakdown of the clot
THEN –> depletion off all the clotting factors leads to increased bleeding

79
Q

What does a score of 6 indicate on the International society of thrombosis and haemostasis indicate regarding a potential DIC diagnosis

A

Anything 5 or more indicate overt DIC, less than 5 indicates non overt DIC

80
Q

What may halt the progression of DIC in a septic patient?

A

Treatment with antibiotic therapy

81
Q

What chromosome codes for the production of beta globin chains for the protein hemoglobin A?

A

Chromosome 11

82
Q

Sickle cell anemia results in a variant hemoglobin _______

A

S

83
Q

Who does sickle cell primarily affect?

A

African American population

84
Q

What can trigger a sickle cell crisis?

A

Hypoxemia, hypothermia, acidosis, infection, dehydration, venous stasis

85
Q

What is the most common procedure sickle cell patients undergo? Why?

A

Cholecystectomy, because of the excess bilirubin resulting from rapid breakdown of the sickle erythrocytes

86
Q

Adequate anesthesia for a sickle cell patient includes

A

Providing adequate hydration, oxygen saturation, normothermia, acid base balance, and positioning

87
Q

What types of surgeries cause an increased risk in sickle cell patients undergoing surgeries?

A

Surgeries that take longer because this can lead to hypoxemia and hypothermia –> Abdominal surgeries, intracranial surgeries, thoracic, certain orthopedic

88
Q

What is HIT?

A

Heparin induced immune response that can lead to severe thrombosis, amputation, and death

89
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to heparin therapy?

A

HIT

90
Q

HIT should be suspected if a patient receives heparin and what happens?

A

Greater than 50% decrease of normal platelet count or total platelet count decreases below 100,000 within 5-10 days

91
Q

What is the gold standard test assessing for HIT?

A

C serotonin release assay

92
Q

Two types of HIT, which one is worse and why?

A

HIT type II –> Greatest morbidity and mortality, causes patient to develop IgG antibodies directed at heparin platelet factor 4 –> This causes platelet aggregation

93
Q

Treatment for HIT

A

STOP heparin immediately, administer direct thrombin inhibitors (dibigatran, argatroban, lepirudin), SURGERY may be required to treat venous or arterial thrombosis (embolectomy)

94
Q

What does desmopressin do?

A

Stimulates release of vWF from endothelial cells –> Used for von Willebrand disease and mild Hemophilia A

95
Q

When can anticoagulants be resumed after surgery?

A

After adequate hemostasis has occurred they can restart 24 hours after surgery. (48-72 hours for larger doses)

96
Q

What are the two most common complications associated with stent placement?

A

Acute stent thrombosis and stent restenosis

97
Q

When does stent thrombosis generally occur?

A

Within 30 days of placement –> needs to be on long term anticoagulant therapy

98
Q

What is the most common cause of acute stent thrombosis?

A

Premature withdrawal of anticoagulant therapy

99
Q

How does a drug eluding stent work?

A

sirolimus or paclitaxel is slowly released from the stent to block endothelial growth proliferation.

100
Q

Which stent holds increased risk with acute stent thrombosis?

A

DES –> Because of the delayed or incomplete endothelialization process

101
Q

Can patients keep taking anticoagulants prior to surgery if they have had a stent placed within the last 6 months

A

Patient dependent. Some cardiologists will request that they do while others may be okay temporary withdrawal.

102
Q

What can be done in between the period where anticoagulant therapy has been discontinued for surgery but you want to decrease the risk of thrombosis?

A

Bridge with LMWH or unfractionated heparin because of its short half life