Everything Flashcards
1
Q
Opportunists are microorganisms that
a. always cause disease.
b. cause disease when the proper condition arises.
c. constantly produce beneficial effects in the host.
d. never cause disease.
A
b. cause disease when the proper condition arises.
2
Q
A species of bacterium lives on the surface of the human skin. It does not help or
harm the human host. However, it gains a habitat. This symbiotic relationship is
a. commensalism.
b. mutualism.
c. parasitism.
d. predation.
A
a. commensalism.
3
Q
By microbial antagonism, one microbe
a. changes the effect on another microbe.
b. has no effect on another microbe.
c. helps the growth of another microbe.
d. interferes with the growth of another microbe.
A
d. interferes with the growth of another microbe.
4
Q
Adhesins help bacteria to
a. destroy antibiotics.
b. produce acids.
c. stick to surfaces.
d. transport substances
A
c. stick to surfaces.
5
Q
In clinical medicine the term “parasite” refers to each of the following except
a. bacterium.
b. insect.
c. protozoan.
d. worm.
A
a. bacterium.
6
Q
Through opportunism among microbes,
a. commensals change to mutualistic species.
b. commensals change to pathogens.
c. mutualistic species change to commensals.
d. parasites change to commensals
A
b. commensals change to pathogens.
7
Q
Select the disease that has not occurred as an epidemic.
a. cholera
b. diphtheria
c. polio
d. Tetanus
A
d. Tetanus
8
Q
Koch’s postulates don’t apply to all diseases because
a. Some microorganisms don’t cause the same disease in laboratory animals.
b. Some microorganisms can’t be observed.
c. Some microorganisms can’t be cultured in laboratory media.
d. All of the above
A
d. All of the above
9
Q
The major significance of Koch’s work was that:
a. Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
b. Microorganisms are the result of disease.
c. Microorganisms can be cultured.
d. Microorganisms cause disease.
A
d. Microorganisms cause disease.
10
Q
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
a. Pathogen: A microorganism that disrupts the state of individual’s health
b. Virulence: The intensity of the disease produced by a pathogen
c. Infection: Multiplication of any parasitic organism within or on the host body
d. Pathogenicity: The way a pathogen produces disease
A
d. Pathogenicity: The way a pathogen produces disease
- it’s the cause of the disease
11
Q
Which of the following is a reservoir of infection?
a. A hospital
b. A healthy person
c. A sick animal
d. All of the above
A
d. All of the above
12
Q
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
a. are changes felt by the patient
b. are changes observed by the physician
c. are specific for a particular disease
d. always occur as part of a syndrome
A
a. are changes felt by the patient
13
Q
Transient flora tend to persist as populations in the human body. T - F
A
F
14
Q
Candida albicans can become an opportunist in the human body during antibiotic therapy.
T - F
A
T
15
Q
Tetanus is a communicable disease. T – F
A
F - communicable diseases are spread from person to person
16
Q
The microorganisms that colonize different parts of the body and establish permanent
residence are called microbiota T - F
A
T
17
Q
The term _____________ generally refers to organisms living together.
A
symbiosis
18
Q
Lack of pili on E. coli cells prevents these cells from _____________ to cell surfaces
A
adhering
19
Q
Describe the phenomenon of microbial antagonism (also known as competitive exclusion) - Mohammad’s confusing explanation ??? Basically it’s: The inhibition of one bacterial organism by another. Through microbial antagonism, the normal bacterial flora of the body provides some defense against disease-causing organisms.
A
Microbial antagonism involves competition among microbes. One consequence of such competition is the normal microbiota protect the host against colonization from potentially pathogenic microbes by competing for nutrients, producing substances
harmful to the invading microbes, and affecting the condition’s such as pH And available
oxygen.
20
Q
Once the microbe overcomes the host defenses, development of the disease follows a
specific sequence that is similar in almost all cases. List these sequences.
A
a) Incubation period
b) Prodromal period
c) Period of illness
d) Period of decline
e) Period of convalescence
21
Q
The cause of a disease is referred to as the ________of a disease
A
aetiology
22
Q
The body contains normal microbiota made up of bacteria that are beneficial to the host. T-F
A
T
23
Q
What are the 3 types of relationships between bacteria and their host.
A
- commensalism
- mutualism
- parasitism
24
Q
Koch’s postulates are an important way of evaluating the _______ of a disease
A
aetiology
25
Contagious diseases are __________ on contact with an infected individual.
communicable
26
What are 3 Methods for control of communicable and contagious diseases?
isolation, quarantine, and vector control
27
Disease can be acute, _______ or _________
chronic or subacute
28
_______ disease remains in the host after signs and symptoms have disappeared but can be reactivated after long periods
Latent
29
Herd immunity can limit the spread of infection. T-F
T
30
Infection can be localised or _______
systemic
31
Infection can be classified in what 3 classes?
1. primary (with acute initial symptoms)
2. subclinical (without symptoms)
3. secondary (occurring after a primary infection).
32
Define - Transient organisms
May be present for days, weeks and even months and then disappear
33
Define - Resident organisms
Microbes that establish a permanent /long- lasting residence in or on the body
34
Define Commensal organisms
Microorganism that have established relationships with their host in a way that they benefit from the host but have neither a benefit to the host nor harm their host.
35
Define Acute Disease
A disease that develops rapidly but lasts for a short time, e.g. Influenza
36
Chronic Disease
A disease that develops slowly, but it lasts for a long time, e.g. tuberculosis, hepatitis B
37
Name 5 factors that are important in understanding a disease cycle
What pathogen caused the disease?
What was the source and/or reservoir of the pathogen?
How was the pathogen transmitted?
Why was the host susceptible to the pathogen?
How did the pathogen leave the host?
38
Name three essential factors that are requirements of an epidemic
1. Presence or introduction of an infectious agent (Infected source: human, animal, water, food
etc. )
2. An adequate number of susceptible individuals
3. An effective means of transmission
39
The following are steps for investigation of an epidemic. Put them in the order required.
a. Surveillance and data collection
b. Developing a hypothesis of the source and route of infection
c. Identifying the nature of the epidemic
d. Recognition of an epidemic
e. Controlling further spread of the infection
f. Identify the causative agent and characterizing it
a. Surveillance and data collection (3)
b. Developing a hypothesis of the source and route of infection (5)
c. Identifying the nature of the epidemic (4)
d. Recognition of an epidemic (1)
e. Controlling further spread of the infection (6)
f. Identify the causative agent and characterizing it (2)
40
A commensal bacterium (Analysis)
```
A) is beneficial to its host.
B) does not receive any benefit from its host.
C) may be an opportunistic pathogen.
D) does not infect its host.
E) b and d only.
```
C) may be an opportunistic pathogen.
41
Which of the following statements is true? (Analysis)
A) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
B) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
C) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
E) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host
D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
42
Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is:
```
A) Direct contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Vector
D) Vehicle transmission
E) Fomite
```
B) Droplet transmission
43
Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because
A) Some microorganisms don't cause the same disease in laboratory animals.
B) Some microorganisms can't be observed.
C) Some microorganisms can't be cultured in laboratory media.
D) Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions.
E) Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms.
E) Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms.
44
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal
microbiota. This can result in: (Analysis)
A) Body odour.
B) Normal microbiota returning immediately.
C) No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
D) Increased susceptibility to disease.
E) Fewer diseases.
D) Increased susceptibility to disease.
45
```
Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of: (Analysis)
A) Vehicle transmission
B) Vector transmission
C) Fomite transmission
D) Transmission by direct contact
E) Droplet transmission
```
B) Vector transmission
46
```
Hemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an
example of:
A) Commensalism.
B) Antagonism.
C) Synergism.
D) Parasitism.
E) None of the above.
```
C) Synergism.
47
A pathogen must have a reservoir in order to
A) Attach to a substrate
B) gain a food source
C) overcome the action of antibiotics
D) survive outside the human host
D) survive outside the human host
48
The reservoir for Clostridium tetani is the
A) atmosphere
B) human blood
C) ocean
D) soil
D) soil
49
Each of the following is a fomite except
A) bedding
B) Blood
C) cups
D) towels.
B) Blood
50
More human diseases are transmitted by the _____________ system than through any other
system
A) Circulatory
B) Reproductive
C) Respiratory
D) Urinary
C) Respiratory
51
Which branch of epidemiology investigates disease outbreaks?
A) Descriptive
B) Field
C) Hospital
D) Surveillance
B) Field
52
The prevalence of a disease can best be described as:
(Knowledge)
A) the total number of people infected within a population
B) the number of people affected by a disease (cases per 100,000 people/year.)
C) number of new cases in a population (cases per 100,000 people/year.)
D) number of infected people divided by healthy people
A) the total number of people infected within a population
53
```
If 50 people in 100,000 develop a disease, the incidence rate as a percentage is
(analysis)
A) 0.5
B) 0.05
C) 0.005
D) 0.0005
```
B) 0.05
54
Which branch of epidemiology seeks to provide general information about a disease?
A) Descriptive
B) Field
C) Hospital
D) Surveillance
A) Descriptive
55
In a common source epidemic, all infected people
A) are immunocompromised
B) are adults
C) share a common gathering
D) share a similar immune system.
C) share a common gathering
56
Nosocomial infections are
A) acquired at work
B) hereditary
C) hospital-acquired
D) nasal infections
C) hospital-acquired
57
_________of a disease refers to new cases of disease in a population , whereas _____________ refers to the number of existing cases of disease in a population
incidence, prevalence
58
Sources of infections in hospitals include endogenous (patients) and hospital environment (exogenous sources)
find out what endogenous and exogenous means
59
What are the three major types of epidemiological investigations?
descriptive, analytical and experimental epidemiology
60
The most frequent portal of entry for pathogens is the
a. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
b. Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
c. Skin
d. Parenteral route
a. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
61
Most pathogens that gain access through skin
a. can penetrate intact skin
b. Just infect the skin itself
c. Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts
d. Must adhere first while invasive factors allow them to penetrate
c. Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts
62
the LD50 is a
a. Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population
b. Dose that will kill some of the test population
c. Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population
d. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population
d. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population
63
Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally NOT true?
a. They are more potent than endotoxins
b. They are composed of proteins
c. They are not destroyed by heat
d. They have specific methods of action
c. They are not destroyed by heat
64
Endotoxins are
a. Associated with Gram-positive bacteria
b. Specific in the method of action
c. Part of the Gram-negative cell wall
d. Excreted from the cell
c. Part of the Gram-negative cell wall
65
All of the following may be used for adherence EXCEPT
a. Fimbriae
b. Cell membrane mannose
c. Glycoproteins
d. Lipoproteins
b. Cell membrane mannose
66
Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?
a. Number of microorganisms that gain access to a host
b. Cell wall
c. Toxins
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
67
Septic shock attributed to Gram-negative bacteria, is actually due to
a. Complement
b. Antibodies
c. Tumor necrosis factor
d. Exotoxin
c. Tumor necrosis factor
68
The oral cavity and urinary tract of the human body are portals of entry for microbiota.
T – F
T
69
The presence of a capsule around a bacterial cell makes the microbe more vulnerable to
phagocytosis.
T - F
F
| Capsule protects bacteria from phagocytosis
70
A cell wall can increase a bacterium’s virulence because cell wall lipid A, helps the bacterium
attach.
F
| Lipid A is a toxic part of the LPS
71
All Gram-negative bacteria contain endotoxin
| T-F
T
72
Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the outer member of Gram-negative
bacteria.
T
73
Mucous membranes tend to line the inside free surfaces of cavities that are sealed off from the
environment outside the human body
F
74
A successful pathogen must maintain a _____________ in the environment to live before and
after infection.
reservoir
75
In the urinary tract, a successful pathogen must _____________ to the surface of a host
adhere
76
A successful pathogen must invade the body of a host and evade the host's _____________.
immune system/defenses
77
A successful human pathogen must exit from the body and return to its _____________.
reservoir
78
What common characteristics do the soil and human body tissues have to promote the multiplication of Clostridium tetani?
Both provide warm, moist environments
79
Bacterial properties involved in adhesion, colonization and invasion of the host are called _______properties OR _______ factors
virulence, virulence
e.g. ability to
acquire iron, antiphagocytic capsules, antigenic variation etc.
80
Bacteria damage of the host by Invading, multiplying and destroying cells and producing what two types of toxins?
Endotoxin and Exotoxin
81
Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and is only produced by Gram_______ bacteria (cell wall)
negative
| The lipid portion of the LPS, called Lipid A, is the endotoxin
82
Exotoxins are protein molecules that can be secreted by both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
T-F
T
83
LPS of Gram-negative bacteria (Endotoxin) cause a ________ response by inducing macrophage to produce IL1 that induces hypothalamus to produce ___________
pyrogenic, prostaglandins
84
Endotoxins also induce production of TNF leading to ___________
septic shock
85
What are the three types of exotoxins:
➢ A-B toxins (e.g. Cholera toxin, LT)
➢ Membrane disrupting toxin (e.g. toxin of C.perfringens, alpha toxin of S.aureus)
➢ Superantigens: provoke immune system (e.g. Toxic SST-1)
86
To avoid the host defence mechanisms, viruses grow inside host cells. Host cells produces ___________ to kill viruses.
interferons
87
Pathogenic properties of protozoa differ widey
| T-F
T
88
Trypanosoma attack nervous system to cause ________ _________
African trypanosomiasis
89
Malaria transmits by a vector and enters the blood affecting ______
RBC.
90
Some algae produce _______toxins e.g. saxitoxin produced by dino flagellates.
neuro
91
The aetiology of disease refers to:
a) The results seen after a disease occur
b) The cause of the disease
c) The portal of exit of the pathogen
d) Enhanced disease due to normal microflora
b) The cause of the disease
92
Microbial antagonism refers to:
a) An increase in bacterial metabolism
b) A decrease in bacterial metabolism
c) An increase in infection symptoms
d) Protection be normal bacterial flora
d) Protection be normal bacterial flora
93
The relationship in which one partner benefits at the expense of the other is called:
a) Parasitism
b) Mutualism
c) Commensalism
d) None of the above
a) Parasitism
94
Koch’s postulates were the first to show the:
a) Portal of entry of pathogens into the body
b) Portal of exit for pathogens leaving the body
c) Aetiology of bacterial infection
d) Existence of exotoxin in bacteria
c) Aetiology of bacterial infection
95
The first mild symptoms of diseases are seen in the
a) Illness period
b) Decline period
c) Prodromal period
d) Incubation period
c) Prodromal period
96
Which of the following is NOT a type of contact transmission mechanism?
a) Droplet
b) Nosocomial
c) Indirect
d) Direct
b) Nosocomial
97
Patients can become compromised in their ability to ward off infection because of
a) Age
b) Race
c) Gender
d) None of the above
a) Age
98
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
a) Chronic = a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months
b) Inapparent = infection characteristic of a carrier state
c) Acute = a short-lasting primary infection
d) Secondary infection = a long-lasting illness
d) Secondary infection = a long-lasting illness
99
Nosocomial infections are most caused by
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
a) Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of nosocomial wound infections. I have an issue with this question.
100
All of the following can contribute to postoperative infections EXCEPT
a) Normal microflora of the patient
b) Errors in aseptic technique
c) Normal microflora of the operating room staff
d) There is no exception, all of the above contribute to post-operative infection
d) There is no exception, all of the above contribute to post-operative infection
101
Endotoxins are:
a) part of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
b) part of the Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
c) specific in their method of action
d) excreted from the cell
a) part of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
102
All of the following may be used for adherence of bacteria, EXCEPT
a) Fimbriae
b) Cell membrane
c) Capsules
d) Cell wall
b) Cell membrane
103
Which of the following does not contribute to the virulence of a pathogen?
a) Number of microorganisms that gain access to a host.
b) Toxins
c) Cell wall
d) All of the above contribute to the virulence of a pathogen
d) All of the above contribute to the virulence of a pathogen
104
In response to endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes:
a) A decrease in blood pressure
b) A fever
c) The disease to subside
d) None of the above
a) A decrease in blood pressure
105
Which of the following is a method of avoiding phagocytosis?
a) Producing fimbriae
b) Inducing phagocytosis
c) Producing toxins
d) Inducing tumor necrosis factor
b) Inducing phagocytosis
106
Which of the following bacteria produces a membrane disrupting toxin?
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) lostridium perfringens
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) All of the above bacteria produce membrane disrupting toxin
b) lostridium perfringens
107
An outbreak of rubella occurred in a child nursery that housed 100 children. 20 kids got rubella and 4 of those died. The case fatality rate for the disease is:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 25%
c) 20%
4/20 x 100
108
Non-specific resistance is
a. The body’s ability to ward off diseases
b. The body’s defences against any kind of pathogen
c. The body’s defence against a particular pathogen
d. The lack of resistance
b. The body’s defences against any kind of pathogen
109
Which of the following is NOT a mechanical factor to protect the skin and mucous
membranes from infection?
a. Layers of cells
b. Tears
c. Saliva
d. Lysozyme
d. Lysozyme
110
The function of the “ciliary escalator “is to
a. Kill microorganisms
b. Remove microorganisms from body cavities
c. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract
d. Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract
c. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract
111
Which of the following is an effect of opsonisation?
a. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
b. Increased margination of phagocytes
c. Inflammation
d. None of the above
a. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
112
Which of the following is not an effect of histamine?
a. Vasodilation
b. Fever.
c. Swelling.
d. Redness
b. Fever.
113
Which of the following statement is true?
a. There are at least twenty complement proteins.
b. All of the complement proteins are activated
c. Factors B and D are complement proteins
d. Complement activity is antigen specific.
a. There are at least twenty complement proteins.
114
The first step of inflammatory repair is
a. activating complement proteins.
b. cleaning up the inflamed area.
c. phagocytosis.
d. production of antibodies.
b. cleaning up the inflamed area.
115
Interferons are
a. bacteria-nonspecific.
b. bacteria-specific.
c. virus-nonspecific.
d. virus-specific
c. virus-nonspecific.
116
The molecules of the complement pathway are proteins. T - F
T
117
The last step of the alternative pathway for complement is spontaneous hydrolysis.
T - F
F
118
Molecules of C3 are split into C3b only if microbes are not invading the human body.
T - F
F
119
C3 convertase rapidly forms molecules of C3a. T - F
F
120
Neutrophils have a long lifespan. T – F
F
121
Phagocytes have cell-surface receptors on their outer surface. T – F
T
122
A human is infected by a parasitic worm. Measurement of the eosinophil concentration during the infection reveals a rising concentration of this white blood cell type. T - F
T
123
Macrophages develop from differentiated monocytes. T - F
T
124
Cytokines are released from macrophages. T - F
T
125
What is a membrane-bound vacuole within a phagocyte called?
phagosome
126
Inflammatory mediators are not released by mast cells. T - F
F
127
What are the two types of immune response that protect the host?
the innate immune response and the adaptive immune response
128
What immune response is a nonspecific response that responds immediately to any type of infection
Innate
129
The first line of defence in the innate immune response, consists of ________and _______ barriers
mechanical, chemical
130
List 3 mechanical barriers
skin, mucous membranes, the lacrimal
| apparatus and saliva
131
List 3 Chemical Barriers
sebum, perspiration, gastric juice, urine and transferrins
132
The second line of defense in the innate immune response incorporates ________ and _________mechanisms that actively defend the body
cellular, chemical
133
Cells that are involved in defending the body can identify molecules associated with _________
antigens
134
The cellular components of the second line of defence are __________
white blood cells
135
List 3 things that occur during the process of inflammatory response includes
vasodilatation and increased permeability of blood vessels then white blood cells move from the blood to the infected tissues
136
Cytokines and chemokines are chemical mediators that are produced at the onset of and throughout the course of the response to an infection. T-F
T
137
What are the three types of cells that have important roles in the innate immune response
mast cells, dendritic cells and natural killer cells
138
Phagocytosis is the cellular response in which microorganisms , damaged host cells, and cellular debris are removed from the body. T-F
T
139
The release of chemicals by cells involved in infection
| that attract phagocytic cells to an infected area is referred to as what?
Chemotaxis
140
Inflammation is a physiological response to body trauma. It involves vasodilation, resulting in redness, pain, heat, and swelling. T-F
T
141
The complement system is part of the _______ immune response
innate
142
The complement system destroys bacteria by ________ via ______ _______ _______
cytolysis via membrane attack complex (MAC).
143
The complement system helps opsonisation of bacteria (for phagocytosis) and inflammation (via release of histamine) T-F
T
144
List the 3 ways the complement system can be activated in three ways.
the classical, alternative or lectin-binding pathways
145
Interferon is a protein produced by ________ cells that can protect _________ cells from infection with that virus
virus–infected, neighboring
146
Antimicrobial drugs
a. are made through chemical synthesis only.
b. occur naturally only.
c. are made through chemical synthesis and occur naturally.
d. do not occur naturally and are not made synthetically.
c. are made through chemical synthesis and occur naturally.
147
Narrow-spectrum, antibacterial drugs
a. affect many microbial groups.
b. affect only one microbial group.
c. work over a long period of time.
d. work over a short period of time.
b. affect only one microbial group.
148
The origin of drug-resistant changes in bacteria occurs in their
a. cell membranes.
b. genetic makeup.
c. location in the body.
d. size and morphology.
b. genetic makeup.
149
4. Penicillin administration is successful at treating
a. bacterial infections only.
b. viral infections only.
c. bacterial and viral infections.
d. neither bacterial nor viral infections.
a. bacterial infections only.
150
Four different antibiotics are compared for effectiveness against a bacterium by the KirbyBauer method. The antibiotic producing a halo of _____________ mm thickness around its
disc on agar surface is most effective.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16
d. 16
151
A number of different drug concentrations are compared for effectiveness against a bacterium
by the broth-dilution method. Four different concentrations are found to stop growth. Which
Minimal Bactericidal Concentration indicates the most effective concentration?
a. 2 units
b. 4 units
c. 6 units
d. 8 units
a. 2 units
152
The penicillins
a. cause genetic amplification.
b. cause genetic mutations.
c. inhibit cell wall synthesis.
d. inhibit cell membrane synthesis.
c. inhibit cell wall synthesis.
153
Streptomycin binds to the
a. 30S subunits of 70S ribosomes.
b. 50S subunits of 70S ribosomes.
c. 50S subunits of 80S ribosomes.
d. 60S subunits of 80S ribosomes.
a. 30S subunits of 70S ribosomes.
154
Select the correct statement about rifampin.
a. It is a component of the bacterial cell wall.
b. It is an antibiotic.
c. It selectively inhibits bacterial DNA polymerase.
d. It selectively inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase.
b. It is an antibiotic.
155
Select the INCORRECT statement about the penicillins.
a. All are naturally-occurring.
b. They share the same basic structure.
c. Their molecules differ with respect to their R group.
d. They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.
a. All are naturally-occurring.
156
Today the sulfonamides are used most often to treat infections of the _____________ tract.
a. digestive
b. reproductive
c. respiratory
d. urinary
d. urinary
157
Select the INCORRECT statement about the aminoglycosides.
a. Amino sugar molecules are part of their structure.
b. They are not well absorbed when taken orally.
c. They are not effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
d. They do not penetrate the central nervous system.
c. They are not effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
158
Select the INCORRECT statements about the tetracyclines.
a. They are effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
b. They are well absorbed orally.
c. They are widely distributed across the body.
d. They interfere with DNA synthesis.
d. They interfere with DNA synthesis.
159
Select the INCORRECT statement about the quinolones.
a. They are effective against Gram-positive bacteria.
b. They are narrow-spectrum agents.
c. They are synthetic antimicrobial agents.
d. They were derived from nalidixic acid.
b. They are narrow-spectrum agents.
160
Select the INCORRECT statement about isoniazid.
a. It is a synthetic drug.
b. It is activated by a mycobacterial enzyme.
c. It is inactivated by the kidney.
d. It is well absorbed orally.
c. It is inactivated by the kidney.
161
A drug is any chemical that has a physiological effect on living things. T - F
T
162
Antibiotics cause the genetic exchange in bacteria that leads to drug resistance. T - F
F
163
Combined therapy means administering two different drugs at the same time. T - F
T
164
The broth dilution method is more complicated and expensive than the disc-dilution method. T - F
T
165
A bacterium that loses its cell wall tends to lyse.
| T - F
T
166
Cephalosporins are less resistant to beta-lactamases than the penicillins. T - F
F
167
Nystatin is an antifungal drug. T - F
T
168
Acyclovir is not effective against DNA viruses of the herpes family. T - F
F
169
Penicillin was discovered accidentally by Alexander Fleming in 1928. T-F
T
170
There has been no major discoveries of natural antibiotics over the past few decades. T-F
T
171
What are 2 of the most important groups of microorganisms that produce antibiotics?
Actinomycetes and Fungi
172
Antibiotics have different spectra of activity, i.e. Narrow activity and Broad spectrum. T-F
T
173
Bacteria gain resistance by ________ and acquiring ________with resistance genes
mutation, plasmids
174
Penicillin is composed of a core ring structure known as the?
Beta - lactam ring
175
Some bacteria produce an enzyme called _______, which breaks the beta-lactam ring of penicillin, making it inactive.
beta-lactamase
176
Antibiotics must have _______ ________ so they react against the invading organism but not against the host.
selective toxicity
177
List the 5 target sites for antibiotics;
1) the bacterial cell wall, 2) the bacterial plasma membrane, 3) protein synthesis, 4) metabolic inhibition, and 5) nucleic acid replication.
178
There are very selective anti-mycobacterium tuberculosis drugs such as isoniazid, ________ and ethambutol.
rifampin
179
Fungi are ________ and there are also few selective anti-fungal drugs. i.e. Nystatin, Griseofulvin and amphotericin.
eukaryotes
| Grissly full van , My station or nissan in a tin, lamp hot er than sin
180
Anti-parasitic drugs include ____________(used for most protozoans) and ___________(used for treatment of intestinal worm infections)
metronizadole, mebedazole
city is a banana. me bed a stole
181
Lysozyme is an enzyme that
a. destroys Gram-negative bacteria.
b. destroys Gram-positive bacteria.
c. inhibits skin regeneration.
d. stimulates skin regeneration.
b. destroys Gram-positive bacteria.
182
Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses cell wall synthesis as a mode of action.
penicillin
183
Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses protein synthesis inhibition as a mode of action.
erythromycin
184
Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses metabolic synthesis inhibition as a mode of action.
sulfanilamide
sole flannel my dear
185
Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses plasma membrane injury as a mode of action.
Polymyxin B
186
Give 1 example of an antibiotic that uses nucleic acid replication and transcription inhibition as a mode of action.
Quinolones
Quinn all alones
187
Keratitis is inflammation of the
a. cornea.
b. dermis.
c. epidermis.
d. sclera.
a. cornea.
188
Which of the following is not normal microbiota of the skin?
a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Propionibacterium
d. Ccorynebacterium
a. Streptococcus
189
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Gram positive
b. Coagulase positive
c. Catalase positive
d. Gram-negative
d. Gram-negative
190
Erysipelas affects
a. the dermis only.
b. the epidermis only.
c. the dermis and epidermis.
d. neither the epidermis nor dermis.
c. the dermis and epidermis.
191
Select the incorrect statement about Streptococcus pyrogenes.
a. It is protected from phagocytosis.
b. Its M protein can be neutralized by an antibody.
c. Its streptokinase kills leukocytes.
d. There are more than 80 different serotypes.
c. Its streptokinase kills leukocytes.
192
A bacterium is studied in lab for identification. It does not decolorize by the second step of the
Gram staining procedure. Its cells are not rod-shaped. They do appear in clusters under the
microscope. Among the following choices the bacterium is
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyrogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
193
Alpha and delta toxins
a. build bacterial cell walls.
b. damage cell membranes.
c. inactivate kinases.
d. promote protein synthesis.
b. damage cell membranes.
194
A bacterium is studied in lab for identification. Its cells have a blue-green pigment. Its cells also
contain pili and have an extracellular slime layer. This bacterium is
a. Clostridium botulinum.
b. Escherichia coli.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
d. Staphylococcus aureus.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
195
Gas gangrene is caused by
a. Clostridium botulinum.
b. Clostridium perfringens.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
b. Clostridium perfringens.
clostrophobic perfurmed Jen's
196
A person first develops an infection in the nasopharynx. This can lead to an infection caused by
Pseudomonas called
a. neuralgia.
b. osteomyelitis.
c. otitis externa.
d. pericarditis.
c. otitis externa.
197
Acne is caused by an inflammatory response to a
a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.
a. bacterium.
198
Leprosy is caused by a species of the genus
a. Bacillus.
b. Clostridium.
c. Mycobacterium.
d. Pseudomonas.
c. Mycobacterium.
Michael's bacteria
199
Select the incorrect characteristic about indeterminate leprosy.
a. It develops two to six months after infection.
b. Its symptoms include skin lesions.
c. Skin biopsies reveal the presence of nerve damage.
d. Untreated cases progress to tuberculoid leprosy.
a. It develops two to six months after infection.
200
Chicken pox is caused by a
a. bacterium.
b. fungus.
c. protozoan.
d. virus.
d. virus.
201
The pattern of shingles corresponds to the outline of the dermatomes of the body. A dermatome
is region of the skin supplied as a single sensory nerve. A dermatome probably appears as a
_____________ on the skin.
a. blister
b. lack of pigmentation
c. mole
d. segmental area
d. segmental area
202
The most common clinical syndrome of primary HSV-1 (oral herpes) infection is
a. gingivostomatitis.
b. keratitis.
c. neuralgia.
d. septicemia.
a. gingivostomatitis.
203
Herpetic whitlow is an infection of the
a. brain.
b. heart.
c. kidney
d. skin.
d. skin.
herpetic whitlow is a lesion (whitlow) on a finger or thumb
Herb picked because his wit was low. He scratched at his thumb instead of listening in class
204
Select the INCORRECT statement about the measles virus.
a. It belongs to the paramyxovirus family.
b. It can cause red blood cells to clump together.
c. It has a coiled RNA nucleocapsid.
d. It survives outside the body for long periods.
d. It survives outside the body for long periods.
205
Select the INCORRECT statement about variola.
a. It belongs to the poxvirus family.
b. It is an RNA virus.
c. It is closely related to vaccinia.
d. It is the smallpox virus
b. It is an RNA virus.
206
Select the INCORRECT statement about HPV.
a. It causes skin elevations.
b. It has a known means of transmission.
c. It is an RNA virus.
d. It is a member of the papovavirus family.
c. It is an RNA virus.
HPV stands for human papillomavirus. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection which usually shows no symptoms and goes away by itself, but can sometimes cause serious illness. HPV is responsible for: almost all cases of genital warts and cervical cancer. 90% of anal cancers.
207
The dermatophytes are a group of
a. algae.
b. bacteria.
c. fungi.
d. protozoans.
c. fungi.
208
Candida albicans is a(n) 1 that can become a(n) 2 .
a. 1 - opportunist, 2 - mutualistic species
b. 1 - opportunist, 2 - pathogen
c. 1 - mutualistic species, 2 - pathogen
d. 1 - pathogen, 2 - opportunist
b. 1 - opportunist, 2 - pathogen
209
Candida species normally colonize each of the following regions of the human body except the
a. blood.
b. gastrointestinal tract.
c. mucous membranes.
d. skin.
a. blood.
210
Scabies is an infection of the
a. heart.
b. mucous membranes.
c. skin.
d. spinal nerves.
c. skin.
211
Scabies infects the human body by the bite of a(n)
a. annelid.
b. arthropod.
c. crustacean.
d. flatworm.
b. arthropod
Arthur is a pea in a pod who only comes out to bite humans to cause scabies
212
Select the genus not known to cause bacterial inflammation of the conjunctiva.
a. Escherichia
b. Haemophilus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
a. Escherichia
213
Neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia is caused by a species of
a. Bacillus
b. Clostridium
c. Neisseria
d. Treponema
c. Neisseria
neye cereal causes baby blindness from their mom with gonorrhea
214
Herpetic keratitis is an ulceration of the
a. cornea.
b. dermis.
c. liver.
d. reproductive tract.
a. cornea.
215
The dermis is a thicker, deeper layer of the skin compared to the epidermis. T - F
T
216
A researcher in the lab is testing for the presence of S. aureus. Test results reveal that one bacterium cannot ferment mannitol and is decolorized by the second step of the Gram stain procedure. The researcher can conclude that the bacterium is not S. aureus. T - F
T
217
A researcher in the lab is testing for the presence of C. perfringens. Test results reveal that one bacterium is a normal floral species of the human skin and is decolorized by the second step of the Gram stain procedure. The researcher can conclude that the bacterium is C. perfringens. T - F
F
218
A scientist conducts research to find a cure for acne. One avenue for this cure is to study the
mechanisms of the endocrine system. T - F
T
219
Acyclovir is used routinely to treat primary genital herpes. T - F
T
220
Koplik spots appear on the surface of the skin as an initial indication of measles. T - F
T
221
A person is suffering from warts. For relief, this person should use an antifungal medication. T - F
F - because genital warts is a virus
222
Candida is an opportunistic pathogen. This means it is a microorganism that does not cause infection but can cause an infection if conditions change. T - F
T
223
Any fungal infection of the body are called _________
Mycoses
224
Skin is a barrier to pathogen and must be ________ for infection to occur
broken
225
A wide variety of bacteria cause skin infection. Some bacteria directly attack skin and some produce __________ and the disease appears on the skin
toxin/enzymes
226
Bacterial infection of the hair follicles causes a type of abscess (puss surrounded by inflammation of tissue), called ________
carbuncle
227
Staphylococcus aureus produces ________whereas Streptococcus pyogenes produces _______
Beta-haemolysin, Beta- haemolysis
228
Strains of S. aureus produces several toxins such as exfoliative toxin causing, _____________
Toxic shock syndrome toxin -1 (TSST-1), enterotoxin etc.
229
S. pyogenes strains produce erythrogenic toxin that causes ____________
Scarlet fever.
Scarlet Johanssen fever
230
Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes cause lesion of ________
impetigo.
231
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes _____ _______ among swimmers
otitis externa
Swimmers ear
232
_____________ acne utilises sebum and produces fatty acids that cause inflammatory response.
Propionibacterium
Pepperoni skin
233
90% of genital warts (caused by papilloma virus) do not cause cancer T-F
T
234
Smallpox (variola virus) is the first disease that was eradicated by artificially induced immunity T-F
T
235
Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) cause infection of _______ mucosa where as HSV-2 cause _______infection with up to 70% fatality
oral, genital
236
Measles is contagious before the sign and symptoms of the disease appear. T-F
T
237
Most viral disease of skin spread via respiratory route and start with symptoms resemble common cold. T-F
T
238
Murder of microbes directly is referred to as __________
Bactericidal
239
Prevention of microbial growth is referred to as ___________
Bateriostatic
