Week 7 - OR Electrical, Fire, Laser, MRI Safety Flashcards

1
Q

What law is electricity based on?

A

Ohm’s Law: V = I x R

V= potential difference
I = current (represents flow)
R = resistance
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2
Q

How is current measured?

A

Amperes (A) or Milliamperes (mA)

1 A = 1,000 mA

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3
Q

What are the types of current?

A
Alternating Current (AC): consists of current that reverses direction at regular intervals/Primarily to transmit electricity over long distances
ex: outlets in OR
Direct Current (DC): flows in a single direction
ex: batteries, laryngoscope handles, and backup battery for anesthesia machines
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4
Q

What is the frequency of a waveform and how is it measured?

A

Frequency of a waveform is the number of cycles that occur per one second

Measured in Hertz (Hz) or megahertz (MHz)

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5
Q

What type of frequencies is the human body more sensitive to?

A

More sensitive to lower frequencies (10 to 200 Hz) and less sensitive to higher frequencies (> 500,000 Hz)

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6
Q

What is the typical frequency in the OR?

A

60 Hz

-this is a low-frequency that is capable of the greatest risk of exciting and damaging human tissues (heart being most vulnerable)

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7
Q

When does an electrical shock occur?

A

when a person completes an electrical circuit

-one must be in contact with an active electrical circuit at two points

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8
Q

How can an electrical shock cause damage?

A
  • Disruption of normal, physiological function of cells (muscle contractions, respiratory paralysis, cardiac arrhythmias)
  • Burn/heat: as electrical current passes through resistance, it raises the temp of a substance (may not always be visible, but there can be a significant thermal injury to internal organs)
  • degree of injury is directly related to the amount of current (Amperes) conducted & the time the current is conducted
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9
Q

What are the effects of different levels of current with 60 Hz?

A

1 mA = tingling/pain
5 mA = pain
15 mA = tonic muscle contraction/pain
50 mA = respiratory tonic muscle contraction/respiratory arrest
70-100 mA = ventricular fibrillation/cardiac arrhythmias/local burns

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10
Q

What is microshock?

A
  • Very small currents applied DIRECTLY to the myocardium (only 20-100 microamperes are needed to induce cardiac arrhythmias)
  • Since this amount of current is well below the threshold of perception and electrical circuit protection used in the OR, we must be aware of the risk of microshock in “susceptible” pts
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11
Q

Who are susceptible patients to microshock?

A

Those who have a direct conduit into the heart, capable of conducting electricity

*Pacemakers, AICDs, pulmonary artery catheters, central venous catheters

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12
Q

Describe a grounded electrical system

A

Current makes its way back to the ground

  • typically, it was grounded through a pad on the patient (however, any grounding object can serve as a method of ground return)
  • Alternative routes create the potential for burns

*Only ONE system fault creates potential for a shock

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13
Q

Describe an isolated electrical system

A

Circuit is completed not by the ground, but rather by the built-in generator circuitry (brings the current back to the circuit)

Consists of: Isolation transformer and Line isolation monitor

*TWO faults are required before a shock is possible with this system (one fault turns it into a grounded system)

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14
Q

What are the benefits of an isolated electrical system?

A
  • Burn risk to patient is reduced (alternate grounding pathways to ground are mitigated, but there still is a risk of return electrode site burn)
  • Two faults are required before shock is possible
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15
Q

What is the line isolation monitor?

A
  • Monitors integrity of the isolated electrical system
  • Gives a reading of how much “connection” there is between the supposedly isolated wall power wires and the ground – “Leakage” current
  • Alarms (typically 2mA) if an unacceptably amount of current to the ground is possible (means the system is no longer isolated, but rather is grounded, thus only one additional fault could result in a shock)
  • When monitor is alarming, try unplugging the last piece of equipment, as it is typically the problem
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16
Q

How does the electrosurgery units: Monopolar Cautery work?

A
  • The active electrode is in the wound
  • Current flows through the patient to the patient return electrode
  • The return electrode is attached somewhere else on the patient
  • For patients with pacemaker/metal/stimulators: place grounding pad away from the object and in a way where path between surgical site and grounding pad don’t intersect the device (burn can still occur if pad wasn’t applied correctly)
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17
Q

How does the electrosurgery units: Bipolar Cautery work?

A
  • The active and return electrode are at the site of surgery (the two tines of the forceps)
  • Only the tissue grasped is included in the electrical circuit
  • No patient return electrode is needed
  • Cutting ability is less effective

*safer than monopolar cautery to use in patients with pacemakers

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18
Q

What are the three equipment categories?

A

B & BF are for body surfaces only, but not to be connected to the heart

CF are safe to connect to the heart (EKG, CVP)

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19
Q

What are the indications for a pacemaker and for implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)?

A

Pacemaker: for recurrent, symptomatic bradycardia (sick sinus syndrome, atrio-ventricular block)

ICDs: for patients at risk of or with a history of arrhythmias requiring defibrillation

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20
Q

How do pacemakers work?

A

Fixed/Asynchronous: just pace the heart regardless of underlying rhythm

Demand: senses the heart and when the HR falls below a preset threshold, it begins to pace the heart – when the HR is above the preset threshold, it will inhibit pacing the heart

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21
Q

How do ICDs work?

A

ICDs are also pacemakers
-pacemaker function may be set so low that it is never used or the pacemaker can be very active in a patient that is pacemaker dependent

Senses the heart rhythm and if a high heart rate is detected, it will either overdrive pace the heart or give a defibrillating shock

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22
Q

What does each letter in the Pacemaker Designation represent?

A
1st = Paced Chamber (O, A, V, or D)
2nd = Sensed Chamber (O, A, V, or D)
3rd = Response to sense event (O, I, T, or D)
4th = Rate modulation (O or R)
5th = Multisite pacing (O, A, V, or D)
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23
Q

How do you interpret pacemaker designations?

A

1) Paced Chamber 2) Sensed Chamber 3) Response to Sensed Event

If 2 sensed, the pacemaker will 3 1.

Ex: VVI - if ventricle (2) sensed, the pacemaker will inhibit (3) the ventricle (1)
VAT - if atria (2) sensed, the pacemaker will trigger (3) the ventricle (1)

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24
Q

What effect does a magnet have on a pacemaker?

A

it “reprograms” the pacer into a fixed/asynchronous pacing mode (VOO, AOO, or DOO)

the paced rate of the magnet is manufacturer dependent but usually between 85-100 bpm

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25
Q

What effect does a magnet have on an ICD?

A

it turns off the ICD

the ICD won’t sense tachyarrhythmias nor give any defibrillation shocks or overdrive packing

*Has no effect on the pacemaker function

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26
Q

What is the risk of not placing a magnet on an ICD with monopolar cautery? Risk of placing the magnet?

A

Risk of Not Placing: the ICD can sense the monopolar cautery as a shockable rhythm and defibrillate the patient unnecessarily

Risk of Placing: while the magnet is on, the ICD will not defibrillate the patient, even if the patient goes into a shockable rhythm (if this occurs, take the magnet off or defibrillate with external R2 pads)

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27
Q

What is the risk of not placing a magnet on a pacemaker with monopolar cautery? Risk of placing the magnet?

A

Risk of Not Placing: while cautery is in use, the pacemaker can interpret this as electrical activity of the heart and not pace the patient (can be in asystole during time of cautery)

Risk of Placing: if patient’s HR is higher than the asynchronous rate, you can have an R on T phenomenon and cause an arrhythmia (use magnet only if pt’s HR is lower than the asynchronous rate of the magnet)

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28
Q

When is it recommended to place a magnet on an ICD with or without a pacemaker?

A

Place magnet if using monopolar cautery above the level of the umbilicus

  • To prevent unintended defibrillation with misinterpretation of cautery
  • if dependent on pacemaker function – need to have it reprogrammed by EP lab to asynchronous setting
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29
Q

When is it recommended to place a magnet on a pacemaker?

A

Is the patient pacemaker dependent?

  • Dependent: place magnet
  • Not Dependent: do not place magnet and watch patient carefully (patient will not receive pacing during electrocautery)
30
Q

What are the locations of surgical fires?

A

On the head, neck or upper chest (44%)

Elsewhere ON the patient (26%)

In the airway (21%)

Elsewhere IN the patient (8%)

31
Q

What is the fire triad?

A

Oxidizer: oxygen and nitrous oxide (occurs in breathing circuit and can be created by trapping of oxygen under drapes)

Ignition Source: electrosurgical/electrocautery devices, lasers, heated probes, drills, argon beam coagulators, fiberoptic light cables, & defibrillator pads

Fuel: anything that can burn (tracheal tubes, sponges, drapes, gauze, alcohol-containing solutions, pt hair, dressings, gowns, blankets, packaging materials)

32
Q

How do you prepare for an OR fire?

A
  • Determine whether a high-risk situation exists (when an ignition source can come in proximity to an oxidizer-enriched atmosphere)
  • If high-risk situation exists, discuss strategy for prevention and management of OR fire
  • Equipment for managing fire should be readily available
    • Containers of sterile saline
    • CO2 fire extinguisher
    • Replacement airway equipment
33
Q

How do you prevent an OR fire in all cases?

A
  • Proper drape configuration to prevent/minimize trapping of oxygen (open configuration)
  • Skin prepping agents should be allowed to fully dry before draping
  • Sponges should be moistened when used near an ignition source
34
Q

How do you prevent an OR fire in high-risk procedures?

A
  • Surgeon should notify before firing an ignition source in the proximity to oxidizer-enriched environment (reduce FiO2 as low as clinically feasible - breathe out 30%, turn off N2O, wait a few min for gas to equilibrate before firing ignition source)
  • Tracheostomy (advise surgeons not to enter the trachea with ignition source)
  • For surgery around head, neck, face (consider depth of anesthetic & patient O2 requirements)
35
Q

How do you prevent an OR fire for laser surgery?

A
  • Choose laser-resistant tracheal tubes appropriate for the laser being used
  • Inflate tracheal cuff with saline & tint with methylene blue (used for marker when cuff is punctured by laser)
36
Q

What are the early signs of fire?

A
Flash or flame
Unusual sounds "popping" "snapping"
Odors
Smoke or heat
If present, halt the procedure & assess for fire
37
Q

How should you manage an OR fire in airway or breathing circuit?

A

Remove tracheal tube and all flammable materials
Stop delivery of gases
Pour saline or water into patient’s airway to extinguish and cool tissues

38
Q

How should you manage an OR fire elsewhere on or in the patient?

A

Remove all burning/flammable materials
Stop delivery of gases
Douse fire with saline or water (CO2 fire extinguisher)

39
Q

What should you do if the fire continues in the OR?

A

activate fire alarm
evacuate (close door and do NOT reopen)
turn off medical gas to OR
report

40
Q

What is the post-fire care?

A

Following airway fire:

  • Reestablish airway & ventilation, avoiding supplemental oxygen/N2O
  • Examine tracheal tube to assess fragments that may have been left behind
  • Bronchoscopy to assess thermal injury, look for tracheal tube fragments, & remove residual debris

Fire Elsewhere:
-assess for inhalational injury

41
Q

What is the function of a laser?

A
  • Converts electrical energy into a concentrated light energy
  • The light energy is stored in a reflective container before release
  • Ability to cut, coagulate, and vaporize tissues
  • energy measured in watts - energy (joules) per unit time of exposure (seconds)
  • At high intensities, lasers are capable of attenuating cellular activity and causing thermal injuries (through denaturing proteins)
42
Q

What are the different mediums used for lasering?

A

Solid – Nd-Yag (neodymium yttrium-aluminum garnet)
Liquid
Excimer (reactive gas)
Gas – CO2

43
Q

What are the laser emission types?

A

Continuous: stable average power

Pulsed or Q Switching: power fluctuates up and down – allows for heat dissipation between bursts (minimizes the thermal energy delivered to the tissue)

44
Q

What are the components of laser safety?

A

Laser source can be accidently activated thus laser source should routinely be placed on standby mode when not being actively engaged

Most vulnerable portion of the body is the eye so need eye protection

45
Q

What are the different laser wavelengths?

A

Invisible Ultraviolet (affects the lens of the eye - excimer laser is commonly used in eye surgery)

Visible (affects the retina - Argon & KTP lasers)

Invisible Near-Infrared (affects retina - dangerous because there is no way of knowing exposure)

Far-Infrared (affects cornea - CO2 laser)

46
Q

What is the purpose of laser safety eyewear?

A

Designed to reduce the amount of incident light to safe levels, while transmitting sufficient light for vision

Each laser requires a specific type of protective eyewear due to the different wavelengths

47
Q

What are laser-generated airborne contaminants?

A
  • Lasers can vaporize tissue through cellular disruption
  • Contaminants include: gaseous toxic compounds, bio-aerosols, cellular material, viruses, metal fumes
  • Can cause respiratory and ocular irritation
  • Some concern for mutagenic and carcinogenic potential

*Use PPE which may require special mask and have local exhaust ventilation in OR

48
Q

What is Ionizing electromagnetic radiation?

A

Radiation capable of removing an orbital electron from an atom

*Can cause cellular damage

49
Q

What are natural sources of Ionizing radiation?

A

Cosmic rays
Terrestrial radiation
Radionucleotides

50
Q

What are manufactured sources of ionizing radiation?

A
Nuclear Power
Nuclear Medicine
Computed Tomography (CT)
Interventional Radiology
Cardiac Cath
Electrophysiology
51
Q

What is Non-Ionizing Electromagnetic Radiation?

A

Radiation where the mechanism of action in tissue doesn’t involve ionization

  • “Harmless”
  • Includes visible light, infrared radiation, microwaves, radio waves, ultrasound, MRI
52
Q

What are the two types of Ionizing radiation?

A

Particulate (nuclear medicine - alpha particles and beta particles – PET scan)

Wavelike (travels at speed of light – gamma rays (CT scan) and X-rays)
*Speed of light = frequency x wavelength (inversely related)
Frequency = # of cycles per second
Wavelength = distance from one wave to the next (1 cycle)

53
Q

Curie (Ci)

A

unit of radioactive material and not the radiation emitted by that material

54
Q

Roentgen (R)

A

unit of radiation exposure or intensity in air

gamma rays and x-rays

*output intensity of an x-ray imaging device is measured in milliroentgen

55
Q

Rad (Radiation Absorbed Dose)

A

Quantity of radiation received (absorbed) by any matter

Alpha and Beta particles
Gamma and x-rays

56
Q

Rem (Radiation Equivalent Man)

A

Unit of occupational radiation exposure – what we use to measure exposure

Some types of radiation produce more damage than others
-Accounts for the differences by expressing the biological effectiveness of the radiation as the “effective dose”

57
Q

What are the dose limits of radiation?

A

Annual occupational effective dose limit is 5,000 mrem/y (5 rem)

Cumulative effective dose limit is 1,000 mrem x age
(risk of fatal cancer increases by ~0.4% x lifetime rem exposure)

Pregnancy Limit is 500 mrem for entire pregnancy

*Determined by the International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)

58
Q

Where does beam projection come from?

A

the bottom

59
Q

What can Ionization Radiation result in?

A
  • Production of reactive oxygen species
  • Breakage of chemical bonds
  • Cross-linkage between molecules
  • Damage to molecules that regulate vital cellular processes (DNA, RNA, and proteins)
60
Q

Damage to DNA from Ionization Radiation results in what responses?

A

1 of 3 Responses:

  • Enzymes are unable to repair the damage and cell dies
  • Enzymes accurately repair the damaged DNA with no adverse effects
  • Enzymes inaccurately repair the damaged DNA, resulting in chromosomal aberrations (these genetically mutated cells will be retained throughout subsequent cellular divisions – may eventually become cancerous)
61
Q

When does an early or deterministic radiation response occur?

A

Within a month

Ex: sunburn & cataracts

*Dose is usually substantial and above the threshold dose, under which no observable symptoms are seen

62
Q

What is late effect radiation response?

A

Stochastic – incidence of biological response is a function of the radiation dose and increases proportionally with increased dose

  • Type seen in occupational exposure
  • No known threshold dose below which there is no observable effect
  • KEY to reducing late effects is to minimize radiation exposure
63
Q

What cells/tissues are more radiosensitive?

A

Younger tissues and organs are more radiosensitive (Stem cells are the most)

The more mature a cell, the more resistant it is to radiation

64
Q

How does cellular metabolic activity affect radiosensitivity?

A

As cellular metabolic activity increases, radiosensitivity also increases

  • high metabolic activity = more radiosensitive (Bone marrow, lymph/thyroid tissue, optic lens, intestinal epithelium)
  • slower metabolic activity = less radiosensitive (mature bone/cartilage)
65
Q

What is ALARA?

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

Function of Time, Distance, and Shielding
*Distance: inverse square law (doubling a person’s distance from x-ray source decreases exposure to 1/4 original dose — 3x distance = 1/9th original dose)

66
Q

What is occupational exposure to radiation predominantly due to?

A

Scatter

*increased when the depth of image is increased (large pt & imaging part is thick)

67
Q

How does Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) work and what kind of radiation is it?

A

Consists of a very strong magnet in which the patient lies – a radio wave antenna is used to send signals to the body and then receive signals back – returned signals are converted into images by a computer

Non-Ionizing Radiation

68
Q

What are the advantages of MRI?

A
  • Superior soft tissue contrast (ideal for brain, spine, joints)
  • Functional MRI allows for imaging of active brain parts
  • Images may be acquired in multiple planes
  • Doesn’t use ionizing radiation
69
Q

What are the disadvantages of MRI?

A
  • Subject to MRI artifacts
  • More expensive than CT scan
  • Takes longer than CT (pt discomfort)
  • NOT safe for patients with some metal implant/foreign bodies
70
Q

What are the three safety issues of MRI?

A
  1. Main magnetic field: can cause repositioning of objects due to magnetic field (heart valves, intracranial aneurysm clips)
  2. Varying magnetic (gradient) fields: cause electrical currents in conductors (such as metal) – remove all metal
  3. Radiofrequency: heating and electric shock potential