Week 13 - Preop Evaluation Flashcards

1
Q

According to ASA what should be done during the preanesthesia visit?

A
  • An interview with the pt or guardian to establish a medical, anesthesia and medication history
  • An appropriate physical examination
  • Indicated diagnostic testing
  • Review of diagnostic data (labs, EKG, tests, consultations)
  • Assignment of an ASA physical status score
  • A formulation and discussion of anesthesia plans with the patient or a responsible adult before obtaining informed consent
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2
Q

What is the general definition of each ASA score?

A

ASA I = normal healthy patient

ASA II: patient with mild systemic disease (3040)

ASA IV: patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life

ASA V: moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation

ASA VI: declared brain dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

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3
Q

What should you look up in the chart before the preanesthesia visit?

A
  • Assess pt’s surgical diagnosis and surgical procedure
  • Weight and BMI
  • Problem list, health history
  • Review surgical clinic notes and any other pertinent notes
  • Review outside records
  • Allergies and current medications
  • Review labs and tests
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4
Q

When should you order labs/tests?

A

Only if the result will impact the decision to proceed with the planned procedure or alter the care plans

-healthy patients of any age and patients with known, stable, chronic diseases undergoing low to intermediate risk procedures are unlikely to benefit from any routine test

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5
Q

What are the appropriate indications for preop testing?

A

When an abnormal result is suspected based on clinical risk factors and this result will:

  • establish a new diagnosis
  • direct further preoperative testing or consultation
  • inform preoperative medication use
  • alter intraoperative monitoring or management
  • influence choice of surgical approach or anesthetic technique
  • influence decision to postpone or cancel surgery
  • change postop disposition
  • establish periop risk profile for communication with other physicians and pt
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6
Q

What non-cardiac surgical procedures or interventions are considered LOW cardiac surgical risk?

A
  • Superficial surgery
  • Breast
  • Dental
  • Endocrine: thyroid
  • Eye
  • Reconstructive
  • Carotid asymptomatic (CEA or CAS)
  • Genecology: minor
  • Orthopedic: minor
  • Urological: minor (TURP)
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7
Q

What non-cardiac surgical procedures or interventions are considered INTERMIEDIATE cardiac surgical risk?

A
  • Intraperitoneal: splenectomy, hiatal hernia repair, cholecystectomy
  • Carotid symptomatic (CEA or CAS)
  • Peripheral arterial angioplasty
  • Endovascular aneurysm repair
  • Head/Neck surgery
  • Neurological or orthopedic: major (hip/spine surgery)
  • Urological or Gynecological: major
  • Renal transplant
  • Intra-thoracic: non-major
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8
Q

What non-cardiac surgical procedures or interventions are considered HIGH cardiac surgical risk?

A
  • Aortic and major vascular surgery
  • Open lower limb revascularization or amputation or thromboembolectomy
  • Duodeno-pancreatic surgery
  • Liver resection, bile duct surgery
  • Oesophagectomy
  • Repair or perforated bowel
  • Adrenal resection
  • Total cystectomy
  • Pneumonectomy
  • Pulmonary or liver transplant
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9
Q

What six criteria does the Revised Cardiac Risk Index incorporate?

A
  1. Presence of ischemic heart disease
  2. History of HF
  3. History of cerebrovascular disease
  4. DM treated with insulin
  5. Cr level of 2 mg/dL or higher
  6. Intrathoracic, supra-abdominal or supra-inguinal vascular procedures

*presence of 0, 1, 2, or 3 factors is associated with 0.5%, 1.3%, 4%, and 9% risk of MACE (major adverse cardiovascular events)

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10
Q

What is the purpose of assessing functional capacity?

A

The ability to achieve a moderate level of activity without symptoms, denoted by a MET score of 4 or more predicts a low risk of perioperative complications

  • METs 1 = eating, working at computer, dressing
  • METs 5 = climbing 1-2 flights of stairs, dancing, bicycling
  • METs 10 = swimming quickly, running or jogging briskly
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11
Q

When might preop consultation be considered?

A
  • Diagnosis, evaluation, and improvement of a new or poorly controlled condition
  • Creation of a clinical risk profile that the patient and perioperative team use to make management decisions
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12
Q

When is it recommended to get an Albumin lab preop?

A

Anasarca

Liver disease

Malnutrition

Malabsorption

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13
Q

When is it recommended to get a CBC preop?

A
Alcohol abuse
Anemia
Dyspnea
Hepatic or renal disease
Malignancy
Malnutrition
Personal history of bleeding
Poor exercise tolerance
Recent chemo or radiation therapy
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14
Q

When is it recommended to get Creatinine lab preop?

A

Renal disease

Poorly controlled DM

Injection of contrast dye during the procedure

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15
Q

When is it recommended to get a Chest x-ray preop?

A
  • Active, acute, or chronic significant pulmonary symptoms such as cough or dyspnea
  • Abnormal unexplained physical findings on chest exam
  • Decompensated HF
  • Malignancy within the thorax
  • Radiation therapy to the chest, breasts, lungs, thorax

*extremes of age, smoking, stable COPD, stable cardiac disease, or resolved recent upper respiratory infection should not be considered unequivocal indications

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16
Q

When is it recommended to get an ECG preop?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Active cardiac condition (new or worsening chest pain or dyspnea, palpitations, tachycardia, irregular heart bear, unexplained bradycardia, undiagnosed murmur, decompensated HF)
  • ICD
  • OSA
  • Pacemaker
  • Pulmonary HTN
  • Radiation therapy to chest, breasts, lungs, thorax
  • Severe obesity
  • Syncope
  • Use of amiodarone or digoxin
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17
Q

When is it recommended to get Electrolyte levels preop?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • CV, hepatic, renal, or thyroid disease (check potassium in ESRD)
  • DM
  • Malnutrition
  • Use of digoxin or diuretics
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18
Q

When is it recommended to get a Glucose level preop?

A

DM – glucose level determination on day of surgery

Severe obesity

Use of steroids

*maybe get a HgbA1c as well

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19
Q

When is it recommended to get LFT labs preop?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Hepatic disease
  • Recent hepatitis exposure
  • Undiagnosed bleeding disorder
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20
Q

When is it recommended to get a Platelet count preop?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Hepatic disease
  • Bleeding disorder (person or family history)
  • Hematologic malignancy
  • Recent chemo or radiation therapy
  • Thrombocytopenia
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21
Q

When is it recommended to get a PT and PTT preop?

A

PT: alcohol abuse, hepatic disease, malnutrition, bleeding disorder, use of warfarin

PTT: bleeding disorder, undiagnosed hypercoagulable state, use of unfractionated heparin

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22
Q

When is it recommended to get TSH, T3, and T4 levels preop?

A

Goiter

Thyroid disease

Unexplained dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations, tachycardia

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23
Q

When is it recommended to get a pregnancy test preop?

A

Offer to female patient of childbearing age and for whom the result would alter the patient’s management

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24
Q

When does a preop 12-lead ECG have no benefit?

A

Class III:

-routine preop resting 12-lead is not useful for asymptomatic pts undergoing low-risk surgical procedures

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25
Q

When can a preop 12-lead ECG be considered?

A

Class IIb:

-considered for asymptomatic pts without known coronary heart disease, except for those undergoing low-risk surgery

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26
Q

When is a preop 12-lead ECG reasonable?

A

Class IIa:

-reasonable for pts with known coronary heart disease, significant arrhythmia, PAD, cerebrovascular disease, or other significant structural heart disease, except those undergoing low-risk surgery

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27
Q

When is it recommended to get an Echo and evaluation of LV function preop?

A

Patients with:

  • diastolic murmurs
  • continuous murmurs
  • late systolic murmurs
  • murmurs associated with ejection clicks
  • murmurs that radiate to the neck or back
  • grade 3 or louder systolic murmurs

LV function:

  • pts with dyspnea of unknown origin
  • current or previous HF with worsening dyspnea or other change in clinical status if not performed within 12 months
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28
Q

What are the clinical characteristics to consider when deciding to get Pulmonary Function Tests preop?

A
  • Type and invasiveness of the surgical procedure
  • Interval from previous evaluation
  • Treated or symptomatic asthma
  • Symptomatic COPD
  • Scoliosis with restrictive function
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29
Q

What are the predictors of postop pulmonary complications?

A
  • Advanced age
  • HF
  • COPD
  • Smoking
  • General health status
  • OSA
30
Q

What are the components of a preanesthesia interview and exam?

A
  1. Introduce yourself and break the ice
  2. NPO status
  3. Medication
  4. Allergies
  5. Known medical conditions
  6. Past anesthetics – PONV? Difficult airway? MH? etc…
  7. Smoking, alcohol, or drug use
  8. Review of systems – auscultation of heart and lung sounds
  9. Airway exam (ask to open mouth wide and protrude tongue – don’t say “ah”)
31
Q

What are the NPO guidelines?

A

8 hours - food and fluids

6 hours - light meal (toast, clear liquids), infant formula, non human milk

4 hours - breast milk

2 hours - clear liquids only

32
Q

What is the STOP-BANG questionnaire? What does it stand for?

A

An anesthesia preop screen for OSA:

  • Snoring (loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
  • Tired (often tired or sleepy during daytime)
  • Observed (stop breathing during sleep)
  • Blood Pressure (treatment of HTN?)
  • BMI (>35)
  • Age (over 50)
  • Neck Circumference (>40cm)
  • Gender (male)

*High risk for OSA = yes to 5 or more items

33
Q

When should antidepressant, antianxiety, and psychiatric medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Should always be continued

34
Q

When should antihypertensives be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Generally to be continued

Consider discontinuing ACE inhibitors or ARBs 12-24 hr before surgery if taken only for HTN (especially w/ lengthy procedures, significant blood loss or fluid shifts, use of GA, multiple antihypertensive medications, well-controlled BP)
*hypotension is particularly dangerous

35
Q

When should Aspirin be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue:

  • known vascular disease
  • drug eluting stents for less than 12 months
  • bare metal stents for less than a month
  • before cataract surgery (if no bulbar block)
  • before vascular surgery
  • taken for secondary prophylaxis

Discontinue 5-7 days before surgery:

  • if risk of bleeding > risk of thrombosis
  • surgeries with serious consequences from bleeding
  • taken only for primary prophylaxis (no known vascular disease, no stents, strokes, or MI)
36
Q

When should Asthma medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

should always continue

37
Q

When should autoimmune medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue methotrexate if no risk of renal failure

Discontinue:

  • Methotrexate if risk of renal failure
  • Entanercept, Infliximab, Adalimumab – check with prescriber
38
Q

When should birth control pills be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

should always be continued

39
Q

When should cardiac medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

generally continued preop

40
Q

When should Clopidogrel (Plavix) be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue:

  • Pts with drug eluting stents for less than 12 months
  • Pts with bare metal stents for less than a month
  • Before cataract surgery (if no bulbar block)

Discontinue 7 days before surgery in everyone not listed above

41
Q

When should COX-2 inhibitors be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Discontinue if surgeon is concerned about bone healing

42
Q

When should Diuretics be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue Triamterene and Hydrochlorothiazide

Discontinue potent loop diuretics

43
Q

When should Estrogen compounds be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue when used for birth control or cancer therapy

Discontinue when used to control menopause symptoms or for osteoporosis

44
Q

When should GI reflux medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue use of Histamine antagonists, PPIs, gastric motility agents

Discontinue use of particulate antacids (Tums)

45
Q

When should herbals and nonvitamin supplements be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Discontinue use 7-14 days before surgery

46
Q

When should Oral DM medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Discontinue oral hypoglycemic agents day of surgery

47
Q

When should Insulin be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A
DM Type 1 -- take 1/3 of intermediate to long acting (NPH, lente)
DM Type 2 -- take up to 1/2 long acting (NPH) or combination (70/30) preparations
Decrease Glargine (Lantus) if dose is >1 unit/kg
Insulin Pump -- continue lowest night time basal rate

Discontinue regular insulin (exception insulin pump) and if blood sugar level <100

48
Q

When should NSAIDs be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

discontinue 48 hours before day of surgery (5 half lives)

** In high risk procedures

49
Q

When should Narcotics or seizure medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue use of narcotics if used for pain or addiction

Continue seizure medications

50
Q

When should statins or thyroid medications be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

both should be continued

51
Q

When should Warfarin be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

Continue in cataract surgery (no bulbar block)

Discontinue 5 days before surgery
*typically bridge with heparin (stop heparin 4 hours prior to surgery)

52
Q

When should beta blockers be continued and discontinued on day of surgery?

A

continue use in patients who take them to treat angina, symptomatic arrhythmias, or HTN

53
Q

When should Steroids be continued and discontinued on day of surgery? How does this affect the HPA?

A

Take usual dose of steroids on the day of surgery

Stress-associated adrenal insufficiency in some patients may require additional steroids periop

  • HPA is not suppressed with less than 5 mg/day of prednisone or its equivalent – do not need stress-dose of steroids
  • HPA is suppressed with more than 20 mg/day of prednisone or its equivalent when taken for more than 3 weeks
54
Q

What characteristics are used to predict difficult mask?

A

MMMMASK:

  • Male
  • Mask seal which is affected by beard or being edentulous
  • Mallampati grade 3 or 4
  • Mandibular protrusion
  • Age
  • Snoring and OSA
  • Kilograms (weight)

OBESE:

  • Obese (BMI >26)
  • Bearded
  • Edentulous
  • Snoring
  • Elderly (>55)
55
Q

What sleep study determines severity of OSA?

A

Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI)

-calculated by dividing the number of apnea events by the number of hours of sleep

  • Normal = AHI <5
  • Mild Sleep Apnea = 5 < AHI < 15
  • Moderate = 15 < AHI <30
  • Severe = AHI >30
56
Q

What components need to be met before informed consent can be obtained?

A
  1. Competence to understand
  2. Voluntary decision making
  3. Disclosure of material information
  4. Recommendation of a plan
  5. Comprehension of 4, 5, & 6
  6. Decision in favor of plan
  7. Authorization of the plan
57
Q

What are commonly disclosed risks with general anesthesia?

A

Frequently Occurring/Minimal Impact:

  • Oral or dental damage
  • Sore throat or Hoarseness
  • PONV
  • Drowsiness/Confusion
  • Urinary retention

Infrequently Occurring/Severe:

  • Awareness
  • Visual loss
  • Aspiration
  • Organ failure
  • MH
  • Drug reaction
  • Failure to wake up or recover
  • Death
58
Q

What are commonly disclosed risks with regional anesthesia?

A

Frequently Occurring/Minimal Impact:

  • Prolonged numbness/weakness
  • Post-dural puncture headache
  • Failure of technique

Infrequently Occurring/Severe:

  • Bleeding
  • Infection
  • Nerve damage/paralysis
  • Persistent numbness/weakenss
  • Seizures, Coma, Death
59
Q

What are disclosed risks of anesthesia in pediatrics?

A

Bronchospasms (recent URI)

Bruising from IV placement

Emergence Delirium

60
Q

What considerations influence the choice of anesthetic technique?

A
  • Coexisting diseases
  • Site of surgery
  • Position of pt during surgery
  • Risk of aspiration
  • Age of pt
  • Pt cooperation
  • Anticipated ease of airway management
  • Coagulation status
  • Previous response to anesthesia
  • Preference of pt
  • Postop pain control needs
61
Q

What are the three basic types of anesthesia?

A

General Anesthesia: produces a loss of sensation/perception throughout the entire body

Regional Anesthesia: produces a loss of sensation/perception to a specific region of the body

Local Anesthesia: produces a loss of sensation to a small specific area of the body

62
Q

What is the definition of Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)?

A

a specific anesthesia service in which an anesthesia provider has been requested to participate in the care of a patient undergoing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure

  • LA may or may not be admin by the surgeon or proceduralist
  • Depth of sedation can range from none to deep sedation
  • Always be prepared for GA if need be
  • Not appropriate for uncooperative pts or where pain can’t be controlled by topical or LA

**MAC does not = Sedation

63
Q

What is considered minimal depth of sedation?

A

Responsiveness: normal response to verbal stimulation

Airway: unaffected

Spont Ventilation: unaffected

CV Function: unaffected

BIS: 80-90

64
Q

What is considered moderate (conscious) depth of sedation?

A

Responsiveness: purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation

Airway: no intervention required

Spont Ventilation: adequate

CV Function: usually maintained

BIS: 70-80

65
Q

What is considered deep depth of sedation

A

Responsiveness: purposeful response to repeated or painful stimulation

Airway: intervention may be required

Spont Ventilation: ventilation may be inadequate

CV Function: usually maintained

BIS: 60-70

66
Q

What is considered general anesthesia depth of sedation?

A

Responsiveness: unarousable even with painful stimulus

Airway: intervention often required

Spont Ventilation: frequently inadequate

CV Function: may be impaired

BIS: 40-60

67
Q

What are the components of general anesthesia? Risks?

A

Immobility, Amnesia, Analgesia

  • drug induced state, not arousable even by painful stimulus
  • you must be able to breathe for the pt

Risks: aspiration, airway compromise, hypotension leading to CVA, MI, and increased PONV

68
Q

What are they types of regional anesthesia? Risks?

A

Neuraxial = spinal, epidural, and caudal

Peripheral = extremity blocks (cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral plexus), truncal and chest

*avoids risks of GA or can combine with GA for post op pain control

Risks: bruising bleeding, infection, nerve injury, LAST, hypotension (spinal/epidural)

69
Q

What are the contraindications of regional anesthesia?

A
  • preference/experience of pt, anesthesia provider, and surgeon
  • need for immediate postop neurologic exam in anatomic area
  • coagulopathy
  • preexisting neurologic disease (MS, neurofibromatosis)
  • infected or abnormal skin at planned cutaneous puncture site

Specific considerations for neuraxial anesthesia:

  • hypovolemia increases risk of significant hypotension
  • coagulopathy increases risk of epidural hematoma
  • increased intracranial pressure may result in cerebral herniation with intentional or inadvertent dural puncture
70
Q

What can you with each Mallampati classification?

A

I: soft palate, uvula, fauces, pillars

II: soft palate, uvula, fauces

III: soft palate, base of uvula

IV: hard palate only