Week 8; Neuro and Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

Critical Access Hospitals –

A

considered necessary providers of health care to community residents that are not close to other hospitals. Medicare and Medicaid has a process for this designation. Multi-specialty environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vulnerable populations include:

A

Homeless
Poor
Mental health issue
Substance abuse issues
Older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Older adults visiting the ED

A

Visit ED because of worsening of existing chronic condition. Remember with older adults, may need to get collateral information for history due to memory loss or acute delirium. Knowing the history is vital because this may complicate the cause for the ED visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hand-off communication process from ED to next point of care needs to include

A

Situation
Pertinent medical history
Assessment and diagnostic findings (especially critical results)
Transmission-Based Precautions and safety concerns
Interventions in the ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hostile Patients or Visitors

A

Pose injury risks to staff and patients
Be alert for volatile situations
Be alert for people who demonstrate aggressive behavior
Identify escape route
Enact hospital security plan
Staff education a must
Managing violence, active shooter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Core competencies for a trauma nurse

A

Assessment – rapid, accurate interpretation
Clinical decision-making – prioritizing, triage
Multitasking- proficient in variety of technical skills
Documenting
Communication
Cognitive knowledge base
Flexibility and adaptability
Priority setting (triage process)
Collaborative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Triage

A

An organized system for sorting or classifying patients into priority levels depending on illness or injury severity
“Gatekeeper”
Sorts patients into priority levels based on ASSESSMENT of illness or injury severity
Highest acuity receives quickest intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Emergent

A

Patient has immediate threat to life or limb, and requires immediate treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Urgent

A

Patient should be treated quickly but immediate threat to life does not exist at the moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nonurgent

A

Patient can usually wait several hours for care without risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ESI

A

Uses an algorithm that fosters rapid, reliable, and clinically pertinent categorization into 5 groups 1 emergent to level 5 non urgent. Organized process to maintain objectivity. Mistriage can be the root cause of delayed or inadequate treatment with potentially deadly consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disposition

A

Admission to hospital
Transferred to specialty care center
Discharged to home with instructions and follow-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patient and family education:

A

Key role of the emergency nurse; health teaching
Topics are quite broad and range from safety issues such as fall prevention to medication education and home management of serious conditions, discharge instructions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Death in ED

A

May occur sudden and unexpected, or be anticipated (e.g., terminal illness)
Family presence during resuscitation
For trauma deaths, suspected homicide, and abuse cases: leave IV lines, indwelling tubes in place
Communication with family members in crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Homelessness

A

Homelessness results from crisis or persistent poverty. Vulnerability to certain conditions. Challenges involved in evaluation, treatment, and disposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trauma nursing principals

A

Injury management is a key component
Accredited trauma centers: additional opportunities for development of expertise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mechanism of injury (MOI)

A

Manner in which traumatic event occurred:
Blunt trauma
Blast effect
Acceleration–deceleration forces
Penetrating trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Primary Survey and Resuscitation Interventions

A

Primary survey
(A) Airway/cervical spine
(B) Breathing
(C) Circulation
(D) Disability
(E) Exposure
Exception; in presence of excessive bleeding, use <C>ABC</C>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Secondary Survey and Resuscitation Interventions

A

Comprehensive head-to-toe assessment
Identifies other injuries/issues
The nurse anticipates
Insertion of gastric tube and urinary catheter
Preparation for diagnostic studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Airway

A

Establishing a patent airway is highest priority unless massive, life-threatening external hemorrhage
Even minutes without adequate oxygen can lead to brain injury
Nonrebreather mask is best for the spontaneous breathing patient
Bag-valve mask ventilation with the appropriate airway adjunct and a 100% oxygen source is indicated for person who needs ventilatory assistance
Significantly impaired consciousness (8 or less on GCS) requires endotracheal tube and mechanical ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Breathing

A

Assess whether ventilator efforts are effective
Listen to breath sounds, evaluate chest expansion and respiratory effort and any evidence of chest wall trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Circulation

A

Adequacy of heart rate, BP and overall perfusion. Common threats to circulation: cardiac arrest, myocardial dysfunction and hemorrhage leading to shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Disability

A

Rapid baseline of neurologic status
A Alert
V Responsive to Voice
P Responsive to Pain
U Unresponsive
OR USE GLASGOW COMA SCALE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Exposure

A

Remove clothing for complete exam
Prevent hypothermia, cover with blankets
If evidence preservation is issue, handle per policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Secondary Survey and Resuscitation Interventions

A

More comprehensive head-to-toe assessment to identify other injuries or medical issues
Splints applied or temporary dressings until diagnostic testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Disposition

A

Transport to OR or interventional radiology suite
Admission to inpatient unit
Transfer to a higher level of care
Psychiatric referral or admission
HIGH Risk Alcohol abuse - Screening, Brief intervention, and referral to treatment (SBIRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which patient will the emergency nurse triage for care first?

7-year-old with protruding ulnar fracture
19-year-old with nausea and back pain, stating “I have kidney stones”
43-year-old with weakness and 102 F fever
54-year-old with upper abdominal pain radiating to left shoulder and profuse sweating

A

D
Based on the information provided, the patient experiencing upper abdominal pain and profuse sweating should be triaged first. Upper abdominal with radiating left shoulder pain are possible signs of referred chest pain which may indicate a myocardial infarction—an emergent condition. The emergent triage category implies that a condition exists that poses an immediate threat to life or limb. The urgent triage category indicates that the patient should be treated quickly but that an immediate threat to life does not exist at the moment. Examples of patients who typically fall into the urgent category are those with renal colic, complex lacerations not associated with major hemorrhage, displaced fractures or dislocations, and temperature greater than 101 F (38.3 C).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A patient undergoing triage reports dizziness. As the nurse collects assessment information, the patient suddenly reports difficulty breathing and faints. The patient has a pulse of 80 and respirations are 22. BP 100/60. What are priority nursing actions? Select 2.

Repeat vital signs.
Contact Radiology for urgent chest x-ray
Evaluate the patient’s level of consciousness.
Assess airway, position and administer oxygen, as needed.
Summon help

A

E, D
Summon help from other ED staff!
The primary survey organizes the approach to the patient so that immediate threats to life are rapidly identified and effectively managed. The primary survey is based on a standard “ABC” mnemonic with a “D” and “E” added for trauma patients: airway/cervical spine (A), breathing (B), circulation (C), disability (D), and exposure (E). The highest priority intervention is to establish a patent airway. All other actions can be completed after the airway is established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

An 80 year old female patient is being evaluated for what her husband describes as a fall after tripping over their small dog. Upon assessment, multiple bruises in various stages of healing are noted around the patient’s face, neck, and upper arms. What is the appropriate nursing intervention?

Complete the physical examination.
Ask the ED’s forensic nurse examiner to see the patient.
Inquire, “Is everything okay between the two of you?”
Make an anonymous call to social services to report suspected domestic violence.

A

B
The nurse should ask the forensic nurse to see the patient. Many EDs have specialized teams that deal with high-risk populations of patients. Forensic nurse examiners (RN-FNEs) are educated to obtain patient histories, collect forensic evidence, and offer counseling and follow-up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence, also known as intimate partner violence (IPV). They are trained to recognize evidence of abuse and to intervene on the patient’s behalf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypersensitivity

A

Altered immune response to an antigen that results in harm. Response may be bothersome or life-threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Type I hypersensitivity

A

(IgE-mediated)
Common hypersensitivity reactions
Examples: allergic asthma, hay fever, hives
Triggered when allergen interacts with free IgE
Allergens can be ingested in foods, injected, inhaled, absorbed
Systemic response
Anaphylaxis, urticaria, angiodema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Anaphylaxis:

A

acute systemic response, may result in shock, death in highly sensitive individuals. Localized response, such as asthma, more common with strong genetic predisposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Type II hypersensitivity

A

(cytotoxic)
Binding of IgG- or IgM-type with antigen activates complement cascade
Destruction of target cell
May be stimulated by:
Exogenous antigen (foreign tissue, cells)
Drug reaction
Withdrawal of drug stops hemolysis
Endogenous antigen
Results in autoimmune disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Type III hypersensitivity

A

(immune complex–mediated)
Results from formation of IgG or IgM antibody–antigen immune complexes in circulatory system
Systemic; immune complex deposited in small blood vessels, kidneys, joints
Serum sickness
Localized; immune complexes accumulate at specific site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity

A

(delayed)
Cell-mediated immune responses. Results from exaggerated interaction between antigen, normal cell-mediated mechanisms, contact dermatitis.
Latex allergy; common in certain patients
Spina bifida
Congenital, urologic, gastrointestinal (GI), tracheoesophageal defects
Multiple surgeries
Diabetes requiring insulin
History of atopy
Often coexists with allergy to certain foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Immune mediated response risk factors

A

Incidence and intensity increase with previous exposure, age, sex, concurrent illnesses, previous reactions to related substances. Family member with allergy.
Development, severity factors: older age, lung disease, route of antigen entry, amount of antigen introduced, rate of absorption of antigen, degree of individual hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Four types of reactions
Type I: localized S/S

A

Hypotension, wheezing, GI or uterine spasm, stridor, urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Four types of reactions
Type II: tissue specific S/S

A

Varying manifestations, dyspnea, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Four types of reactions
Type III: immune mediated S/S

A

Urticaria, fever, joint pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Four types of reactions
Type IV: delayed, variable S/S

A

Fever, erythema, itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mild hypersensitivity responses s/s

A

Discomfort
Fatigue
Lasts hours to a few days
Resolve by themselves or with over-the-counter (OTC) treatment
Rhinitis or asthma lasting beyond a day or two may result in localized infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Moderate hypersensitivity reactions s/s

A

Localized pain and inflammation
Difficulty breathing
Loss of smell, taste, appetite
Skin reactions: urticaria, atopic and contact dermatitis
Food allergies: urticaria, GI symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Severe hypersensitivity reactions s/s

A

May lead to respiratory distress, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Caring for pt with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Focus on minimizing exposure to allergen, preventing hypersensitivity reaction, providing prompt, effective interventions for allergic responses, identifying allergen is key, history of exposure, type of response, onset, manifestations, withdraw allergen immediately, maintain airway, cardiac output, manage bleeding, renal failure, supportive care to relieve discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Laboratory testing

A

WBC count with differential
Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Blood type and crossmatch
Indirect Coombs test
Direct Coombs test
Immune complex assays
Complement assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Skin testing

A

Determine causes of hypersensitivity reactions
Allergens selected according to patient’s history
Epicutaneous testing done first to avoid systemic reaction
Specific skin tests: prick (epicutaneous or puncture) test, intradermal test, patch test, food allergy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pharmacologic therapy for hypersensitivity rxn

A

Based on severity of hypersensitivity reaction: IV for severe reactions, oral for mild reactions
Antihistamines
Mast cell stabilizers
Leukotriene modifiers
Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Epinephrine

A

Immediate treatment for anaphylaxis
Patients with history of anaphylaxis should carry EpiPen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Nonpharmacologic therapies for hypersensitivity rxn

A

Dictated by severity of response, organ system affected
Airway management is highest priority for patient with acute anaphylactic reaction
Severe laryngospasm: emergency tracheostomy or endotracheal tube
IV line, fluid resuscitation
Anaphylaxis: risk for vasomotor collapse, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Nonpharmacologic therapies for hypersensitivity rxn: Plasmapheresis

A

Blood passed through blood cell separator
Plasma and glomerular-damaging antibody–antigen complexes removed
RBCs returned to patient with albumin, plasma
Done as a series of treatments
Potentially risky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Complementary therapies for hypersensitivity rxn

A

Patients with type I hypersensitivity should contact physician before using herbals, teas, aromatherapy
Concern about allergic reactions to chamomile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Individuals with __ __ and __ at increase risk for anaphylactic reaction

A

food allergies, asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lifespan considerations with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Older adults at greater risk
Teens with food allergies at high risk
Tend to eat outside home
Less likely to carry their medication
Allergies tend to run in families
Results of studies on prevention confusing, controversial
May outgrow certain allergies as patient ages
Uncommon to outgrow allergy to peanuts, tree nuts, fish, shellfish
Individuals who develop allergies in adulthood typically have them for rest of their lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hypersensitivity in children, adolescents

A

Food allergies affect ~48.5% of children ages 0–18 years
Reduce risk of exposure
Educate families on what to do when child has allergic reaction
Peanut allergy increased significantly
EPIT could be first FDA-approved treatment for peanut allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hypersensitivity in adults

A

Fish and shellfish allergy most prevalent, then allergies to peanuts and tree nuts
More likely to persist into adulthood than allergies to milk, eggs, wheat, soy
Drug allergies not uncommon, may be cause of up to 20% of anaphylaxis fatalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Physical assessment for pt with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Mucous membranes of nose, mouth
Lesions, rashes on skin
Tearing, redness of eyes
Respiratory rate
Breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Planning for pt with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Goals may include that patient will:
Avoid known substances that provoke hypersensitivity response
Describe self-care to reduce symptoms of seasonal allergies
Describe proper self-administration of medications
Help determine substances that cause hypersensitivity by keeping an accurate food journal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Patient and family education

A

Most hypersensitivity reactions treated by patient or family member
Education about care for hypersensitivity is essential
When/how to use anaphylaxis kit
When to seek medical attention
How to prevent immune complex reaction
Skin care to prevent contact dermatitis

59
Q

Maintain a patent airway in pt with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Highest priority in anaphylactic shock
Place patient in Fowler or high Fowler position

60
Q

Patent airway in mild-moderate hypersensitivity reactions

A

Assess respiratory status, level of consciousness (LOC), anxiety, nasal flaring, use of accessory respiration muscles, chest wall movement
Palpate for respiratory excursion
Auscultate lung sounds, adventitious sounds
Administer oxygen per nasal cannula
Insert nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway
Administer subcutaneous epinephrine
Provide calm reassurance

61
Q

Monitor cardiac status in pt with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Monitor vital signs, LOC frequently
Assess indicators of peripheral perfusion
For anaphylactic shock
Insert large-bore IV catheter(s), administer warmed IV solutions
Insert indwelling catheter, monitor output
Place tourniquet above site of injected venom
Once breathing established, place patient flat with legs elevated

62
Q

Reduce risk for injury during blood transfusion in pt with hypersensitivity rxn

A

Obtain and record thorough history
Previous transfusions
Any reactions, no matter how mild
Check for informed consent for blood, blood products
Use two licensed healthcare professionals to check patient identity, blood type, Rh factor, crossmatch, expiration date
Take and record vital signs within 15 minutes before initiating blood transfusion
Administer acetaminophen and diphenhydramine before initiating transfusion
Infuse blood into separate infusion site
Use at least 20 gauge catheter for infusion
Administer blood with normal saline to prime IV
Administer 50 mL blood during first 15 minutes

63
Q

During a transfusion, monitor for:

A

Complaints of back, chest pain
Temperature increase over 1.8°F
Chills, tachycardia, tachypnea
Wheezing, hypotension
Hives, rashes
Cyanosis
Stop transfusion immediately if even mild reaction occurs
Send blood and administration set to lab
Fresh blood and urine samples from patient

64
Q

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

A

Whole-body inflammatory process → acute critical illness
Sepsis is SIRS resulting from infection
Can occur as complication of any infection

65
Q

Severe sepsis

A

Sepsis associated with acute organ failure

66
Q

Septic shock

A

Persistently low mean arterial blood pressure despite fluid resuscitation. Results from overwhelming infection. A sepsis induced hypotension persisting despite adequate fluid resuscitation.

67
Q

Refractory septic shock

A

Persistently low mean arterial blood pressure despite vasopressor therapy and fluid resuscitation.

68
Q

Sepsis

A

SIRS can occur as complication of virtually any infection of any body tissue.
Severe SIRS response → sepsis can develop.
Patients with sepsis are very ill, require attentive monitoring, rapid intervention

69
Q

What can occur as a complication of sepsis

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

70
Q

Sepsis etiology

A

Begins with septicemia d/t bacteremia

71
Q

Bacteremia:

A

bacteria, their toxins in bloodstream
Most often from gram-positive infections

72
Q

Portals of entry causing sepsis

A

Urinary system
Respiratory system
Gastrointestinal (GI) system
Integumentary system
Female reproductive system

73
Q

Sepsis risk factors

A

Hospitalization, chronic illnesses, poor nutritional status, invasive procedures or surgery, older adults, immunocompromised, improper tampon use (TSS)

74
Q

Preventing sepsis

A

Watch for early signs of sepsis in infants with infectious process, individuals with cancer, especially with chemotherapy, radiation therapy.
Immunization against organisms that cause pneumonia, use aseptic technique, good hand hygiene when inserting, removing, caring for catheters, IV lines.

75
Q

Manifestations of sepsis

A

Fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, peripheral vasodilation, septic shock, mental status changes

76
Q

Sepsis lab results

A

Abnormal complete blood count (CBC), clotting factors, liver enzyme, C-reactive protein, creatinine

77
Q

Early septic shock (warm phase)

A

Vasodilation results in hypotension and fluid shifts, weakness, warm flushed skin
Septicemia → high fever, chills

78
Q

Late septic shock (cold phase)

A

Hypovolemia and compensatory mechanisms result in cold moist skin, oliguria, changes in mental status
Death from respiratory, cardiac, renal failure

79
Q

Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)

A

Sequence of cell damage caused by massive release of toxic metabolites and enzymes.
Microthrombi form. Occurs first in liver, heart, brain, kidney. Myocardial depressant factor from ischemic pancreas.

80
Q

Sepsis dx testing

A

Hemoglobin and hematocrit, arterial blood gases (ABGs), serum electrolytes, BUN, creatine, urine gravity, and osmolality, blood cultures to identify causative organism, direct treatment, WBC, serums enzymes, hemodynamic monitoring, x-ray, CT, MRI, gastric tonometry, sublingual PaCO2.

81
Q

Treatment of sepsis

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics, vasoactive drugs, inotropic drugs, o2 therapy, fluid replacement.

82
Q

Antimicrobials for bacterial or fungal infection

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics; several used to ensure adequate coverage. Condition may worsen initially. Increasing numbers of toxins released into bloodstream from pathogen destruction.

83
Q

Fluid replacement

A

Most effective treatment for septic shock
IV fluids or blood
Two large-bore peripheral lines or, more often, central line

84
Q

Infants and children manifestations s/s sepsis

A

Temperature instability, abdominal distention, poor feeding, lethargy, respiratory distress, hepatomegaly, vomiting, jaundice

85
Q

Sepsis in pregnant women

A

Increasing incidence worldwide, small percentage resulting in death of mother and fetus. Fast action when SIRS symptoms begin to avoid complications. Routine prenatal care can assist in prevention.

86
Q

Older adults and sepsis

A

Age-associated cardiac changes decrease compensatory responses to septic shock.
Decreased ability to respond to decrease in oxygenation. Decreased skin elasticity makes dehydration assessment more difficult. Decreased immune system response increases risk. Sepsis is critical concern in older adults

87
Q

Assessment in pt with sepsis

A

Continuous monitoring of vital signs, hemodynamic monitoring, focused assessment to monitor adequacy of ventilation, perfusion, renal function, monitor patient’s skin color, temperature, turgor, and moisture, monitor patient’s cardiopulmonary function by assessing/monitoring blood pressure, rate and depth of respirations, lung sounds, pulse oximetry, peripheral pulse, JVD, central venous pressure (CVP) measurements, temperature, urinary output per Foley catheter hourly, LOC.

88
Q

Autonomic Nervous System: Structure and Function Includes

A

Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system

89
Q

Neurologic changes with aging

A

Often affect mobility, sensory perception, cognition, motor changes, slower processing time, recent memory loss, decreases sensory perception of touch, change in perception of pain, change in sleep, altered balance or coordination, increased risk of infection.

90
Q

The GSC assesses

A

Eye opening, motor response, and verbal response. Highest score is 15

91
Q

Neuro dx assessments include

A

Laboratory assessment, imaging such as:
Plain x-rays
Cerebral angiography (arteriography)
Computed tomography (CT) scan
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Positron emission tomography (PET)

92
Q

Electromyography (EMG)

A

Used to identify nerve and muscle disorders, as well as spinal cord disease, used for MS, peripheral neuropathies

93
Q

Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

Graphically records the electrical activity of cerebral hemispheres. Examines for various seizure activity.

94
Q

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meninges (outer coverings) of the brain and spinal cord, specifically the pia mater and arachnoid. Bacterial, viral, or fungal etiology. Organisms enter the CNS via the bloodstream or are directly introduced into the CNS. Direct routes usually due to trauma, surgical procedures or a rupture brain abscess.

95
Q

Basilar skull fracture:

A

direct communication of CSF with ear or nasal passages manifested by otorrhea or rhinorrhea that is actually CSF.

96
Q

Basilar skull fracture:

A

direct communication of CSF with ear or nasal passages manifested by otorrhea or rhinorrhea that is actually CSF.

97
Q

Risk factors for meningitis

A

Include infections in eyes, ears, nose mouth or neck or throat because of proximity.
Otitis media, sinusitis, tooth abscesses.
Immunocompromised patients at risk.

98
Q

Viral meningitis is the most common –

A

enterovirus, herpes simplex, varicella zoster (chicken pox and shingles)

99
Q

Most common bacterial meningitis is caused by –

A

streptococcus pneumonia and Neisseria meningitides and also know as meningococcal meningitis

100
Q

Meningococcal meningitis

A

Is considered a medical emergency with a high mortality rate, often within 24 hours. HIGHLY contagious. Outbreaks most likely to occur in high population density such as college dorms, schools, military barracks. People ages 16-21 have highest rate of infection from meningococcal meningitis. Vaccine available and CDC recommends administration between the ages of 11-12 yo.

101
Q

S/s of meningitis

A

Fever, headache, photophobia, phonophobia, indications of increased ICP, nuchal rigidity, nystagmus, abnormal eye movements, positive Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs, decreased mental status, memory changes, motor responses: hemiparesis, hemiplegia, cranial nerve dysfunction, N/V, Red macular rash

102
Q

Brudzinski’s sign

A

Severe neck stiffness causes a patient’s hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed.

103
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

A positive test is the elicitation of pain or resistance with passive extension of the patient’s knees past 135 degrees in the setting of meningeal irritation.

104
Q

Lab assessment of meningitis

A

CSF analysis (lumbar puncture), CT scan, blood cultures, counterimmunoelectrophoresis – presence of viruses or protozoa, polymerase chain reaction, CBC, serum electrolyte levels, x-rays to determine presence of infection

105
Q

The most important nursing interventions for patients with meningitis are:

A

Accurate monitoring of and documenting their neurologic status.

106
Q

Bacterial meningitis

A

Patients are placed on DROPLET PRECAUTIONS. Standard Precautions with good hand hygiene is essential. When possible, private room. Patients leaving room wear mask. Teach visitors about need for precautions and how to use them.

107
Q

Nursing care of meningitis

A

Prioritize care to maintain airway, breathing, circulation. Take vital signs and perform neurologic checks every 2 to 4 hours, as required. Perform cranial nerve assessment, with particular attention to cranial nerves III, IV, VI, VII, and VIII, and monitor for changes. Manage pain with drug and nondrug methods. Perform vascular assessment and monitor for changes. Give drugs and IV fluids as prescribed and document the patient’s response. Record intake and output carefully to maintain fluid balance and prevent fluid overload.

108
Q

Monitor for and prevent complications of meningitis:

A

increased intracranial pressure, vascular dysfunction, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, seizures, shock

109
Q

Additional nursing cares

A

Monitor body weight to identify fluid retention early. Monitor laboratory values closely; report abnormal findings to the physician or nurse practitioner promptly.
Position carefully to prevent pressure injuries.
Perform range-of-motion exercises every 4 hours as needed.
Decrease environmental stimuli: Provide a quiet environment, Minimize exposure to bright lights from windows and overhead lights, Maintain bedrest with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
Maintain Transmission-Based Precautions per hospital policy (for bacterial meningitis).

110
Q

Drug therapy for meningitis

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotic, hyperosmolar agents, anticonvulsants, steroids (controversial), prophylaxis treatment for those in close contact with meningitis-infected patient.

111
Q

Encephalitis

A

Inflammation of the brain tissue and often surrounding meninges

112
Q

Encephalitis etiology

A

A viral agent is most often the cause, although bacteria, fungi, or parasites may also be involved (e.g., malaria). The virus travels to the central nervous system (CNS) via the bloodstream, along peripheral or cranial nerves, or in the meninges.
Can be life threatening or lead to persistent neurologic problems such as learning disabilities, epilepsy, memory deficits, or fine motor deficits.

113
Q

Encephalitis s/s

A

The typical patient with encephalitis has a high fever and reports nausea, vomiting, and a stiff neck. Assess for other signs and symptoms, including possible:
Changes in mental status (e.g., agitation)
Motor dysfunction (e.g., dysphagia [difficulty swallowing])
Focal (specific) neurologic deficits
Photophobia (light sensitivity) and phonophobia (noise sensitivity)
Fatigue
Symptoms of increased ICP (e.g., decreased LOC)
Joint pain
Headache

114
Q

Critical rescue for pt with encephalitis

A

In severe cases the patient may have increased intracranial pressure resulting from cerebral edema, hemorrhage, and necrosis of brain tissue. If patient is nonverbal or comatose at baseline, monitoring VS and pupils becomes essential for detecting worsening of neuro status. Pupils that become increasingly dilated and less responsible to light, widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respiration are urgently reported. Left untreated ICP leads to herniation of the brain tissue and possibly death.

115
Q

Nursing interventions for pts with encephalitis

A

Teaching regarding mosquito or tick prevention
Administer medications
Nursing interventions similar to that of meningitis
Supportive nursing care, prompt recognition and treatment of ICP
Patient should turn, cough, deep breath q 2 hours
Assess VS and neuro checks every 2 hours or per provider order or hospital policy
Elevate head of bed 30-45 degrees unless contraindicated
Keep room darkened and reduce noise to decrease stimuli and possible agitation
Provide patient and family support
Rehab for anyone with permanent neuro deficits

116
Q

Encephalitis drug of choice

A

Acyclovir antiviral drug of choice – beginning early is best before patient becomes stuporous

117
Q

Spincal cord injuries (SCI)

A

Hyperflexion, hyperextension, axial loading or vertical compression (caused by jumping, for example), excessive head rotation beyond its range, penetration (caused by bullet or knife, for example)

118
Q

Secondary SCI can be caused by

A

Hemorrhage, schemia, hypovolemia, impaired tissue perfusion from neurogenic shock, local edema

119
Q

SCI assessment

A

History, airway, breathing pattern, circulation
GI/GU assessment, indications of intra-abdominal hemorrhage, or hemorrhage/bleeding around fracture sites, LOC, GCS, level of injury
Examples: quadriplegia, paraplegia

120
Q

SCI hx

A

Location and position of patient immediately after the injury
Symptoms occurring immediately after the injury
Changes since then
Type of immobilization devices used for transport
Treatment given at scene
Medical History
History of respiratory problems particularly if cervical injury

121
Q

Moving a patient in the hospital

A

Any movement MUST be coordinated . Move patient as a unit. NO LATERAL PUSHING. Move patient up and down to prevent lateral bending. LEAD RN or person at the head “CALLS” all moves. ALL MOVES MUST be slowly executed and well coordinated. TALK THE PLAN OUTLOUD BEFORE MOVIN. Consider the final positioning of the patient prior to move

122
Q

SCI assessment

A

A, B, Cs, VS PLUS pulse strength and capillary refill, GCS, monitor for a decrease in sensory perception from baseline or new loss of motor function or mobility, presence of these changes is considered an emergence and requires immediate communication with primary provider.

123
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia

A

Sometimes referred to as autonomic hyperreflexia.
Potentially life-threatening condition in which noxious visceral or cutaneous stimuli cause a sudden, massive, uninhibited reflex sympathetic discharge in people with high-level SCI.
Causes are typically GI, GU and vascular simulation.

124
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia risk factors

A

bladder distention, UTI, epididymitis, scrotal compression, bowel distention or impaction, pain, circumferential constriction of thorax, abdomen or extremity, temperature fluctuations

125
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia s/s

A

Sudden, significant rise in systolic and diastolic blood pressure, accompanied by bradycardia
Profuse sweating above the level of lesion—especially in the face, neck, and shoulders; rarely occurs below the level of the lesion because of sympathetic cholinergic activity
Goose bumps above or possibly below the level of the lesion
Flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion—especially in the face, neck, and shoulders
Blurred vision
Spots in the patient’s visual field
Nasal congestion
Onset of severe, throbbing headache
Flushing about the level of the lesion with pale skin below the level of the lesion
Feeling of apprehension

126
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia: Immediate Interventions

A

Place patient in a sitting position (first priority!), or return to a previous safe position.
Notify the primary health care provider or Rapid Response Team.
Assess for and treat the cause: Check for urinary retention or catheter blockage, Check the urinary catheter tubing (if present) for kinks or obstruction, If a urinary catheter is not present, check for bladder distention and catheterize immediately if indicated, Consider using anesthetic ointment on tip of catheter before catheter insertion to reduce urethral irritation.
Determine if a urinary tract infection or bladder calculi (stones) are contributing to genitourinary irritation.
Check the patient for fecal impaction or other colorectal irritation, using anesthetic ointment at rectum. Disimpact if needed.
Examine skin for new or worsening pressure injury symptoms.
Monitor blood pressures every 10 to 15 minutes.
Give nifedipine or nitrate as prescribed to lower blood pressure as needed.
(Patients with recurrent autonomic dysreflexia may receive an alpha blocker prophylactically.)

127
Q

The priority collaborative problems for patients with an acute spinal cord injury (SCI) include:

A

Potential for respiratory distress/failure
Potential for cardiovascular instability (e.g., shock and autonomic dysreflexia)
Potential for secondary spinal cord injury
Decreased mobility and sensation

128
Q

Prevent secondary SCI

A

Assessment
Spinal Immobilization and Stabilization
Halo Traction
Medications
Surgical interventions

129
Q

SCI teaching

A

Mobility skills
Pressure ulcer prevention
Bowel and bladder program
Sexuality

130
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI)

A

Blow or jolt to head. May be result of head penetration by foreign object, acceleration-deceleration injury, concussion
Direct injury: a force produced by a blow to the head
Indirect injury: a force applied to another body part with a rebound effect to the brain
The type of force and the mechanism of injury contribute to TBI.

131
Q

Concussion

A

Caused by a bump, blow, or jolt to the head or by a hit to the body that causes the head and brain to move rapidly back and forth. Can occur in sports even with a helmet on! Symptoms can show up immediately or take hours or days.

132
Q

Concussion Signs

A

Can’t recall eventsprior tooraftera hit or fall.
Appears dazed or stunned.
Forgets an instruction, is confused about an assignment or position, or is unsure of the game, score, or opponent.
Moves clumsily.
Answers questions slowly.
Loses consciousness(even briefly).
Shows mood, behavior, or personality changes.

133
Q

Concussion sx

A

Headache or “pressure” in head.
Nausea or vomiting.
Balance problems or dizziness, or double or blurry vision.
Bothered by light or noise.
Feeling sluggish, hazy, foggy, or groggy.
Confusion, or concentration or memory problems.
Just not “feeling right,” or “feeling down”.

134
Q

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

A

Progressive degenerative disease of the brain found in people with a history of repetitive brain trauma (often athletes), including symptomatic concussions as well as asymptomatic subconcussive hits to the head that do not cause symptoms.

135
Q

Primary brain injury

A

Results form the physical stress or force within the tissue caused by blunt or penetrating force
Open versus closed head injuries
Mild, moderate, severe classification
Fractures

136
Q

Secondary brain injury

A

Any processes that occur after the initial injury and worsen patient outcomes
Damage occurs because delivery of oxygen and glucose to the brain is interrupted
Examples: hypotension and hypoxia, Intracranial hypertension, cerebral edema, hemorrhage

137
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

(outside the dura mater of the brain), subdural hematoma (under the dura mater), and intracerebral hemorrhage (within the brain tissue).

138
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

Venous bleeding into space beneath dura and above arachnoid
Most commonly from tearing of bridging veins within cerebral hemispheres or from laceration of brain tissue
Bleeding occurs more slowly, symptoms mirror those of epidural hematoma

139
Q

TBI assessment

A

History of amnesia, first priority - ABCs, spine precautions, neuro assessment, pupillary changes- uneven, non-reactive or sluggish, dilated, assess ears and nose for CSF
Halo sign - a clear yellow ring surrounding spot of blood white absorbent paper, send to lab for analysis

140
Q

Drug therapy for TBI

A

Mannitol (cerebral edema)

141
Q

Monitoring for ICP

A

Decreased level of consciousness (LOC) (lethargy to coma)
Behavior changes: restlessness, irritability, and confusion
Headache
Nausea and vomiting (may be projectile)
Change in speech pattern/slurred speech: Aphasia
Change in sensorimotor status: Pupillary changes: dilated and nonreactive pupils (“blown pupils”) or constricted and nonreactive pupils, Cranial nerve dysfunction, Ataxia
Seizures (usually within first 24 hours after stroke)
Cushing’s triad: Classic but late sign:
Severe hypertension, Widened pulse pressure, Bradycardia
Abnormal posturing: Decerebrate, Decorticate

142
Q

Cushing’s triad: Classic but late sign of ICP:

A

Severe hypertension, Widened pulse pressure, Bradycardia

143
Q

TBI interventions

A

Severe TBI Admitted to ICU or Trauma Unit
Mild cases may be sent home with instructions for follow up or return to ED
Position TBI patient to avoid extreme flexion or extension of neck and maintain head in the midline neutral position
HOB 30 degrees to prevent aspiration. Avoid sudden changes. Monitor for decreasing BP if HOB at 30 degrees
VS every 1-2 ours
Neuro checks
IV fluids
Meds to prevent severe hyper or hypotension
Therapeutic hypothermia may be ordered – cool pt. to core of 89/6 to 93.2 F to reduce brain metabolism and prevent cascade of events that contribute to secondary injury
Pain medication – morphine or fentanyl to decrease agitation or reduce restlessness