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Med Micro LFS262 > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

Opportunists are microorganisms that

a. always cause disease.
b. cause disease when the proper condition arises.
c. constantly produce beneficial effects in the host.
d. never cause disease.

A

b. cause disease when the proper condition arises.

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2
Q

A species of bacterium lives on the surface of the human skin. It does not help or
harm the human host. However, it gains a habitat. This symbiotic relationship is

a. commensalism.
b. mutualism.
c. parasitism.
d. predation.

A

a. commensalism.

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3
Q

By microbial antagonism, one microbe

a. changes the effect on another microbe.
b. has no effect on another microbe.
c. helps the growth of another microbe.
d. interferes with the growth of another microbe.

A

d. interferes with the growth of another microbe.

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4
Q

Adhesins help bacteria to

a. destroy antibiotics.
b. produce acids.
c. stick to surfaces.
d. transport substances

A

c. stick to surfaces.

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5
Q

In clinical medicine the term “parasite” refers to each of the following except

a. bacterium.
b. insect.
c. protozoan.
d. worm.

A

a. bacterium.

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6
Q

Through opportunism among microbes,

a. commensals change to mutualistic species.
b. commensals change to pathogens.
c. mutualistic species change to commensals.
d. parasites change to commensals

A

b. commensals change to pathogens.

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7
Q

Select the disease that has not occurred as an epidemic.

a. cholera
b. diphtheria
c. polio
d. Tetanus

A

d. Tetanus

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8
Q

Koch’s postulates don’t apply to all diseases because

a. Some microorganisms don’t cause the same disease in laboratory animals.
b. Some microorganisms can’t be observed.
c. Some microorganisms can’t be cultured in laboratory media.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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9
Q

The major significance of Koch’s work was that:

a. Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
b. Microorganisms are the result of disease.
c. Microorganisms can be cultured.
d. Microorganisms cause disease.

A

d. Microorganisms cause disease.

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10
Q

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

a. Pathogen: A microorganism that disrupts the state of individual’s health
b. Virulence: The intensity of the disease produced by a pathogen
c. Infection: Multiplication of any parasitic organism within or on the host body
d. Pathogenicity: The way a pathogen produces disease

A

d. Pathogenicity: The way a pathogen produces disease

- it’s the cause of the disease

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11
Q

Which of the following is a reservoir of infection?

a. A hospital
b. A healthy person
c. A sick animal
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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12
Q

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

a. are changes felt by the patient
b. are changes observed by the physician
c. are specific for a particular disease
d. always occur as part of a syndrome

A

a. are changes felt by the patient

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13
Q

Transient flora tend to persist as populations in the human body. T - F

A

F

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14
Q

Candida albicans can become an opportunist in the human body during antibiotic therapy.
T - F

A

T

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15
Q

Tetanus is a communicable disease. T – F

A

F - communicable diseases are spread from person to person

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16
Q

The microorganisms that colonize different parts of the body and establish permanent
residence are called microbiota T - F

A

T

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17
Q

The term _____________ generally refers to organisms living together.

A

symbiosis

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18
Q

Lack of pili on E. coli cells prevents these cells from _____________ to cell surfaces

A

adhering

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19
Q

Describe the phenomenon of microbial antagonism (also known as competitive exclusion) - Mohammad’s confusing explanation ??? Basically it’s: The inhibition of one bacterial organism by another. Through microbial antagonism, the normal bacterial flora of the body provides some defense against disease-causing organisms.

A

Microbial antagonism involves competition among microbes. One consequence of such competition is the normal microbiota protect the host against colonization from potentially pathogenic microbes by competing for nutrients, producing substances
harmful to the invading microbes, and affecting the condition’s such as pH And available
oxygen.

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20
Q

Once the microbe overcomes the host defenses, development of the disease follows a
specific sequence that is similar in almost all cases. List these sequences.

A

a) Incubation period
b) Prodromal period
c) Period of illness
d) Period of decline
e) Period of convalescence

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21
Q

The cause of a disease is referred to as the ________of a disease

A

aetiology

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22
Q

The body contains normal microbiota made up of bacteria that are beneficial to the host. T-F

A

T

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23
Q

What are the 3 types of relationships between bacteria and their host.

A
  1. commensalism
  2. mutualism
  3. parasitism
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24
Q

Koch’s postulates are an important way of evaluating the _______ of a disease

A

aetiology

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25
Q

Contagious diseases are __________ on contact with an infected individual.

A

communicable

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26
Q

What are 3 Methods for control of communicable and contagious diseases?

A

isolation, quarantine, and vector control

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27
Q

Disease can be acute, _______ or _________

A

chronic or subacute

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28
Q

_______ disease remains in the host after signs and symptoms have disappeared but can be reactivated after long periods

A

Latent

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29
Q

Herd immunity can limit the spread of infection. T-F

A

T

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30
Q

Infection can be localised or _______

A

systemic

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31
Q

Infection can be classified in what 3 classes?

A
  1. primary (with acute initial symptoms)
  2. subclinical (without symptoms)
  3. secondary (occurring after a primary infection).
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32
Q

Define - Transient organisms

A

May be present for days, weeks and even months and then disappear

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33
Q

Define - Resident organisms

A

Microbes that establish a permanent /long- lasting residence in or on the body

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34
Q

Define Commensal organisms

A

Microorganism that have established relationships with their host in a way that they benefit from the host but have neither a benefit to the host nor harm their host.

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35
Q

Define Acute Disease

A

A disease that develops rapidly but lasts for a short time, e.g. Influenza

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36
Q

Chronic Disease

A

A disease that develops slowly, but it lasts for a long time, e.g. tuberculosis, hepatitis B

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37
Q

Name 5 factors that are important in understanding a disease cycle

A

What pathogen caused the disease?
What was the source and/or reservoir of the pathogen?
How was the pathogen transmitted?
Why was the host susceptible to the pathogen?
How did the pathogen leave the host?

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38
Q

Name three essential factors that are requirements of an epidemic

A
  1. Presence or introduction of an infectious agent (Infected source: human, animal, water, food
    etc. )
  2. An adequate number of susceptible individuals
  3. An effective means of transmission
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39
Q

The following are steps for investigation of an epidemic. Put them in the order required.

a. Surveillance and data collection
b. Developing a hypothesis of the source and route of infection
c. Identifying the nature of the epidemic
d. Recognition of an epidemic
e. Controlling further spread of the infection
f. Identify the causative agent and characterizing it

A

a. Surveillance and data collection (3)
b. Developing a hypothesis of the source and route of infection (5)
c. Identifying the nature of the epidemic (4)
d. Recognition of an epidemic (1)
e. Controlling further spread of the infection (6)
f. Identify the causative agent and characterizing it (2)

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40
Q

A commensal bacterium (Analysis)

A) is beneficial to its host.
B) does not receive any benefit from its host.
C) may be an opportunistic pathogen.
D) does not infect its host.
E) b and d only.
A

C) may be an opportunistic pathogen.

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41
Q

Which of the following statements is true? (Analysis)
A) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
B) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
C) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
E) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host

A

D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.

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42
Q

Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is:

A) Direct contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Vector
D) Vehicle transmission
E) Fomite
A

B) Droplet transmission

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43
Q

Koch’s postulates don’t apply to all diseases because

A) Some microorganisms don’t cause the same disease in laboratory animals.
B) Some microorganisms can’t be observed.
C) Some microorganisms can’t be cultured in laboratory media.
D) Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions.
E) Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms.

A

E) Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms.

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44
Q

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal
microbiota. This can result in: (Analysis)

A) Body odour.
B) Normal microbiota returning immediately.
C) No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
D) Increased susceptibility to disease.
E) Fewer diseases.

A

D) Increased susceptibility to disease.

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45
Q 
Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of: (Analysis)
A) Vehicle transmission
B) Vector transmission
C) Fomite transmission
D) Transmission by direct contact
 E) Droplet transmission
A

B) Vector transmission

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46
Q 
Hemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an
example of: 
A) Commensalism.
B) Antagonism.
C) Synergism.
D) Parasitism.
E) None of the above.
A

C) Synergism.

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47
Q

A pathogen must have a reservoir in order to

A) Attach to a substrate
B) gain a food source
C) overcome the action of antibiotics
D) survive outside the human host

A

D) survive outside the human host

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48
Q

The reservoir for Clostridium tetani is the

A) atmosphere
B) human blood
C) ocean
D) soil

A

D) soil

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49
Q

Each of the following is a fomite except

A) bedding
B) Blood
C) cups
D) towels.

A

B) Blood

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50
Q

More human diseases are transmitted by the _____________ system than through any other
system

A) Circulatory
B) Reproductive
C) Respiratory
D) Urinary

A

C) Respiratory

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51
Q

Which branch of epidemiology investigates disease outbreaks?

A) Descriptive
B) Field
C) Hospital
D) Surveillance

A

B) Field

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52
Q

The prevalence of a disease can best be described as:
(Knowledge)
A) the total number of people infected within a population
B) the number of people affected by a disease (cases per 100,000 people/year.)
C) number of new cases in a population (cases per 100,000 people/year.)
D) number of infected people divided by healthy people

A

A) the total number of people infected within a population

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53
Q 
If 50 people in 100,000 develop a disease, the incidence rate as a percentage is
(analysis)
A) 0.5
B) 0.05
C) 0.005
D) 0.0005
A

B) 0.05

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54
Q

Which branch of epidemiology seeks to provide general information about a disease?

A) Descriptive
B) Field
C) Hospital
D) Surveillance

A

A) Descriptive

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55
Q

In a common source epidemic, all infected people

A) are immunocompromised
B) are adults
C) share a common gathering
D) share a similar immune system.

A

C) share a common gathering

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56
Q

Nosocomial infections are

A) acquired at work
B) hereditary
C) hospital-acquired
D) nasal infections

A

C) hospital-acquired

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57
Q

_________of a disease refers to new cases of disease in a population , whereas _____________ refers to the number of existing cases of disease in a population

A

incidence, prevalence

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58
Q

Sources of infections in hospitals include endogenous (patients) and hospital environment (exogenous sources)

A

find out what endogenous and exogenous means

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59
Q

What are the three major types of epidemiological investigations?

A

descriptive, analytical and experimental epidemiology

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60
Q

The most frequent portal of entry for pathogens is the

a. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
b. Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
c. Skin
d. Parenteral route

A

a. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

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61
Q

Most pathogens that gain access through skin

a. can penetrate intact skin
b. Just infect the skin itself
c. Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts
d. Must adhere first while invasive factors allow them to penetrate

A

c. Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts

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62
Q

the LD50 is a

a. Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population
b. Dose that will kill some of the test population
c. Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population
d. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population

A

d. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population

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63
Q

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally NOT true?

a. They are more potent than endotoxins
b. They are composed of proteins
c. They are not destroyed by heat
d. They have specific methods of action

A

c. They are not destroyed by heat

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64
Q

Endotoxins are

a. Associated with Gram-positive bacteria
b. Specific in the method of action
c. Part of the Gram-negative cell wall
d. Excreted from the cell

A

c. Part of the Gram-negative cell wall

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65
Q

All of the following may be used for adherence EXCEPT

a. Fimbriae
b. Cell membrane mannose
c. Glycoproteins
d. Lipoproteins

A

b. Cell membrane mannose

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66
Q

Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?

a. Number of microorganisms that gain access to a host
b. Cell wall
c. Toxins
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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67
Q

Septic shock attributed to Gram-negative bacteria, is actually due to

a. Complement
b. Antibodies
c. Tumor necrosis factor
d. Exotoxin

A

c. Tumor necrosis factor

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68
Q

The oral cavity and urinary tract of the human body are portals of entry for microbiota.
T – F

A

T

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69
Q

The presence of a capsule around a bacterial cell makes the microbe more vulnerable to
phagocytosis.
T - F

A

F

Capsule protects bacteria from phagocytosis

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70
Q

A cell wall can increase a bacterium’s virulence because cell wall lipid A, helps the bacterium
attach.

A

F

Lipid A is a toxic part of the LPS

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71
Q

All Gram-negative bacteria contain endotoxin

T-F

A

T

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72
Q

Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the outer member of Gram-negative
bacteria.

A

T

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73
Q

Mucous membranes tend to line the inside free surfaces of cavities that are sealed off from the
environment outside the human body

A

F

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74
Q

A successful pathogen must maintain a _____________ in the environment to live before and
after infection.

A

reservoir

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75
Q

In the urinary tract, a successful pathogen must _____________ to the surface of a host

A

adhere

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76
Q

A successful pathogen must invade the body of a host and evade the host’s _____________.

A

immune system/defenses

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77
Q

A successful human pathogen must exit from the body and return to its _____________.

A

reservoir

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78
Q

What common characteristics do the soil and human body tissues have to promote the multiplication of Clostridium tetani?

A

Both provide warm, moist environments

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79
Q

Bacterial properties involved in adhesion, colonization and invasion of the host are called _______properties OR _______ factors

A

virulence, virulence
e.g. ability to
acquire iron, antiphagocytic capsules, antigenic variation etc.

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80
Q

Bacteria damage of the host by Invading, multiplying and destroying cells and producing what two types of toxins?

A

Endotoxin and Exotoxin

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81
Q

Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and is only produced by Gram_______ bacteria (cell wall)

A

negative

The lipid portion of the LPS, called Lipid A, is the endotoxin

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82
Q

Exotoxins are protein molecules that can be secreted by both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
T-F

A

T

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83
Q

LPS of Gram-negative bacteria (Endotoxin) cause a ________ response by inducing macrophage to produce IL1 that induces hypothalamus to produce ___________

A

pyrogenic, prostaglandins

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84
Q

Endotoxins also induce production of TNF leading to ___________

A

septic shock

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85
Q

What are the three types of exotoxins:

A

➢ A-B toxins (e.g. Cholera toxin, LT)
➢ Membrane disrupting toxin (e.g. toxin of C.perfringens, alpha toxin of S.aureus)
➢ Superantigens: provoke immune system (e.g. Toxic SST-1)

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86
Q

To avoid the host defence mechanisms, viruses grow inside host cells. Host cells produces ___________ to kill viruses.

A

interferons

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87
Q

Pathogenic properties of protozoa differ widey

T-F

A

T

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88
Q

Trypanosoma attack nervous system to cause ________ _________

A

African trypanosomiasis

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89
Q

Malaria transmits by a vector and enters the blood affecting ______

A

RBC.

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90
Q

Some algae produce _______toxins e.g. saxitoxin produced by dino flagellates.

A

neuro

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91
Q

The aetiology of disease refers to:

a) The results seen after a disease occur
b) The cause of the disease
c) The portal of exit of the pathogen
d) Enhanced disease due to normal microflora

A

b) The cause of the disease

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92
Q

Microbial antagonism refers to:

a) An increase in bacterial metabolism
b) A decrease in bacterial metabolism
c) An increase in infection symptoms
d) Protection be normal bacterial flora

A

d) Protection be normal bacterial flora

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93
Q

The relationship in which one partner benefits at the expense of the other is called:

a) Parasitism
b) Mutualism
c) Commensalism
d) None of the above

A

a) Parasitism

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94
Q

Koch’s postulates were the first to show the:

a) Portal of entry of pathogens into the body
b) Portal of exit for pathogens leaving the body
c) Aetiology of bacterial infection
d) Existence of exotoxin in bacteria

A

c) Aetiology of bacterial infection

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95
Q

The first mild symptoms of diseases are seen in the

a) Illness period
b) Decline period
c) Prodromal period
d) Incubation period

A

c) Prodromal period

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96
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of contact transmission mechanism?

a) Droplet
b) Nosocomial
c) Indirect
d) Direct

A

b) Nosocomial

97
Q

Patients can become compromised in their ability to ward off infection because of

a) Age
b) Race
c) Gender
d) None of the above

A

a) Age

98
Q

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

a) Chronic = a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months
b) Inapparent = infection characteristic of a carrier state
c) Acute = a short-lasting primary infection
d) Secondary infection = a long-lasting illness

A

d) Secondary infection = a long-lasting illness

99
Q

Nosocomial infections are most caused by

a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

a) Escherichia coli

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of nosocomial wound infections. I have an issue with this question.

100
Q

All of the following can contribute to postoperative infections EXCEPT

a) Normal microflora of the patient
b) Errors in aseptic technique
c) Normal microflora of the operating room staff
d) There is no exception, all of the above contribute to post-operative infection

A

d) There is no exception, all of the above contribute to post-operative infection

101
Q

Endotoxins are:

a) part of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
b) part of the Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
c) specific in their method of action
d) excreted from the cell

A

a) part of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall

102
Q

All of the following may be used for adherence of bacteria, EXCEPT

a) Fimbriae
b) Cell membrane
c) Capsules
d) Cell wall

A

b) Cell membrane

103
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to the virulence of a pathogen?

a) Number of microorganisms that gain access to a host.
b) Toxins
c) Cell wall
d) All of the above contribute to the virulence of a pathogen

A

d) All of the above contribute to the virulence of a pathogen

104
Q

In response to endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes:

a) A decrease in blood pressure
b) A fever
c) The disease to subside
d) None of the above

A

a) A decrease in blood pressure

105
Q

Which of the following is a method of avoiding phagocytosis?

a) Producing fimbriae
b) Inducing phagocytosis
c) Producing toxins
d) Inducing tumor necrosis factor

A

b) Inducing phagocytosis

106
Q

Which of the following bacteria produces a membrane disrupting toxin?

a) Vibrio cholerae
b) lostridium perfringens
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) All of the above bacteria produce membrane disrupting toxin

A

b) lostridium perfringens

107
Q

An outbreak of rubella occurred in a child nursery that housed 100 children. 20 kids got rubella and 4 of those died. The case fatality rate for the disease is:

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 25%

A

c) 20%

4/20 x 100

108
Q

Non-specific resistance is

a. The body’s ability to ward off diseases
b. The body’s defences against any kind of pathogen
c. The body’s defence against a particular pathogen
d. The lack of resistance

A

b. The body’s defences against any kind of pathogen

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanical factor to protect the skin and mucous
membranes from infection?

a. Layers of cells
b. Tears
c. Saliva
d. Lysozyme

A

d. Lysozyme

110
Q

The function of the “ciliary escalator “is to

a. Kill microorganisms
b. Remove microorganisms from body cavities
c. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract
d. Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract

A

c. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract

111
Q

Which of the following is an effect of opsonisation?

a. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
b. Increased margination of phagocytes
c. Inflammation
d. None of the above

A

a. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms

112
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of histamine?

a. Vasodilation
b. Fever.
c. Swelling.
d. Redness

A

b. Fever.

113
Q

Which of the following statement is true?

a. There are at least twenty complement proteins.
b. All of the complement proteins are activated
c. Factors B and D are complement proteins
d. Complement activity is antigen specific.

A

a. There are at least twenty complement proteins.

114
Q

The first step of inflammatory repair is

a. activating complement proteins.
b. cleaning up the inflamed area.
c. phagocytosis.
d. production of antibodies.

A

b. cleaning up the inflamed area.

115
Q

Interferons are

a. bacteria-nonspecific.
b. bacteria-specific.
c. virus-nonspecific.
d. virus-specific

A

c. virus-nonspecific.

116
Q

The molecules of the complement pathway are proteins. T - F

A

T

117
Q

The last step of the alternative pathway for complement is spontaneous hydrolysis.
T - F

A

F

118
Q

Molecules of C3 are split into C3b only if microbes are not invading the human body.
T - F

A

F

119
Q

C3 convertase rapidly forms molecules of C3a. T - F

A

F

120
Q

Neutrophils have a long lifespan. T – F

A

F

121
Q

Phagocytes have cell-surface receptors on their outer surface. T – F

A

T

122
Q

A human is infected by a parasitic worm. Measurement of the eosinophil concentration during the infection reveals a rising concentration of this white blood cell type. T - F

A

T

123
Q

Macrophages develop from differentiated monocytes. T - F

A

T

124
Q

Cytokines are released from macrophages. T - F

A

T

125
Q

What is a membrane-bound vacuole within a phagocyte called?

A

phagosome

126
Q

Inflammatory mediators are not released by mast cells. T - F

A

F

127
Q

What are the two types of immune response that protect the host?

A

the innate immune response and the adaptive immune response

128
Q

What immune response is a nonspecific response that responds immediately to any type of infection

A

Innate

129
Q

The first line of defence in the innate immune response, consists of ________and _______ barriers

A

mechanical, chemical

130
Q

List 3 mechanical barriers

A

skin, mucous membranes, the lacrimal

apparatus and saliva

131
Q

List 3 Chemical Barriers

A

sebum, perspiration, gastric juice, urine and transferrins

132
Q

The second line of defense in the innate immune response incorporates ________ and _________mechanisms that actively defend the body

A

cellular, chemical

133
Q

Cells that are involved in defending the body can identify molecules associated with _________

A

antigens

134
Q

The cellular components of the second line of defence are __________

A

white blood cells

135
Q

List 3 things that occur during the process of inflammatory response includes

A

vasodilatation and increased permeability of blood vessels then white blood cells move from the blood to the infected tissues

136
Q

Cytokines and chemokines are chemical mediators that are produced at the onset of and throughout the course of the response to an infection. T-F

A

T

137
Q

What are the three types of cells that have important roles in the innate immune response

A

mast cells, dendritic cells and natural killer cells

138
Q

Phagocytosis is the cellular response in which microorganisms , damaged host cells, and cellular debris are removed from the body. T-F

A

T

139
Q

The release of chemicals by cells involved in infection

that attract phagocytic cells to an infected area is referred to as what?

A

Chemotaxis

140
Q

Inflammation is a physiological response to body trauma. It involves vasodilation, resulting in redness, pain, heat, and swelling. T-F

A

T

141
Q

The complement system is part of the _______ immune response

A

innate

142
Q

The complement system destroys bacteria by ________ via ______ _______ _______

A

cytolysis via membrane attack complex (MAC).

143
Q

The complement system helps opsonisation of bacteria (for phagocytosis) and inflammation (via release of histamine) T-F

A

T

144
Q

List the 3 ways the complement system can be activated in three ways.

A

the classical, alternative or lectin-binding pathways

145
Q

Interferon is a protein produced by ________ cells that can protect _________ cells from infection with that virus

A

virus–infected, neighboring

146
Q

Antimicrobial drugs

a. are made through chemical synthesis only.
b. occur naturally only.
c. are made through chemical synthesis and occur naturally.
d. do not occur naturally and are not made synthetically.

A

c. are made through chemical synthesis and occur naturally.

147
Q

Narrow-spectrum, antibacterial drugs

a. affect many microbial groups.
b. affect only one microbial group.
c. work over a long period of time.
d. work over a short period of time.

A

b. affect only one microbial group.

148
Q

The origin of drug-resistant changes in bacteria occurs in their

a. cell membranes.
b. genetic makeup.
c. location in the body.
d. size and morphology.

A

b. genetic makeup.

149
Q
  1. Penicillin administration is successful at treating

a. bacterial infections only.
b. viral infections only.
c. bacterial and viral infections.
d. neither bacterial nor viral infections.

A

a. bacterial infections only.

150
Q

Four different antibiotics are compared for effectiveness against a bacterium by the KirbyBauer method. The antibiotic producing a halo of _____________ mm thickness around its
disc on agar surface is most effective.

a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16

A

d. 16

151
Q

A number of different drug concentrations are compared for effectiveness against a bacterium
by the broth-dilution method. Four different concentrations are found to stop growth. Which
Minimal Bactericidal Concentration indicates the most effective concentration?

a. 2 units
b. 4 units
c. 6 units
d. 8 units

A

a. 2 units

152
Q

The penicillins

a. cause genetic amplification.
b. cause genetic mutations.
c. inhibit cell wall synthesis.
d. inhibit cell membrane synthesis.

A

c. inhibit cell wall synthesis.

153
Q

Streptomycin binds to the

a. 30S subunits of 70S ribosomes.
b. 50S subunits of 70S ribosomes.
c. 50S subunits of 80S ribosomes.
d. 60S subunits of 80S ribosomes.

A

a. 30S subunits of 70S ribosomes.

154
Q

Select the correct statement about rifampin.

a. It is a component of the bacterial cell wall.
b. It is an antibiotic.
c. It selectively inhibits bacterial DNA polymerase.
d. It selectively inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase.

A

b. It is an antibiotic.

155
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about the penicillins.

a. All are naturally-occurring.
b. They share the same basic structure.
c. Their molecules differ with respect to their R group.
d. They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.

A

a. All are naturally-occurring.

156
Q

Today the sulfonamides are used most often to treat infections of the _____________ tract.

a. digestive
b. reproductive
c. respiratory
d. urinary

A

d. urinary

157
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about the aminoglycosides.

a. Amino sugar molecules are part of their structure.
b. They are not well absorbed when taken orally.
c. They are not effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
d. They do not penetrate the central nervous system.

A

c. They are not effective against Gram-negative bacteria.

158
Q

Select the INCORRECT statements about the tetracyclines.

a. They are effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
b. They are well absorbed orally.
c. They are widely distributed across the body.
d. They interfere with DNA synthesis.

A

d. They interfere with DNA synthesis.

159
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about the quinolones.

a. They are effective against Gram-positive bacteria.
b. They are narrow-spectrum agents.
c. They are synthetic antimicrobial agents.
d. They were derived from nalidixic acid.

A

b. They are narrow-spectrum agents.

160
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about isoniazid.

a. It is a synthetic drug.
b. It is activated by a mycobacterial enzyme.
c. It is inactivated by the kidney.
d. It is well absorbed orally.

A

c. It is inactivated by the kidney.

161
Q

A drug is any chemical that has a physiological effect on living things. T - F

A

T

162
Q

Antibiotics cause the genetic exchange in bacteria that leads to drug resistance. T - F

A

F

163
Q

Combined therapy means administering two different drugs at the same time. T - F

A

T

164
Q

The broth dilution method is more complicated and expensive than the disc-dilution method. T - F

A

T

165
Q

A bacterium that loses its cell wall tends to lyse.

T - F

A

T

166
Q

Cephalosporins are less resistant to beta-lactamases than the penicillins. T - F

A

F

167
Q

Nystatin is an antifungal drug. T - F

A

T

168
Q

Acyclovir is not effective against DNA viruses of the herpes family. T - F

A

F

169
Q

Penicillin was discovered accidentally by Alexander Fleming in 1928. T-F

A

T

170
Q

There has been no major discoveries of natural antibiotics over the past few decades. T-F

A

T

171
Q

What are 2 of the most important groups of microorganisms that produce antibiotics?

A

Actinomycetes and Fungi

172
Q

Antibiotics have different spectra of activity, i.e. Narrow activity and Broad spectrum. T-F

A

T

173
Q

Bacteria gain resistance by ________ and acquiring ________with resistance genes

A

mutation, plasmids

174
Q

Penicillin is composed of a core ring structure known as the?

A

Beta - lactam ring

175
Q

Some bacteria produce an enzyme called _______, which breaks the beta-lactam ring of penicillin, making it inactive.

A

beta-lactamase

176
Q

Antibiotics must have _______ ________ so they react against the invading organism but not against the host.

A

selective toxicity

177
Q

List the 5 target sites for antibiotics;

A

1) the bacterial cell wall, 2) the bacterial plasma membrane, 3) protein synthesis, 4) metabolic inhibition, and 5) nucleic acid replication.

178
Q

There are very selective anti-mycobacterium tuberculosis drugs such as isoniazid, ________ and ethambutol.

A

rifampin

179
Q

Fungi are ________ and there are also few selective anti-fungal drugs. i.e. Nystatin, Griseofulvin and amphotericin.

A

eukaryotes

Grissly full van , My station or nissan in a tin, lamp hot er than sin

180
Q

Anti-parasitic drugs include ____________(used for most protozoans) and ___________(used for treatment of intestinal worm infections)

A

metronizadole, mebedazole

city is a banana. me bed a stole

181
Q

Lysozyme is an enzyme that

a. destroys Gram-negative bacteria.
b. destroys Gram-positive bacteria.
c. inhibits skin regeneration.
d. stimulates skin regeneration.

A

b. destroys Gram-positive bacteria.

182
Q

Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses cell wall synthesis as a mode of action.

A

penicillin

183
Q

Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses protein synthesis inhibition as a mode of action.

A

erythromycin

184
Q

Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses metabolic synthesis inhibition as a mode of action.

A

sulfanilamide

sole flannel my dear

185
Q

Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses plasma membrane injury as a mode of action.

A

Polymyxin B

186
Q

Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses nucleic acid replication and transcription inhibition as a mode of action.

A

Quinolones

Quinn all alones

187
Q

Keratitis is inflammation of the

a. cornea.
b. dermis.
c. epidermis.
d. sclera.

A

a. cornea.

188
Q

Which of the following is not normal microbiota of the skin?

a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Propionibacterium
d. Ccorynebacterium

A

a. Streptococcus

189
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus?

a. Gram positive
b. Coagulase positive
c. Catalase positive
d. Gram-negative

A

d. Gram-negative

190
Q

Erysipelas affects

a. the dermis only.
b. the epidermis only.
c. the dermis and epidermis.
d. neither the epidermis nor dermis.

A

c. the dermis and epidermis.

191
Q

Select the incorrect statement about Streptococcus pyrogenes.

a. It is protected from phagocytosis.
b. Its M protein can be neutralized by an antibody.
c. Its streptokinase kills leukocytes.
d. There are more than 80 different serotypes.

A

c. Its streptokinase kills leukocytes.

192
Q

A bacterium is studied in lab for identification. It does not decolorize by the second step of the
Gram staining procedure. Its cells are not rod-shaped. They do appear in clusters under the
microscope. Among the following choices the bacterium is

a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyrogenes

A

c. Staphylococcus aureus

193
Q

Alpha and delta toxins

a. build bacterial cell walls.
b. damage cell membranes.
c. inactivate kinases.
d. promote protein synthesis.

A

b. damage cell membranes.

194
Q

A bacterium is studied in lab for identification. Its cells have a blue-green pigment. Its cells also
contain pili and have an extracellular slime layer. This bacterium is

a. Clostridium botulinum.
b. Escherichia coli.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
d. Staphylococcus aureus.

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

195
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by

a. Clostridium botulinum.
b. Clostridium perfringens.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

A

b. Clostridium perfringens.

clostrophobic perfurmed Jen’s

196
Q

A person first develops an infection in the nasopharynx. This can lead to an infection caused by
Pseudomonas called

a. neuralgia.
b. osteomyelitis.
c. otitis externa.
d. pericarditis.

A

c. otitis externa.

197
Q

Acne is caused by an inflammatory response to a

a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.

A

a. bacterium.

198
Q

Leprosy is caused by a species of the genus

a. Bacillus.
b. Clostridium.
c. Mycobacterium.
d. Pseudomonas.

A

c. Mycobacterium.

Michael’s bacteria

199
Q

Select the incorrect characteristic about indeterminate leprosy.

a. It develops two to six months after infection.
b. Its symptoms include skin lesions.
c. Skin biopsies reveal the presence of nerve damage.
d. Untreated cases progress to tuberculoid leprosy.

A

a. It develops two to six months after infection.

200
Q

Chicken pox is caused by a

a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.

A

d. virus.

201
Q

The pattern of shingles corresponds to the outline of the dermatomes of the body. A dermatome
is region of the skin supplied as a single sensory nerve. A dermatome probably appears as a
_____________ on the skin.

a. blister
b. lack of pigmentation
c. mole
d. segmental area

A

d. segmental area

202
Q

The most common clinical syndrome of primary HSV-1 (oral herpes) infection is

a. gingivostomatitis.
b. keratitis.
c. neuralgia.
d. septicemia.

A

a. gingivostomatitis.

203
Q

Herpetic whitlow is an infection of the

a. brain.
b. heart.
c. kidney
d. skin.

A

d. skin.
herpetic whitlow is a lesion (whitlow) on a finger or thumb
Herb picked because his wit was low. He scratched at his thumb instead of listening in class

204
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about the measles virus.

a. It belongs to the paramyxovirus family.
b. It can cause red blood cells to clump together.
c. It has a coiled RNA nucleocapsid.
d. It survives outside the body for long periods.

A

d. It survives outside the body for long periods.

205
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about variola.

a. It belongs to the poxvirus family.
b. It is an RNA virus.
c. It is closely related to vaccinia.
d. It is the smallpox virus

A

b. It is an RNA virus.

206
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about HPV.

a. It causes skin elevations.
b. It has a known means of transmission.
c. It is an RNA virus.
d. It is a member of the papovavirus family.

A

c. It is an RNA virus.

HPV stands for human papillomavirus. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection which usually shows no symptoms and goes away by itself, but can sometimes cause serious illness. HPV is responsible for: almost all cases of genital warts and cervical cancer. 90% of anal cancers.

207
Q

The dermatophytes are a group of

a. algae.
b. bacteria.
c. fungi.
d. protozoans.

A

c. fungi.

208
Q

Candida albicans is a(n) 1 that can become a(n) 2 .

a. 1 - opportunist, 2 - mutualistic species
b. 1 - opportunist, 2 - pathogen
c. 1 - mutualistic species, 2 - pathogen
d. 1 - pathogen, 2 - opportunist

A

b. 1 - opportunist, 2 - pathogen

209
Q

Candida species normally colonize each of the following regions of the human body except the

a. blood.
b. gastrointestinal tract.
c. mucous membranes.
d. skin.

A

a. blood.

210
Q

Scabies is an infection of the

a. heart.
b. mucous membranes.
c. skin.
d. spinal nerves.

A

c. skin.

211
Q

Scabies infects the human body by the bite of a(n)

a. annelid.
b. arthropod.
c. crustacean.
d. flatworm.

A

b. arthropod

Arthur is a pea in a pod who only comes out to bite humans to cause scabies

212
Q

Select the genus not known to cause bacterial inflammation of the conjunctiva.

a. Escherichia
b. Haemophilus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus

A

a. Escherichia

213
Q

Neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia is caused by a species of

a. Bacillus
b. Clostridium
c. Neisseria
d. Treponema

A

c. Neisseria

neye cereal causes baby blindness from their mom with gonorrhea

214
Q

Herpetic keratitis is an ulceration of the

a. cornea.
b. dermis.
c. liver.
d. reproductive tract.

A

a. cornea.

215
Q

The dermis is a thicker, deeper layer of the skin compared to the epidermis. T - F

A

T

216
Q

A researcher in the lab is testing for the presence of S. aureus. Test results reveal that one bacterium cannot ferment mannitol and is decolorized by the second step of the Gram stain procedure. The researcher can conclude that the bacterium is not S. aureus. T - F

A

T

217
Q

A researcher in the lab is testing for the presence of C. perfringens. Test results reveal that one bacterium is a normal floral species of the human skin and is decolorized by the second step of the Gram stain procedure. The researcher can conclude that the bacterium is C. perfringens. T - F

A

F

218
Q

A scientist conducts research to find a cure for acne. One avenue for this cure is to study the
mechanisms of the endocrine system. T - F

A

T

219
Q

Acyclovir is used routinely to treat primary genital herpes. T - F

A

T

220
Q

Koplik spots appear on the surface of the skin as an initial indication of measles. T - F

A

T

221
Q

A person is suffering from warts. For relief, this person should use an antifungal medication. T - F

A

F - because genital warts is a virus

222
Q

Candida is an opportunistic pathogen. This means it is a microorganism that does not cause infection but can cause an infection if conditions change. T - F

A

T

223
Q

Any fungal infection of the body are called _________

A

Mycoses

224
Q

Skin is a barrier to pathogen and must be ________ for infection to occur

A

broken

225
Q

A wide variety of bacteria cause skin infection. Some bacteria directly attack skin and some produce __________ and the disease appears on the skin

A

toxin/enzymes

226
Q

Bacterial infection of the hair follicles causes a type of abscess (puss surrounded by inflammation of tissue), called ________

A

carbuncle

227
Q

Staphylococcus aureus produces ________whereas Streptococcus pyogenes produces _______

A

Beta-haemolysin, Beta- haemolysis

228
Q

Strains of S. aureus produces several toxins such as exfoliative toxin causing, _____________

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin -1 (TSST-1), enterotoxin etc.

229
Q

S. pyogenes strains produce erythrogenic toxin that causes ____________

A

Scarlet fever.

Scarlet Johanssen fever

230
Q

Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes cause lesion of ________

A

impetigo.

231
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes _____ _______ among swimmers

A

otitis externa

Swimmers ear

232
Q

_____________ acne utilises sebum and produces fatty acids that cause inflammatory response.

A

Propionibacterium

Pepperoni skin

233
Q

90% of genital warts (caused by papilloma virus) do not cause cancer T-F

A

T

234
Q

Smallpox (variola virus) is the first disease that was eradicated by artificially induced immunity T-F

A

T

235
Q

Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) cause infection of _______ mucosa where as HSV-2 cause _______infection with up to 70% fatality

A

oral, genital

236
Q

Measles is contagious before the sign and symptoms of the disease appear. T-F

A

T

237
Q

Most viral disease of skin spread via respiratory route and start with symptoms resemble common cold. T-F

A

T

238
Q

Murder of microbes directly is referred to as __________

A

Bactericidal

239
Q

Prevention of microbial growth is referred to as ___________

A

Bateriostatic

Med Micro LFS262 (3 decks)

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