Week 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Why do cells divide?

A
  • Healing and tissue repair
  • Growth
  • Reproduction of unicellular organisms
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2
Q

What are the 4 phases of the cell cycle?

A

M - Mitosis
G1 - Primary growth
S - Synthesis phase (DNA replicated)
G2 - Secondary growth

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3
Q

What happens in the G1 phase?

A
  • Cells grow in preparation for DNA replication in S phase
  • Organelle duplication
  • Duration is variable - short in embryonic and cancer cells
  • Cells that remain in G1 for a long time = G0 (permanent tissues, such as neural tissue)
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4
Q

What happens in S phase?

A
  • DNA and centrosome replication

- Cells committed to go through cell division once the S phase starts

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5
Q

What happens in G2 phase?

A
  • Cell growth continues
  • Enzymes and proteins for cell division are synthesised
  • Cell division machinery begins to assemble
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6
Q

How is the cell cycle regulated?

A
  • External regulation eg. growth factor signalling

- Internal checkpoints

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7
Q

What are the internal checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A
  • G1 checkpoint - DNA integrity, cell size and protein levels assessed
  • G2 checkpoint - successful chromosome replication and no DNA damage
  • M checkpoint - correct attachment of sister chromatids to spindle microtubules
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8
Q

What are some positive regulator molecules of the cell cycle?

A

Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

Cyclin-dependent kinases are activated by interacting with the regulatory subunit cyclin

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9
Q

What are some negative regulator molecules of the cell cycle?

A

Rb, p53 and p21

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10
Q

What happens at the G1 checkpoint?

A
  • Main checkpoint that commits a cell to division
  • Sensitive to: cell size, nutrients, growth factors and DNA damage
  • Cyclin D-cdk complex drives cell through G1 to S phase
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11
Q

What happens at the G2 checkpoint?

A
  • Checks to see whether DNA replication is completed
  • If any unreplicated DNA is detected, cells held at G2
  • If damaged DNA detected, cells held in G2 until DNA
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12
Q

What is a mitotic promoting factor?

A

Cyclin B/Cdk1

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13
Q

What happens at the spindle assembly checkpoint (M checkpoint)?

A
  • Prevents cells entering anaphase until all chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle
  • Sensor for correct chromosome attachments are in the kinetochores
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14
Q

What does p53 do?

A

p53 is a tumour suppressor gene

  • p53 introduces a temporary cell cycle arrest to allow DNA damage to be repaired
  • If damage cannot be repaired –> programmed cell death (apoptosis)
  • Mutation in p53 –> cell checkpoint no longer works –> cells replicate damaged DNA and acquire many mutations
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15
Q

What are the two basic components of tumours?

A

1) Parenchyma: neoplastic cells. Determines the biological behaviour of the neoplasm and the name of the neoplasm.
2) Reactive stroma: connective tissue, blood vessels, the supporting tissue. Determines growth and spread of tumour

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16
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

Epithelial neoplasm

17
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

Connective tissue neoplasm

18
Q

What are the differences between a benign tumour and a malignant tumour?

A

Benign:

  • No local invasion
  • No metastasis
  • Retain function
  • Variable growth rate, often low

Malignant:

  • Locally invasive, infiltrate
  • Frequently metastasise
  • Lose function
  • Variable growth rate, grow more rapidly
19
Q

What does differentiation (in cancer cells) mean?

A
  • Refers to the extent to which the neoplasm looks and functions like the parenchymal cells they are differentiating towards
  • Most malignant neoplasms are graded as well (grade 1), moderately (grade 2) or poorly (grade 3) differentiated.
  • Undifferentiated (anaplasia) reflects a total lack of differentiation and absence of specialisation
20
Q

What are the sampling approaches for diagnosis of tumours?

A

1) Excision
2) Biopsy: needle core/punch
3) Fine-needle aspiration
4) Cytologic smears (blood/bone marrow/ascitic & pleural fluid/ urine/ stool)

21
Q

What is the tumour regression grade used for?

A

Determines prognosis after treatment

TRG1 - TRG5

22
Q

What cancers are people with Lynch syndrome more at risk of developing?

A
  • Colorectal cancer
  • Endometrial cancer
  • Stomach cancer
  • Ovarian cancer
23
Q

What is relative risk reduction?

A

The reduction of risk in the intervention group relative to the risk in the control group

24
Q

What is absolute risk reduction?

A

The difference between risk in the intervention and control group

25
What is number needed to treat?
The number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional adverse outcome
26
How do you calculate Relative Risk Reduction?
(Control group event rate - experimental group event rate) / control group event rate
27
How do you calculate Absolute Risk Reduction?
Control event rate - experimental event rate
28
How do you calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)?
1/ Absolute Risk Reduction or 1/ CER - EER
29
What are the Ottawa ankle rules?
Malleolar pain + any of the following: 1) Boney tenderness on lateral or medial malleolus 2) Inability to weight bear
30
What do different T-score values mean?
Normal: greater than or equal to 1.0 Osteopenia: between -1.0 and -2.5 Osteoporosis: less than -2.5
31
What is the gold standard for investigation of osteoporosis/osteomalacia?
DEXA scan