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Med Micro LFS262 > Week 7-Week 9 > Flashcards

Week 7-Week 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the throat

sore throat

A

Pharyngitis

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2
Q

Inflammation of the mucous membrane of larnyx.

Affects the ability to speak

A

Laryngitis

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3
Q

Inflammation of tonsils (normally with the same bacteria that cause laryngitis)

A

Tonsillitis

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4
Q

When nasal sinuses become infected (heavy nasal discharge of mucous)

A

Sinusitis

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5
Q

Inflammation of epiglot - (a flap-like structure that prevents ingested materials entering the larynx)

A

Epiglottitis

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6
Q

Erythrogenic (reddening) toxin of S.pyogenes causes what disease?

A

Scarlet fever

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7
Q

The only reservoir for scarlet fever is _________

A

human

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8
Q

What antibiotics would you use to treat Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

penicillin or erythromycin in conjunction with

antitoxin.

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9
Q

Bacteroides, Fusubacteria and spirochetes (depth of

gingival cervices, tonsillar crypts) are examples of Aerobic or anaerobic organisms?

A

Anaerobic organisms

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10
Q

Streptococci spp. (adhere to buccal and tongue mucosa; S. mutans adhere to teeth). Neisseria meningitidis, Branhamella catarrhalis are examples to what type of organisms?

A

Facultative organisms

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11
Q

There are >300 types of microorganisms on and around teeth.

T-F

A

T

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12
Q

There is almost no bacteria on clean teeth. A thin film of ______ from saliva initiates adherence.

A

protein

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13
Q

On teeth fructose is broken down into , ______ _____ that breaks enamel if not diluted
by ________.

A

lactic acid, saliva

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14
Q

On teeth acid formed by ________ attacks enamel.

A

bacteria

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15
Q

Digestion of a preformed bacterial toxin is called.

A

Intoxication

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16
Q

GI Infection and Intoxication both cause what symptoms?

A

diarrhoea, abdominal cramp, nausea, and vomiting.

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17
Q

Disease of the digestive system that causes severe diarrhoea associated with blood and mucous

A

Dysentery

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18
Q

Disease of the digestive system that causes Inflammation of the stomach and mucosa.

A

Gastroenteritis

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19
Q

Shigellosis (Bacillary Dysentery) in the lining of the intestinal tract enters via the _______ _______

A

Epithelial cell

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20
Q

Shigella Produce what two types of shiga-toxin

A

(ST-1 and 2),
also known as
verotoxin (VT1 and 2)

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21
Q

What are the 3 serotypes of salmonella gastroenteritis

A

S. typhi (typhoid fever), S. cholerasuis,

S. enteritis (>2000 serotypes or serovars)

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22
Q

In salmonella ID50 =

A

1000 bacteria

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23
Q

Typhoid fever is caused by what bacteria

A

Salmonella (s.typhi)

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24
Q

Vibrios are what shape and how many polar flagellum do they have each?

A

curved, one

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25
Q

Vibrios has what route into the body?

A

Faecal-oral route

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26
Q

Inaba, Ogawa and Hikojima are serotypes of what bacterium?

A

Vibrios

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27
Q

Enterotoxigenic E.coli have what 2 types of toxins

A

Heat-labile toxin (LT), Heat-stable toxin (ST)

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28
Q

Enterohaemorrahgic E.coli outbreaks are associated with ____________

A

undercooked hamburger meat

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29
Q

Enteroinvasive E.coli is an invasive bacteria, with the same pathogenic mechanism as _________

A

Shigella

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30
Q

Infection of this results in ulceration of the stomach wall and may lead to stomach cancer

A

Helicobacter pylori

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31
Q

Enteroaggregative E.coli adheres to _________

A

enterocytes

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32
Q

Microaerophylic, spirally curved bacteria, Healthy carrier cow may excrete in milk

A

Campylobacter

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33
Q

This bacteria is non-mobile, non-spore forming bacteria. Invasive, also producing enterotoxin, and exotoxin. Transmitted in meat and milk

A

Yersinia

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34
Q

This bacteria is difficult to isolate from faecal samples
✓ Acute mesenteric lymphadenitis, Septicaemia
✓ Produces beta-lactamase (resistant to penicillins and
cephalosporins)

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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35
Q 
Causes food-poisoning
due to consumption of meat
contaminated with animals intestinal
contents during slaughter.
✓ Produces exotoxin that causes
abdominal pain and diarrhoea. (also
causing gangrene)
A

Clostridium perfringenes

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36
Q

This bacteria produces two exotoxins A and B. Toxin A is an enterotoxin. It also causes pseudomembrane colitis (antibiotic associated colitis)

A

Clostridium difficile

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37
Q

A large Gram-positive, endospore forming a bacterium
✓ Normal habitat is soil
✓ In foods, spores resist killing and the bacterium geminates to produce toxin
✓ Causes diarrhoea which last for 6-18 h and is self limiting
✓ Outbreaks associated with contaminated rice

A

Bacillus cereus

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38
Q

Facultatively anaerobic, Gram-positive, coccus shape, which appears as grape-like clusters when viewed through a microscope, and has round, usually golden-yellow colonies, often with hemolysis, when grown on blood agar plates

A

Staphyloccocus Aureus

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39
Q 
A patient has some destruction of the enamel covering the teeth. This is probably caused by
the activity of
a. B. subtilis.
b. H. pylori.
c. S. aureus.
d. S. mutans.
A

d. S. mutans.

produce dextran (sucrose to fructose to glucose) parotids are part of the salivary glands which is part of the digestive system

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40
Q

Mumps is caused by a

a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.

A

d. virus.

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41
Q 
Which of the following diseases of gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory
route?
a. Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease
b. Mumps
c. Vibrio gastroenteritis
d. Traveller’s diarrhoea
A

b. Mumps

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42
Q 
Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the
placenta?
a. Mumps
b. Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease
c. Infectious hepatitis
d. Typhoid fever
A

b. Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease

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43
Q

Select the incorrect characteristic about the Shigella species.

a. They are Gram-negative.
b. They belong to the Enterobacteriaceae.
c. They cause bacillary dysentery.
d. They have a coccus shape.

A

d. They have a coccus shape.

Shigella is rod shaped

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44
Q

An intestinal inflammation, primarily of the colon. It can lead to mild or severe stomach cramps and severe diarrhea with mucus or blood in the feces. Without adequate hydration, it can be fatal. Infection with the Shigella bacillus, or bacterium, is the most common cause.

A

Dysentery

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45
Q

A person suffers from dysentery. Isolation of one bacterium from this person’s small intestine
reveals a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium. This bacterium is probably a species of
a. Bacillus.
b. Clostridium.
c. Shigella.
d. Streptococcus.

A

c. Shigella.

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46
Q

A person with a normal body weight of 150 pounds suffers from dehydration by bacterial
infection. The minimal loss of _____________ pounds through dehydration will probably be
fatal to this person.
a. 6
b. 8
c. 12
d. 24

A

c. 12

Equates to 8%. Everyone else goes by 10% but for this course they go by 8%.

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47
Q

Select the characteristic that is NOT a symptom of typhoid fever.

a. Fatigue develops.
b. High fever is produced.
c. Patients develop an increased appetite.
d. Patients develop rose spots.

A

c. Patients develop an increased appetite.

- patients would have a decrease in appetite.

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48
Q

Salmonellosis is

a. food poisoning.
b. Schistosomiasis.
c. spotted fever.
d. typhoid fever.

A

a. food poisoning.

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49
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ strains of E. coli are the primary cause of traveler's diarrhea.
TYPE: Comprehension
a. Enterohemorrhagic
b. Enteroinvasive
c. Enteropathogenic
d. Enterotoxigenic
A

d. Enterotoxigenic

Search the textbook for examples of all of the options

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50
Q

Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT

a. Trichinosis
b. Beef tapeworm
c. Staphylococcal food poisoning
d. Salmonellosis

A

c. Staphylococcal food poisoning

reheating will get rid of the bacteria but not the toxin.

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51
Q

An antibiotic that might be recommended to treat traveler’s diarrhea is

a. ampicillin.
b. ciprofloxacin.
c. erythromycin.
d. tetracycline.

A

b. ciprofloxacin.

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52
Q

A species of Vibrio causes

a. cholera.
b. food poisoning.
c. typhoid fever.
d. spotted fever

A

a. cholera.

Vibrios Parahaemolyticus

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53
Q

The fluids used for ORT usually contain

a. calcium and chloride.
b. chloride and iodide.
c. glucose and calcium.
d. glucose and sodium

A

d. glucose and sodium

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54
Q

Vibrio parahaemolyticus causes

a. blood septicemia.
b. dental caries.
c. mild diarrhea.
d. stomach ulcers

A

c. mild diarrhea.

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55
Q

Select the INCORRECT characteristic about Yersinia enterocolitica.

a. It grows best at room temperature.
b. It is Gram-positive.
c. It is usually found in animals.
d. It produces an enterotoxin.

A

b. It is Gram-positive.

Yersinia enterocolitica is gram negative

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56
Q

Select the INCORRECT characteristic about Campylobacter species.

a. They are Gram-negative.
b. They are cultivated in microaerophilic conditions.
c. They can be human pathogens.
d. They have coccal-shaped cells.

A

d. They have coccal-shaped cells.

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57
Q

Stomach ulcers are caused by a species of

a. Bacillus.
b. Escherichia.
c. Helicobacter.
d. Staphylococcus

A

c. Helicobacter.

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58
Q

Select the INCORRECT characteristic about S. aureus.

a. It causes food poisoning.
b. It does not retain Gentian violet when decolorized.
c. It forms grapelike clusters of spherical cells.
d. It produces a heat-stabile enterotoxin.

A

b. It does not retain Gentian violet when decolorized.

another name is crystal violet

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59
Q

Select the INCORRECT characteristic about Clostridium perfringens.

a. It can metabolize in the absence of oxygen.
b. It causes foodborne intoxication.
c. It does not retain Gentian violet when decolorized.
d. It is resistant to harsh conditions.

A

c. It does not retain Gentian violet when decolorized.

another name is crystal violet

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60
Q

The rotavirus causing gastroenteritis mainly damages

a. intestinal epithelial cells.
b. smooth muscle tissue.
c. valves of the intestinal tract.
d. white blood cells.

A

a. intestinal epithelial cells.

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61
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is a

a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.

A

c. protozoan.

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62
Q

Select the INCORRECT characteristic about Ascaris lumbricoides.

a. It has a simple life cycle.
b. It is a roundworm parasite.
c. It is common in regions with poor sanitation.
d. It sheds eggs in human feces.

A

a. It has a simple life cycle.

as ascaris lumbricoides is a worm it has a very complex life cycle

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63
Q

In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by

a. Ingesting the eggs of Taenia saginata
b. Ingesting segments of adult tapeworms
c. Ingesting contaminated water
d. Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host

A

d. Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host

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64
Q

Most cases of post-transfusion hepatitis are caused by

a. Heptatis A virus
b. Heptatis B virus
c. Heptatis C virus
d. Heptatis D virus

A

c. Heptatis C virus

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65
Q

Select the INCORRECT characteristic about the hepatitis A virus.

a. It contains single-stranded RNA.
b. It has an envelope.
c. It multiplies in the liver.
d. It is a small virus.

A

b. It has an envelope.

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66
Q

Enteropathogenic strains of E. coli cause diarrhea in newborn infants
T-F

A

T

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67
Q

A researcher is studying ways to control a bacterial population of Vibrio cholerae. One
possible biological control is to eradicate the local population of mosquitoes.
T-F

A

F

Vibrio cholerae is found in food and water

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68
Q

The hepatitis B virus is a DNA-containing virus

T-F

A

T

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69
Q

Hepatitis E is usually benign and self-limited.

T-F

A

T

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70
Q

Otis media in the infection of the

a. external ear.
b. external nose.
c. middle ear.
d. internal nose.

A

c. middle ear.

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71
Q

A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by all of the following EXCEPT

a. Hemolytic reaction
b. Bacitracin inhibition
c. Symptoms
d. Serological test

A

c. Symptoms

As symptoms are general it cannot be confirmed on symptoms alone

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72
Q

Each is a symptom of strep throat EXCEPT

a. a whitish exudate covering the tonsils.
b. fever.
c. headaches.
d. shrunken lymph nodes.

A

d. shrunken lymph nodes.

lymph nodes would be enlarged

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73
Q

The term “erythrogenic” means

a. red-destroying.
b. red-producing.
c. white-destroying.
d. white-producing

A

b. red-producing.

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74
Q

About _____________ pneumococcal serotypes have been isolated.

a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80

A

d. 80

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75
Q

Which of the following diseases is not correctly matched to a virulence factor?

a. Diphtheria –exotoxin
b. Scarlet fever – exotoxin
c. Pneumococcal pneumonia – exotoxin
d. Whooping cough – endotoxin

A

c. Pneumococcal pneumonia – exotoxin

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76
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae develops in the trachea of a young child. The best antibiotic for
treatment is

a. cephalosporin.
b. erythromycin.
c. penicillin.
d. tetracycline.

A

b. erythromycin.

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77
Q

Pertussis is

a. pneumonia.
b. scarlet fever.
c. whooping cough.
d. yellow fever.

A

c. whooping cough.

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78
Q

The leading killer of humans among infectious diseases is

a. AIDS.
b. tuberculosis.
c. whooping cough.
d. yellow fever.

A

b. tuberculosis.

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79
Q

BCG is a(n)

a. antibiotic against Gram-negative bacteria.
b. antibiotic against Gram-positive bacteria.
c. vaccine for tuberculosis.
d. vaccine for whooping cough

A

c. vaccine for tuberculosis.

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80
Q

M. bovis usually enters the human body through the _____________ system.

a. circulatory
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Respiratory
d. Urinary

A

b. Gastrointestinal

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81
Q

A person can have a positive tuberculin test because

a. She has been vaccinated
b. She has had tuberculosis
c. She is immune to tuberculosis
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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82
Q

Which of the following causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the
gastrointestinal route?

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenza.
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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83
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?

a. Whooping cough – heat killed bacteria
b. Diphtheria - toxoid
c. Tuberculosis – toxoid
d. Influenza – viruses grown in embryonated egg

A

c. Tuberculosis – toxoid

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84
Q

Mycoplasma produces small “ fried –egg” colonies on medium containing horse serum-yeast
extract.
T-F

A

T

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85
Q

The skin cannot be infected by C. diphtheriae.

T – F

A

F
C.diphtheria has a cutaneous form (Cutaneous diphtheria), especially in individuals over 30
years of age.

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86
Q

A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive
tuberculin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has
Tuberculosis.
T - F

A

F

The patient most likely has pneumococcal pneumoniae

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87
Q

A bacterium is tested for identification in the laboratory. Its colonies on a nutrient agar
surface are flooded with a dilute solution of hydrogen peroxide. Bubbles are formed on the
surface immediately. This shows that the bacterium could be Streptococcus pneumoniae.
T - F

A

F

The bacterium produces the enzyme catalase , so it must be a staphylococci

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88
Q

Pneumococcal sepsis is a life-threatening disease. T-F

A

T

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89
Q

A patient who present with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having styreptococcal
pharyngitis.
T – F

A

F

There is no sufficient information for this diagnosis

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90
Q

_____________ is the most accessible system in the body and is therefore a major portal of entry for pathogens.

A

The respiratory system

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91
Q

Pathogens use this system to exit and spread infection from one person to another

A

The respiratory system

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5
Perfectly
92
Q

Infection of the __________ is associated with a sore throat whereas infection of __________ is associated with losing voice and the ability to speak

A

pharynx (Throat), Larynx (vocal cord or voice box)

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93
Q

________ _________ is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and is associated with high fever, tonsillitis and infection of middle ear (otitis media)

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

94
Q

S. pyogenes strains produce ___________ toxin that causes Scarlet fever also known as red strawberry tongue

A

erythrogenic

95
Q

______ _________ is the causative agent of diphtheria can also cause skin infection known as cutaneous diphtheria

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae,

96
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, adheres to epithelium of the throat and produces a potent toxin that damages the ______ and _______

A

heart and kidney

97
Q

Diphtheria toxoid is part of the ______ vaccine

A

DPT

98
Q

Influenza (flu)is caused by an RNA virus that is covered with which two antigenic segments;

A

H spikes = haemagglutinin and N spikes=neuraminidase

99
Q

Emergence of new influenza flu is due to the antigenic shifts in either N or H spikes or both
T-F

A

T

100
Q

What are the three stages of the pertussis disease:

A

catarrhal stage, paroxysmal stage and convalescence

101
Q

Acellular vaccine against pertussis is available made of ______ ________ and toxoid.

A

fimbrial haemagglutinin

102
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is stained with ____ _____staining and can only grow on ________ agar

A

acid fast, Loweinstein

103
Q

Detection of people susceptible to tuberculosis is done using ______ _______ _______ identified by hardening and induration . The test is called Tuberculin test OR Mantoux test.

A

purified protein derivative (PPD)

104
Q

BCG (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin) is the only vaccine for TB made of long cultivation of _________ ________

A

Mycobacterium bovis

105
Q

Typical pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae whereas atypical pneumonia is caused by other bacteria.
T-F

A

T

e.g. Hemophilus influenza, Mycoplasma pneumoniae

106
Q

________ pneumonia does not have cell wall and produces very small fried-egg colonies

A

Mycoplasma

107
Q

L. pneumoniae causing Legionnaire’s disease is mainly transmitted by _______ _______

A

water aerosols

108
Q

_________, is caused by Coxiella brunetti a rickettsia was identified in 1930 in Australia

A

Q-fever

109
Q

Commonly found in SE Asia and N. Australia and is

caused by Burhkolderia pseudommallei

A

Melioidosis

110
Q

The most common fungal diseases of lower respiratory system are __________ caused by Histoplasma capsulatum and Coccidioidomycosis

A

Histoplasmosis

111
Q

Are corynebacteria gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

gram positive

112
Q

Rotavirus 90% of the cases cultivates in the _______

A

GI Tract

113
Q

Mumps target which gland?

A

parotid (salivary)

114
Q

The mumps virus can be transmitted via

A

Saliva and respiratory secretions

115
Q

What is the portal of entry for Mumps?

A

Respiratory tract

116
Q

List 3 complications of mumps.

A

meningitis, inflammation of ovaries, and

pancreatitis

117
Q

Cytomegalovirus is part of what virus group

A

Herpes virus

118
Q

Can Cytomegalovirus infection persist for life?

A

Yes, Antibody is formed but fails to clear virus.

119
Q

A Causes nuclear inclusion and enlarged cell with viral inclusion body known as Owl’s eye

A

Cytomegalovirus

120
Q

Inflammation of the liver, caused by single/double

stranded RNA or DNA viruses

A

Viral Hepatitis

121
Q

How do we test for hep A-C

A

Serological test to detect surface antigen

not the virus

122
Q

Which Hepatitis viruses are single stranded RNA

A

Hep A,D,E

123
Q

Caused by mycotoxin of Asperguilus flavus
✓ Found in peanuts and other foods
✓ May causes cirrhosis of liver in human

A

Aflatoxin poisoning

124
Q

Caused by mycotoxin of Asperguilus flavus
✓ Found in peanuts and other foods
✓ May causes cirrhosis of liver in human

A

Aflatoxin poisoning

fungal disease of the GI tract

125
Q

Caused by mycotoxin of Claviceps purpeura (a fungus causing
smut infection on grain crops)
✓ Ingestion of rye or cereal grains contaminated with the fungus.
✓ Hallucinogenic symptoms

A

Ergot poisoning (ergotism

fungal disease of the GI trac

126
Q

A nematode that is acquired by eating encysted larvae in poorly cooked pork

A

Trichinella spiralis

127
Q

What bacteria causes traveler’s diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

128
Q

How many different pathotypes of E. coli can cause diarrhea

A

There are 6

129
Q

GI tract includes: mouth/teeth, pharynx (throat) stomach, small and large intestine and accessory structures; tongue, salivary glands, liver and pancreas.
T-F

A

T

130
Q

What is the causative agent of dental caries (tooth decay) ?

A

Streptococcus mutans

131
Q

Tooth decay occurs when s.mutans break down sucrose to _________ and _______.

A

fructose and glucose

132
Q

In tooth decay - fructose is converted to ______ ______, that breaks enamel.

A

lactic acid

133
Q

Salmonella infection (salmonellosis) is a common bacterial disease that affects the _________ ________.

A

Gastrointestinal tract (GI Tract)

134
Q

Salmonella bacteria typically live in animal and human intestines and are shed through _________.

A

feces

135
Q

Which type of Vibrio causes a life threatening diarrhea (rice water diarrhoea) by producing a heat-labile (LT) toxin

A

Vibrio cholerae

136
Q

Another name for pertussis is whooping cough. This

symptom is caused by the pathogens’ attack on which cells?

A

Ciliated cells in the trachea,
First impeding their ciliary action and then progressively destroying the cells. This prevents the ciliary escalator system from moving mucus. B. pertussis produces several toxins.

137
Q

What is the name of the toxin produced by Bordetella pertussis that causes the loss of cilia?

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

138
Q

Mycobacterium bovis is a pathogen mainly of cattle. M. bovis is the cause of bovine ___________.

A

tuberculosis

139
Q

Bovine tuberculosis is transmitted to humans via contaminated _______ or _________

A

milk or food
Note: It seldom spreads from human to human, but before the days of pasteurized milk and the development of control methods such as tuberculin testing of cattle herds, this disease was a frequent form of tuberculosis in humans.

140
Q

What characteristic of mycobacterium suggests use of the prefix myco-?

A

On the surface of liquid media, their growth

appears moldlike, which suggested the genus name Mycobacterium (myco means fungus).

141
Q

When a bacterium is classified as acid-fast what does this mean?

A

The bacterium cannot be decolorized with acid-alcohol

142
Q

Mycobacteria has a high resistance to environmental stresses, such as drying. In fact, these bacteria can survive for weeks in dried sputum and are very resistant to chemical antimicrobials used as antiseptics and disinfectants.
T-F

A

T

143
Q

Almost a third of Earth’s population is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. T-F

A

T

144
Q

A blockage in the ureter prevents the normal transport of urine from the

A

kidney to the bladder.

145
Q

The most common microbe causing urinary tract infections is

A

E. coli.

146
Q 
Select the bacterium NOT known to cause UTIs.
TYPE: Knowledge
a. Bacillus
b. Escherichia
c. Klebsiella
d. Pseudomonas
A

a. Bacillus

147
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Leptospira interrogans.

a. It can be treated with penicillin.
b. It enters humans through mucous membranes.
c. It is a member of the spirochete family.
d. Its presence is easy to diagnose.

A

d. Its presence is easy to diagnose.

148
Q

A diagnostic test is designed to detect gonorrhea in a male. The simplest way to detect
gonorrhea from this person’s urine is if it
a. grows on Thayer-Martin medium with antibiotics.
b. grows on Thayer-Martin medium without antibiotics.
c. has Gram-negative diplococci.
d. has Gram-positive diplococci.

A

c. has Gram-negative diplococci.

149
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

a. It is a diplococcus.
b. It is a highly adapted pathogen.
c. It is easily cultured on a simple medium.
d. It is easily killed by sunlight.

A

c. It is easily cultured on a simple medium.

150
Q 
About \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of men contract gonorrhea after a single exposure.
TYPE: Knowledge
a. 5
b. 20
c. 50
d. 75
A

20-35%

151
Q

The discovery of _____________ was a major step toward the control of gonorrhea.

a. erythromycin
b. penicillin
c. streptomycin
d. tetracycline

A

b. penicillin

152
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Treponema pallidum.

a. It forms chains of bacilli.
b. It is a bacterium.
c. It is difficult to culture.
d. It infects only human beings.

A

a. It forms chains of bacilli.

153
Q

Select the disease that has been called the great pox.

a. anthrax
b. gonorrhea
c. smallpox
d. Syphilis

A

d. Syphilis

154
Q

Secondary syphilis usually appears _____________ weeks after the appearance of the chancre.

a. 1 to 20
b. 2 to 4
c. 6 to 8
d. 10 to 12

A

c. 6 to 8

155
Q

Chancroid is caused by a member of the genus

a. Escherichia.
b. Haemophilus.
c. Mycobacterium.
d. Staphylococcus.

A

b. Haemophilus.

156
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Herpes simplex virus.

a. It degrades the DNA of the host cells.
b. It has a latent phase.
c. It has an active phase.
d. It is not a DNA virus.

A

d. It is not a DNA virus.

157
Q

The herpes simplex virus directly affects human cells that

a. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
b. contract to produce movement.
c. send messages through the body.
d. wander through the body by phagocytosis.

A

c. send messages through the body.

158
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Gardnerella vaginalis.

a. It is not decolorized in the Gram stain steps.
b. It discharges amines.
c. It is nonmotile.
d. Its incidence is high in women with vaginitis.

A

c. It is nonmotile.

159
Q 
Candida albicans is a
TYPE: Knowledge
a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus
A

b. fungus

160
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Candida albicans.

a. It can be a harmless inhabitant of the vagina.
b. It causes inflammation of the vagina.
c. It is treated with antifungal medications.
d. It resembles yeasts.

A

a. It can be a harmless inhabitant of the vagina.

161
Q

Trichomonas is a

a. ciliated bacterium.
b. ciliated protozoan.
c. flagellated bacterium.
d. flagellated protozoan.

A

d. flagellated protozoan.

162
Q

L. monocytogenes is a(n)

a. Non-opportunistic commensal.
b. Non-opportunistic pathogen.
c. opportunistic commensal.
d. opportunistic pathogen.

A

d. opportunistic pathogen.

Listeria apparently - this is not covered in the material at all and bizarre to say the least

163
Q

An enlarged prostate gland blocks the passage of urine from the bladder through the urethra.
T - F

A

T

164
Q

L. interrogans can be treated early with tetracycline.

T – F

A

T

165
Q

In the lab, a gonococcus is found to have an outer membrane protein, Protein II. It can bind to epithelial cells in clumps. This species belongs to Escherichia but does not belong to Neisseria.
T – F

A

F

166
Q

N. gonorrhea infects only humans.

T – F

A

T

167
Q

Trepanoma pertenue causes syphilis.

T – F

A

F - Trepanema pallidum does

168
Q

A chlamydia infection causes an _____________ pregnancy, meaning that the fetus does not
develop in its normal location.

A

ectopic

169
Q

HSV affects epithelial cells and neurons.

T – F

A

T

170
Q

Genital herpes can be cured.

T – F

A

F

171
Q

A population of lactobacilli in the female reproductive tract tends to change the pH from 6 to 3 in this structure.
T – F

A

F - it would make it more alkaline

172
Q

Male urethritis is caused by a species of Neisseria.

T – F

A

T

173
Q

Chancroid is fairly common in _____________ countries.

A

tropical

174
Q

Select the substances that cannot pass through the blood brain barrier.

a. amino acids
b. antibiotics
c. carbon dioxide molecules
d. glucose molecules

A

b. antibiotics

175
Q

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the

a. brain.
b. heart.
c. kidney.
d. skeletal muscles.

A

a. brain.

176
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Neisseria meningitidis.

a. It is a disease-causing microorganism.
b. It is decolorized in the Gram-staining procedure.
c. It is grown in lab on a minimal medium.
d. Its only natural reservoir is the human body

A

c. It is grown in lab on a minimal medium.

177
Q

The meningococcus is transmitted from person to person by

a. blood transfusion.
b. contaminated food.
c. respiratory droplets.
d. urinary tract infections.

A

c. respiratory droplets.

178
Q

The antibiotic of choice to treat systemic meningococcal infections is

a. erythromycin.
b. penicillin G.
c. rifampin.
d. tetracycline

A

b. penicillin G.

179
Q 
The growth of a culture of Clostridium tetani can be inhibited significantly by placing it in an
environment
a. of 25 degrees Celsius.
b. of 37 degrees Celsius.
c. with oxygen.
d. without oxygen.
A

c. with oxygen.

180
Q

Tetanospasmin produced by Clostridium tetani is a(n)

a. antibiotic.
b. antibody.
c. antigen.
d. toxin.

A

d. toxin.

181
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Clostridium botulinum.

a. It forms endospores.
b. It is aerobic.
c. It is motile.
d. It is rod-shaped.

A

b. It is aerobic.

182
Q

The final phase of rabies is the _____________ phase.

a. excitation
b. inhibition
c. paralytic
d. prodromal

A

c. paralytic

183
Q

The Pasteur treatment for rabies involves injections into the _____________ wall.

a. abdominal
b. pericardial
c. pleural
d. urinary

A

a. abdominal

184
Q 
To eradicate the arbovirus from an environment, a biological control strategy should target a
population of
a. arachnids.
b. fish.
c. insects.
d. Reptiles.
A

c. insects.

185
Q

Each of the following is caused by a viral pathogen except

a. Mad cow disease
b. chickenpox.
c. measles.
d. rubella.

A

a. Mad cow disease

186
Q

N. meningitidis is non-spore forming diplococci.

T-F

A

T

187
Q

Vaccine against capsular antigen of Streptococcus pneumoniae is not available

A

F

188
Q

Bacteria usually enter the central nervous system from the bloodstream.

A

T

189
Q

Neisseria meningitides is the only cause of bacterial meningitis
T-F

A

F
70% caused by 3 bacteria; Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria
meningitidis

190
Q

A researcher attempts to inhibit the growth of a population of Clostridium tetani through a pH
change in the environment. This can be accomplished by changing the pH to from 7.5 to 5.5.
T_F

A

T

191
Q

A researcher attempts to inhibit the growth of a population of Clostridium tetani through a pH
change in the environment. This can be accomplished by changing the pH to from 7.5 to 5.5.
T-F

A

T

192
Q

The average time for the symptoms of rabies to appear after the infecting animal bite is two
months
T-F

A

T

193
Q

Infection by poliovirus is initiated by ingesting virus

T-F

A

T

194
Q

Mycobacterium leprae is also known as Hansen bacterium and the leprosy is also known as Hansen disease.
T-F

A

T

195
Q

Both botulism and tetanus are caused by species of the genus _____________.

A

Clostridium

196
Q

The earliest symptoms of rabies are in the _____________ phase.

A

prodromal

197
Q

Salk vaccine against polio was made of inactivated virus with _____________

A

formaldehyde

198
Q

Acute bacterial endocarditis is

a. slow in developing and progresses rapidly.
b. slow in developing and progresses slowly.
c. sudden in developing and progresses rapidly.
d. sudden in developing and progresses slowly.

A

c. sudden in developing and progresses rapidly.

199
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Trypanosoma cruzi.

a. It has a complicated life cycle.
b. It is a ciliated microorganism.
c. It is a protozoan.
d. It is transmitted to humans by an insect bite.

A

b. It is a ciliated microorganism.

200
Q

Septicemia is a bacterial invasion that is

a. persistent and not serious.
b. persistent and serious.
c. short-lived and not serious.
d. short-lived and serious.

A

b. persistent and serious.

201
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Yersinia pestis.

a. It is a virulent pathogen.
b. It is a coccobacillus.
c. It is Gram-positive.
d. It is transmitted between human hosts by flea bites

A

c. It is Gram-positive.

202
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Francisella tularensis.

a. It frequently infects human beings.
b. It is a coccobacillus.
c. It is Gram-negative.
d. Its disease occurs worldwide among wild mammals

A

a. It frequently infects human beings.

203
Q

Occuloglandular disease begins in the

a. brain.
b. eye.
c. heart.
d. lymph nodes.

A

b. eye.

204
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Brucella species.

a. Their species are distinguished by surface antigens.
b. They are coccobacilli.
c. They infect different kinds of mammals.
d. They retain Gentian violet after the Gram counterstain.

A

d. They retain Gentian violet after the Gram counterstain.

205
Q

Lyme disease is caused by a species of

a. Bacillus.
b. Borrelia.
c. Brucella.
d. Mycobacterium.

A

b. Borrelia.

206
Q

Anthrax is caused by a species of

a. Bacillus.
b. Borrelia.
c. Brucella.
d. Pseudomonas.

A

a. Bacillus.

207
Q

The most common form of anthrax is

a. circulatory.
b. cutaneous.
c. gastrointestinal.
d. respiratory.

A

b. cutaneous.

208
Q

Another name for murine typhus is _____________ typhus.

a. airborne
b. arthropod
c. circulatory
d. Flea-borne

A

d. Flea-borne

209
Q

Yellow fever is caused by a

a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.

A

d. virus.

210
Q

. Select the INCORRECT statement about dengue fever.

a. It appears frequently in temperate climates.
b. It is transmitted by a mosquito.
c. It resembles yellow fever in many ways.
d. It is caused by closely related viruses.

A

a. It appears frequently in temperate climates.

211
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about infectious mononucleosis.

a. It is caused by EBV.
b. It often occurs in humans from 15 to 25 years old.
c. Its symptoms appear about one year after infection.
d. Its virus produces latent and active infections.

A

c. Its symptoms appear about one year after infection.

212
Q

Select the earliest stage in the infection by the AIDS virus.

a. fusion of dendritic cells to CD4 lymphocytes
b. killing of virus-producing cells by CD8 T cells
c. outbreak of a skin rash
d. spreading of the virus to the brain

A

a. fusion of dendritic cells to CD4 lymphocytes

213
Q

Select the genus of bacterium that is NOT among the most threatening to AIDS patients.

a. Cryptococcus
b. Histoplasma
c. Pneumocystis
d. Pseudomonas

A

d. Pseudomonas

214
Q

Select the choice that is not a main mode of AIDS transmission.

a. contaminated food
b. infected blood
c. mother to infant
d. sexual contact

A

a. contaminated food

215
Q

Merozoites invade

a. muscle cells.
b. nerve cells.
c. red blood cells.
d. white blood cells.

A

c. red blood cells.

216
Q

Toxoplasmosis occurs in each of the following EXCEPT

a. birds.
b. fish.
c. mammals.
d. reptiles.

A

b. fish.

217
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about schistosomiasis.
TYPE: Comprehension
a. It is caused by a helminth.
b. It is prevalent in Asia.
c. Its treatment is relatively inexpensive.
d. Schistosomes have complex life cycles

A

c. Its treatment is relatively inexpensive.

218
Q

The systemic circulation is between the heart and the lungs.

T - F

A

F

That is the pulmonary circuit

219
Q

Most cases of endocarditis are caused by bacteria.

T - F

A

T

220
Q

An embolus is a clot that becomes dislodged and travels through the circulation.
T - F

A

T

221
Q

Chagas’ disease is an acute, chronic illness in humans.

T - F

A

T

222
Q

Significant fluid buildup from pericarditis can interfere with the efficient pumping action of the heart.
T - F

A

T

223
Q

Brucella species can be cultivated in lab under concentrations of diminished carbon dioxide.
T - F

A

F

224
Q

A large population suffering from yellow fever is studied. Among this group of 1000, probably 500 suffer the symptoms of the disease.
T - F

A

F
55% asymptomatic
33% mild
12% severe

225
Q

Yellow fever is also called break-bone fever.

T - F

A

F

226
Q

The most common means of HIV infections is sexual transmission.
T - F

A

T

227
Q

Wild _____________ are the animals that must be eliminated from human housing to prevent the
outbreak of the bubonic from an area.

A

Moha says rodents but I think he means rats as it’s caused by bites from rat fleas

228
Q

_____________ are the mammals that must be eliminated from an area to eradicate Lyme disease.

A

Deer

229
Q

Variation in the _____________ molecules of Borrelia species explains the pattern of appearance and
disappearance of Lyme disease.

A

Antigens

230
Q

Bartonella henselae is pleomorphic, meaning that it can change its _____________.

A

Shape

231
Q

Removing _____________ through insecticides will prevent the development of epidemic typhus.

A

lice

232
Q

Through a viral infection, a person complains of fatigue. Possible anemia can be diagnosed by
measuring the concentration of _____________ in the body.

A

Moha says red blood cells but I think he more means hemoglobin.

Med Micro LFS262 (3 decks)

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