Week 7 Lecture 1 Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Atelectasis is a medical condition characterized by the collapse or incomplete expansion of a part or all of the lung.

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3
Q

What can cause atelectasis?

A

Various reasons including blockage of the airways, pressure from outside the lung, or weakened lung tissue.

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4
Q

What is resorption atelectasis?

A

Resorption atelectasis occurs when the airway leading to a portion of the lung is blocked, preventing air from reaching the alveoli.

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5
Q

What are the major causes of resorption atelectasis?

A
  • Aspiration of a foreign body blocking a conducting airway
  • Tumor or other growth
  • A mucous plug
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6
Q

What is compression atelectasis?

A

Compression atelectasis happens when there is external pressure on the lung, preventing it from expanding fully.

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7
Q

What are common causes of compression atelectasis?

A
  • Tumor
  • Enlarged lymph nodes
  • Fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
  • Pneumothorax
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8
Q

What is the role of the pleura?

A

The pleura provides protection, lubrication, and support to the lungs during breathing.

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9
Q

What are the two layers of the pleura?

A
  • Visceral Pleura
  • Parietal Pleura
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10
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Pleural effusion is an abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural space.

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11
Q

What are the two major types of pleural effusions?

A
  • Transudative
  • Exudative
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12
Q

What characterizes transudative pleural effusion?

A

Transudate is protein- and cell-poor fluid that accumulates due to an imbalance of Starling forces.

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13
Q

What are common causes of exudative pleural effusions?

A
  • Malignant diseases
  • Inflammatory conditions
  • Infectious diseases
  • Vascular issues
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14
Q

What is a parapneumonic effusion?

A

Parapneumonic effusion is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural space that occurs as a complication of pneumonia.

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15
Q

What are the stages of a parapneumonic effusion?

A
  • Exudative phase
  • Fibrinopurulent stage
  • Organization stage
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16
Q

What is empyema?

A

Empyema is a collection of pus within the pleural cavity.

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17
Q

What are the clinical features of pleural effusions?

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Chest pain
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18
Q

True or False: Transudates tend to be bilateral.

A

True

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19
Q

What is the normal intrapleural pressure?

A

Normal intrapleural pressure is around -10 cm water at the lung bases.

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20
Q

What can cause a pneumothorax?

A

Trauma and obstructive lung disease can cause a pneumothorax.

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21
Q

What is the primary function of mesothelium?

A

To provide a smooth, protective surface that allows organs to move against one another with minimal friction.

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22
Q

What is the typical volume of pleural fluid present in the pleural cavity?

A

Normally, between 10 – 25 ml of pleural fluid.

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23
Q

What happens to pleural fluid production in certain medical conditions?

A

Conditions can disrupt the balance of pleural fluid production and absorption, leading to pleural effusion.

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24
Q

What is the function of the pleural fluid?

A

The pleural fluid acts as a lubricant, allowing smooth movement of the lungs during breathing.

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25
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘the sun cannot set on a parapneumonic effusion’?

A

It emphasizes the urgency of diagnosing and treating parapneumonic effusions promptly.

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26
Q

What are the two main types of influenza viruses?

A
  • Influenza A
  • Influenza B
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27
Q

What type of virus is influenza?

A

Influenza viruses are negative-sense single-stranded RNA viruses.

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28
Q

What role does hemagglutinin play in influenza?

A

Hemagglutinin allows the virus to bind to and invade the host cell.

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29
Q

What is the function of neuraminidase in influenza?

A

Neuraminidase allows the virus to disengage from the cell and spread.

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30
Q

What characterizes uncomplicated infectious pleural effusions?

A

Exudate with neutrophils, no microbes found on thoracocentesis.

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31
Q

What indicates a complicated parapneumonic effusion?

A

Bacteria invade but are cleared rapidly, with more neutrophils and protein.

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32
Q

What is the treatment for empyema?

A

Empyema may require drainage or more invasive therapy.

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33
Q

What do hemagglutinin and neuraminidase do in the influenza virus life cycle?

A

Binding and budding of the virus

Hemagglutinin binds to sialic acid-containing glycolipids or glycoproteins on respiratory cells, while neuraminidase allows the virus to disengage from the cell.

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34
Q

What is the function of PB protein in influenza viruses?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

This protein is responsible for synthesizing viral mRNAs.

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35
Q

What are the two types of proteins that act as ion channels in influenza?

A
  • Influenza A – M2
  • Influenza B – NB
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36
Q

What is the primary site of infection for influenza viruses?

A

Respiratory epithelium

This includes the cells lining the nose, throat, and lungs.

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37
Q

How does the influenza virus enter the host’s respiratory tract?

A

Through inhalation of respiratory droplets, direct contact, or contact with contaminated surfaces.

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38
Q

What happens once the influenza virus is inside the host cell?

A

Viral RNA is released and serves as a template for replication.

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39
Q

What immune responses are activated in response to influenza infection?

A
  • Innate immune response
  • Adaptive immune response
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40
Q

What is a cytokine storm in the context of influenza?

A

Excessive inflammation and cytokine release contributing to severe symptoms.

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41
Q

What are the potential severe complications of influenza infection?

A
  • Bacterial pneumonia
  • Exacerbation of chronic respiratory conditions
  • Systemic complications
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42
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

A sudden and major change in the antigenic properties of the influenza virus due to genetic reassortment.

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43
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

Gradual changes in the antigenic properties of the influenza virus due to mutations.

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44
Q

What does the ‘H’ and ‘N’ in influenza virus naming refer to?

A
  • H refers to hemagglutinin type
  • N refers to neuraminidase type
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45
Q

What are the most common influenza subtypes in humans?

A
  • H1
  • H2
  • H3
  • N1
  • N2
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46
Q

What is the typical transmission method for influenza?

A

Direct droplet transmission, usually through coughing.

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47
Q

What are the clinical features of influenza?

A
  • Cough
  • Sore throat
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Systemic symptoms like fatigue and myalgias
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48
Q

What is a common complication of influenza in children?

A

Reye syndrome

This can occur due to the administration of salicylate drugs.

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49
Q

What is the role of neuraminidase inhibitors in influenza treatment?

A

They are beneficial for severe disease if given within 48 hours of onset.

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50
Q

What is the R0 rate for SARS-CoV-2 compared to influenza?

A

R0 for SARS-CoV-2 is between 5 and 6, while for influenza it is between 1 and 2.

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51
Q

What structural proteins are encoded by the SARS-CoV-2 genome?

A
  • S (spike)
  • E (envelope)
  • M (membrane)
  • N (nucleocapsid)
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52
Q

How does SARS-CoV-2 enter host cells?

A

By binding to the ACE2 enzyme after cleavage of the spike protein by TMPRSS2.

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53
Q

What is the consequence of the cytokine storm in COVID-19?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and multi-organ system stimulation.

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54
Q

What is the primary mechanism of viral replication for SARS-CoV-2?

A

Translation in the cytoplasm followed by cleavage by host and viral proteases.

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55
Q

What is a significant difference between antigenic shift and drift?

A

Antigenic shift involves major changes through gene swapping, while drift involves minor mutations.

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56
Q

What are the common respiratory symptoms of influenza?

A

Cough, sore throat, and nasal congestion.

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57
Q

What is the incubation period for influenza symptoms?

A

Typically averages 2 days (1-4 days).

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58
Q

What promotes viral uptake by cleaving ACE2 and activating the SARS-CoV-2 S-protein?

A

The serine protease TMPRSS2

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59
Q

During early infection, where can viral copy numbers be high?

A

In the lower respiratory tract

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60
Q

Which types of cells release inflammatory signaling molecules during infection?

A
  • Infected cells
  • Alveolar macrophages
  • Recruited T lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
  • Neutrophils
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61
Q

What activates kinin receptors on the lung endothelium during late lung inflammation?

A

Plasma and tissue kallikreins release kinins

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62
Q

What effect do kinins have on vascular smooth muscle?

A

Leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation and increased vascular permeability

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63
Q

Which receptor controls the process of vascular leakage in the lungs?

A

ACE2 receptor

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64
Q

What are the consequences of dysregulated proinflammatory cytokine release?

A
  • Pulmonary edema fills the alveolar spaces
  • Hyaline membrane formation
  • Compatible with early-phase acute respiratory distress syndrome
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65
Q

What can anomalous coagulation result in during COVID-19?

A

Formation of microthrombi and subsequent thrombotic sequelae

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66
Q

What types of immunity play important roles in acute SARS-CoV-2 infection?

A
  • Cell-mediated immunity
  • Humoral immunity
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67
Q

Which immune response is thought to be more important in controlling infection during COVID-19?

A

T cell responses

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68
Q

What is observed about T cell responses in mild COVID-19 patients compared to moderate to severe patients?

A

T cell responses were higher in mild COVID-19 patients

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69
Q

What do studies suggest about antibody responses in moderate to severe COVID-19 patients?

A

More robust antibody responses compared to mild disease patients

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70
Q

What is the incubation period for COVID-19?

A

2 to 14 days (median 5-6 days)

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71
Q

What percentage of COVID-19 patients remain asymptomatic?

A

Approximately 30%

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72
Q

What are some mild to moderate symptoms of COVID-19?

A
  • Fever or chills
  • Cough (can be productive)
  • Shortness of breath
  • Fatigue
  • Muscle or body aches
  • Headache
  • Loss of taste or smell (10%)
  • Sore throat
  • Congestion or runny nose
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Diarrhea
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73
Q

What are some severe symptoms of COVID-19?

A
  • Dyspnea (severe)
  • Cyanosis
  • Chest pain (could be angina)
  • Confusion
  • Inability to wake or stay awake
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74
Q

What percentage of COVID-19 patients may require oxygen support due to lower respiratory symptoms?

75
Q

What unique condition can develop in COVID-19 patients regarding hypoxemia?

A

Significant hypoxemia (oxygen saturation < 90%) but limited dyspnea and respiratory discomfort

76
Q

What is the estimated mortality rate of COVID-19?

A

Just over 2%

77
Q

What are some risk factors for severe complications and viral pneumonia in COVID-19 patients?

A
  • Advanced age (>80% of deaths occur in people over age 65)
  • Male sex
  • Racial and ethnic minorities
  • Chronic conditions (cardiovascular disease, chronic kidney disease, diabetes, obesity, malignancy)
  • Immunocompromised individuals
78
Q

What are some complications associated with COVID-19?

A
  • Death
  • Heart attack & myocarditis
  • Cerebrovascular disease
  • Ischemic stroke due to hypercoagulability
  • Acute kidney injury (acute renal failure)
79
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Atelectasis is a medical condition characterized by the collapse or incomplete expansion of a part or all of the lung.

80
Q

What are the major types of atelectasis?

A
  • Acquired atelectasis
  • Resorption atelectasis
  • Compression atelectasis
  • Contraction atelectasis
81
Q

What causes resorption atelectasis?

A

It occurs when the airway leading to a portion of the lung is blocked, preventing air from reaching the alveoli.

82
Q

What can lead to contraction atelectasis?

A

Scarring or fibrosis within the lung tissue, which prevents proper expansion of the affected area.

83
Q

True or False: Atelectasis is a disease.

84
Q

What are some complications associated with atelectasis?

A
  • Pulmonary infection (pneumonia)
  • Ventilation-perfusion mismatching
  • Underlying cause for restrictive pulmonary diseases
85
Q

What is compression atelectasis?

A

It happens when there is external pressure on the lung, preventing it from expanding fully.

86
Q

What role does the pleura play?

A
  • Provides a protective barrier around the lungs
  • Lubricates lung movement
  • Supports lung structure
87
Q

What are the two layers of the pleura?

A
  • Visceral Pleura
  • Parietal Pleura
88
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

An abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural space.

89
Q

What are the two major types of pleural effusions?

A
  • Transudative
  • Exudative
90
Q

What characterizes transudate fluid?

A

Protein- and cell-poor fluid that accumulates due to imbalance of Starling forces.

91
Q

What are common causes of exudative pleural effusions?

A
  • Malignant causes (e.g., mesothelioma, lung cancer)
  • Inflammatory causes (e.g., lupus, RA)
  • Infectious causes (e.g., parapneumonic effusion)
  • Vascular causes (e.g., pulmonary emboli)
92
Q

What is a parapneumonic effusion?

A

An accumulation of fluid in the pleural space that occurs as a complication of pneumonia.

93
Q

What are the stages of a parapneumonic effusion?

A
  • Exudative phase
  • Fibrinopurulent stage
  • Organization stage
94
Q

What symptoms are caused by pleural effusions?

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Chest pain
95
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘the sun cannot set on a parapneumonic effusion’?

A

It emphasizes the urgency of diagnosing and treating parapneumonic effusions promptly.

96
Q

How much pleural fluid is normally present in the pleural cavity?

A

Between 10 – 25 ml.

97
Q

What is empyema?

A

A collection of pus within the pleural cavity.

98
Q

What is the normal intrapleural pressure?

A

Around -10 cm water at the lung bases.

99
Q

What can cause a pneumothorax?

A

Presence of air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse.

100
Q

What is the primary function of the mesothelium?

A

To provide a smooth, protective surface that allows organs to move against one another with minimal friction.

101
Q

Fill in the blank: The space between the visceral and parietal pleura is called the _______.

A

pleural cavity

102
Q

What is the lymphatic system’s role concerning pleural fluid?

A

It can accommodate 10 – 20X normal hourly production without accumulating significant volumes of fluid in the pleural space.

103
Q

What is a decent initial study for diagnosing pleural effusions?

A

Chest radiograph (both upright and decubitus).

104
Q

Which imaging technique is better than X-ray for detecting pleural effusions?

A

Ultrasound.

105
Q

Which imaging technique is likely better than ultrasound for detecting pleural effusions?

106
Q

What is thoracocentesis used for?

A

It can be diagnostic and therapeutic.

107
Q

What is a potential complication of thoracocentesis?

A

Pneumothorax.

108
Q

What is the prognosis for malignancies that have metastasized to the pleura?

A

Very poor prognosis.

109
Q

What is the higher mortality and morbidity associated with?

A

Ineffectively treated parapneumonic effusions that progress to empyema.

110
Q

How are parapneumonic effusions typically treated?

A

By draining the fluid and sometimes using clot-busting drugs and DNA-ase enzymes.

111
Q

What two meanings does ‘influenza’ refer to?

A
  • Syndrome
  • Microbe.
112
Q

What are the systemic symptoms of the influenza syndrome?

A
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Myalgia.
113
Q

What respiratory symptoms are associated with influenza?

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Cough (lower)
  • URTI symptoms like rhinitis, sinusitis, or otitis.
114
Q

What are the two most clinically important types of influenza?

A
  • Influenza A
  • Influenza B.
115
Q

What type of virus are influenza A and B?

A

Orthomyxoviruses.

116
Q

What kind of RNA do influenza viruses contain?

A

Negative-sense single-stranded RNA.

117
Q

What is required to convert the RNA genome of influenza into a readable form?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

118
Q

What major proteins are clinically relevant for influenza?

A
  • Neuraminidase
  • Viral hemagglutinin
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase proteins.
119
Q

What does the hemagglutinin spike do?

A

Allows the virus to bind to and invade the host cell.

120
Q

What does the neuraminidase spike allow the virus to do?

A

Disengage from the cell and spread.

121
Q

What is the role of PB protein in influenza?

A

It is an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase transported into the nucleus for mRNA production.

122
Q

What are the ion channel proteins specific to influenza A and B?

A
  • Influenza A – M2
  • Influenza B – NB.
123
Q

What is the life cycle of Influenza A or B characterized by?

A
  • Binding due to hemagglutinin
  • Budding due to neuraminidase.
124
Q

What is the pathogenesis of influenza primarily characterized by?

A

Complex interplay between the virus and the host’s immune response.

125
Q

What cells do influenza viruses primarily infect?

A

Respiratory epithelium.

126
Q

How does the virus enter the host’s respiratory tract?

A

Through inhalation of respiratory droplets, direct contact, or contact with contaminated surfaces.

127
Q

What happens once the virus enters the host cell?

A

The viral RNA is released into the cytoplasm for synthesis and replication.

128
Q

What immune responses are activated against influenza?

A
  • Innate immune response
  • Adaptive immune response.
129
Q

What can excessive inflammation and cytokine release lead to?

A

Cytokine storm and severe complications.

130
Q

What typically happens after the host’s immune response controls the virus?

A

Recovery from influenza illness.

131
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

Large changes in RNA sequence due to gene swapping between virus strains.

132
Q

Which influenza type does antigenic shift occur in?

A

Influenza A.

133
Q

What is the result of antigenic drift?

A

Smaller, point-mutation type changes in the RNA genome.

134
Q

What does antigenic drift lead to?

A

Emergence of new variants or strains within the same subtype.

135
Q

What does ‘H’ and ‘N’ refer to in influenza naming?

A
  • H refers to hemagglutinin type
  • N refers to neuraminidase type.
136
Q

What influenza subtypes are most relevant in humans?

A
  • H1
  • H2
  • H3
  • N1
  • N2.
137
Q

What factors determine the severity of influenza epidemics or pandemics?

A
  • Antibody effectiveness
  • Ability to be passed from human to human
  • Other virulence factors.
138
Q

What is a characteristic of H5N1 (‘avian flu’)?

A

Has a very high mortality rate but poor human-to-human transmission.

139
Q

What is usually the most common and severe complication of influenza?

A

Bacterial superinfection leading to pneumonia.

140
Q

What are common systemic complications associated with influenza?

A
  • Myositis
  • Myocarditis
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome.
141
Q

What is the primary method of diagnosing influenza?

A

Clinical diagnosis.

142
Q

What tests confirm influenza diagnosis?

A

NAAT tests (nasopharyngeal swab).

143
Q

What type of treatment can reduce influenza symptoms?

A

Vaccinations.

144
Q

What are neuraminidase inhibitors used for?

A

To treat severe disease or high-risk patients if given within 48 hours of onset.

145
Q

What virus causes COVID-19?

A

SARS-CoV-2.

146
Q

What kind of virus is SARS-CoV-2?

A

Betacoronavirus.

147
Q

What is the genome type of SARS-CoV-2?

A

Single linear RNA segment of nearly 30,000 nucleotides.

148
Q

What are the structural proteins encoded by the SARS-CoV-2 genome?

A
  • S (spike)
  • E (envelope)
  • M (membrane)
  • N (nucleocapsid).
149
Q

What is the typical transmission method for SARS-CoV-2?

A

Droplet transmission.

150
Q

What appearance does the virus give that resembles a crown?

A

Crown of thorns or a solar corona

151
Q

Name three surface proteins of the virus.

A
  • Hemagglutinin-acetylesterase glycoprotein
  • Membrane glycoprotein
  • Small envelope glycoprotein
152
Q

What type of transmission involves larger droplets that fall to the ground quickly?

A

Droplet transmission

153
Q

What type of droplets can remain airborne for much longer?

A

Smaller droplets (aerosols)

154
Q

How can the virus be transmitted from surfaces?

A

Contact from colonized surface (hands, inanimate objects) to respiratory tract/eyes

155
Q

What are the initial targets for viral colonization/replication?

A

Nasopharyngeal/oropharyngeal cells

156
Q

List other cells that can be invaded/colonized by SARS-CoV-2.

A
  • Bronchial epithelium
  • Alveolar epithelial cells
  • Vascular endothelial cells
  • Alveolar macrophages
157
Q

What cells in the body express ACE-2?

A
  • Enterocytes
  • Cholangiocytes
  • Myocardial cells
  • Kidney cells
  • Bladder urothelial cells
158
Q

Why is COVID-19 so transmissible?

A

It replicates in the upper airways

159
Q

At what stages can the virus replicate in the upper airways?

A
  • Symptomatic stage
  • Pre-symptomatic stage
160
Q

What are the R0 rates for COVID-19 compared to influenza?

A

COVID-19 R0 rate is between 5 and 6; influenza is between 1 and 2

161
Q

Does enteric replication impact transmissibility?

A

No one is sure – likely not

162
Q

What impact does enteric replication have during symptomatic phases?

A

It seems to exacerbate inflammation

163
Q

What does the spike protein bind to on cells?

A

ACE2 enzyme

164
Q

What allows for viral entry after the spike protein is cleaved?

A

Cleavage by TMPRSS2 (transmembrane protease serine 2)

165
Q

What forms after the cleavage of the spike protein?

166
Q

What happens to the viral genome after it enters the cytoplasm?

A

Translation in a polyprotein followed by cleavage by host and viral proteases

167
Q

List some functions performed by viral proteins.

A
  • Continued replication (RNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
  • Viral particle assembly
  • Inhibition of type I interferons
168
Q

What is the rate of mutation for the virus compared to influenza?

A

Relatively low rate of mutation due to exonuclease activity

169
Q

What is a cytokine storm?

A

A hyperactive immune response leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to highly virulent viruses like H5N1, H1N1, and COVID-19.

Cytokine storms are characterized by the excessive release of proinflammatory cytokines.

170
Q

Which proinflammatory cytokines are primarily involved in a cytokine storm?

A

Interferon-γ, TNF-α, IL-1, IL-6

These cytokines stimulate multiple organ systems and contribute to the immune response.

171
Q

What role do T cells and natural killer cells play in a cytokine storm?

A

They are rapidly proliferating and highly activated by infected macrophages.

This activation is part of the immune response to combat viral infections.

172
Q

What cells does SARS-CoV-2 infect during the early stage of disease?

A

Bronchial epithelial cells, type I and type II alveolar pneumocytes, capillary endothelial cells.

These infections are crucial for the onset of lung inflammation.

173
Q

What is the function of the serine protease TMPRSS2 in SARS-CoV-2 infection?

A

It promotes viral uptake by cleaving ACE2 and activating the SARS-CoV-2 S-protein.

This mechanism facilitates the entry of the virus into host cells.

174
Q

What occurs during late lung inflammation in COVID-19?

A

Release of kinins activates kinin receptors, leading to vascular smooth muscle relaxation and increased vascular permeability.

This process is controlled by the ACE2 receptor.

175
Q

What are the consequences of ACE2 being blocked during COVID-19?

A

Increased vascular leakage, angioedema, and downstream activation of coagulation.

This can lead to significant lung damage and complications.

176
Q

What are the early signs of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in COVID-19?

A

Pulmonary edema fills alveolar spaces, followed by hyaline membrane formation.

This is a result of dysregulated proinflammatory cytokine release.

177
Q

What types of immunity are involved in acute SARS-CoV-2 infection?

A

Cell-mediated and humoral immunity.

Both types play important roles in controlling the infection.

178
Q

How do T cell responses differ between mild and severe COVID-19 patients?

A

T cell responses are higher in mild COVID-19 patients compared to moderate to severe patients.

This suggests a potential correlation between T cell activity and disease severity.

179
Q

What is the incubation period for COVID-19?

A

2 to 14 days (median 5-6 days).

Symptoms typically develop within this timeframe.

180
Q

What percentage of COVID-19 patients remain asymptomatic?

A

Approximately 30%.

This highlights the variability in disease presentation.

181
Q

What are common mild to moderate symptoms of COVID-19?

A

Fever, cough, shortness of breath, fatigue, muscle aches, headache, loss of taste or smell, sore throat, congestion, nausea, diarrhea.

Approximately 80% of symptomatic cases fall into this category.

182
Q

What severe symptoms may indicate a critical case of COVID-19?

A

Dyspnea, cyanosis, chest pain, confusion, inability to stay awake.

These symptoms can indicate respiratory failure or multi-organ issues.

183
Q

What is the estimated mortality rate of COVID-19?

A

Just over 2%.

The death toll is approximately 7 million worldwide, primarily due to pneumonia.

184
Q

What are some risk factors for severe complications from COVID-19?

A

Advanced age, male sex, racial and ethnic minorities, chronic conditions (cardiovascular disease, chronic kidney disease, diabetes, obesity, malignancy), immunocompromised status.

Over 80% of deaths occur in people over age 65.