Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of hypercoagulability during childbirth

A

■ Factor VIII complex increases during labor and birth.
■ Factor V increases following placental separation.
■ Platelet activity increases at delivery.
■ Fibrin formation increases at delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the criteria for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

blood loss greater than 500 mL for vaginal deliveries and 1,000 mL for cesarean deliveries with a 10% drop in hemoglobin and/or hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main causes of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony, retained placental fragments, lower general tract lacerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

about how many people experience postpartum hemorrhage after a childbirth?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are major complications of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Hemorrhagic shock due to hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the difference between primary and secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Primary occurs within the 1st 24 hours and is due to uterine anatomy, lacerations and or hematoma. Secondary occurs more than 24 hours post birth and due to hematomas, subinvolution, or retain placental tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the risk factors of postpartum hemorrhage related to the baby?

A

■ Neonatal macrosomia: Birth weight greater than
4,000 grams
■ Chorioamnionitis
■ Congenital or acquired coagulation defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the major cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the risk factors of postpartum hemorrhage related to the mother?

A

■ Maternal obesity
■ High parity
■ Prior PPH
■ Operative vaginal delivery: Use of forceps or vacuum extractor
■ Augmented or induced labor
■ Ineffective uterine contractions during labor: Prolonged first and second stage of labor
■ Precipitous labor and/or birth
■ Polyhydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are 5 indications of primary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

■ A 10% decrease in the hemoglobin and/or hematocrit postbirth
■ Saturation of the peripad within 15 minutes
■ A fundus that remains boggy after fundal massage
■ Tachycardia (late sign)
■ Decrease in blood pressure (late sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some medical managements to postpartum hemorrhage?

A

■ Bimanual compression of the uterus
■ Medications
■ Non-surgical interventions such as uterine packing
■ Surgical interventions such as hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some IV therapies to reduce the risk of hypovolemia in postpartum hemorrhage?

A

■ Isotonic, non-dextrose crystalloid solutions (normal saline
or lactated Ringer’s solution)
■ A ratio of 3 to 1: 3 liters of IV solution for each liter of
estimated blood loss
■ Blood replacement to reduce risk for hemorrhagic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are medications to administer in postpartum hemorrhage? And how do they work?

A

Oxytocin, methylergonovine, and carboprost to stimulate uterine contractions
■ Dinoprostone and misoprostol may be ordered but are not FDA approved for treatment of uterine atony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some non surgical interventions for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Non-surgical interventions such as uterine packing with gauze or uterine tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a surgical intervention for postpartum hemorrhage was remark

A

■ Surgical interventions such as hysterectomy may be indicated when all other treatments have failed to contract the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the second most common causes of primary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Lacerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are common sites of laceration during childbirth?

A

cervix, vagina, labia, and perineum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the risk factors of lacerations?

A

■ Fetal macrosomia
■ Operative vaginal delivery: Use of forceps or vacuum
extraction
■ Precipitous labor and/or birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the assessment findings of a Postpartum hemorrhage from a laceration?

A

■ A firm uterus that is midline with heavier than normal
bleeding
■ Bleeding is usually a steady stream without clots.
■ Tachycardia
■ Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some nursing actions to take for a woman with lacerations and a postpartum hemorrhage?

A

■ Monitor vital signs and blood losss
■ Notify the physician or midwife of increased bleeding and firm fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When and where do hematomas occur?

A

Hematomas occur when blood collects within the connective tissues of the vagina or perineal areas related to a vessel that ruptures and continues to bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some risk factors for hematoma as postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Episiotomy is the major risk factor
■ Use of forceps
■ Prolonged second stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some assessment findings in a hematoma related to postpartum hemorrhage?

A

■ Presence of tachycardia and hypo
■ Hematomas in the perineal area present with swelling, discoloration, and tenderness.
severe pain in the vagina/perineal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can a hematoma after childbirth displace the uterus?

A

Hematomas with an accumulation of 200 to 500 mL can become large enough to displace the uterus and cause uterine atony, which can increase the degree of blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What kind of pain do woman express when they have hematomas after childbirth?

A

severe pain in the vagina/perineal area, and the intensity of pain cannot be controlled by standard postpartum pain management.
express severe pain, a heaviness or fullness in the vagina, and/or rectal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the medical management of postpartum hematomas?

A

■ Small hematomas are evaluated and monitored without surgical intervention.
■ Large hematomas are surgically excised and the blood evacuated. The open vessel is identified and ligated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nursing actions for hematomas and PPH?

A

■ Apply ice to the perineum for the first 24 hours to decrease the risk of hematoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is it called when the uterus does not decrease in size and does not descend into the pelvis?

A

subinvolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does subinvolution of the uterus usually occur?

A

when the uterus does not decrease in size and does not descend into the pelvis.
later in the postpartum period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some risk factors of uterine subinvolution?

A

■ Fibroids ■ Metritis ■ Retained placental tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How might the assessment findings be of a uterine subinvolution?

A

■ The uterus is soft and larger than normal for the days
postpartum.
■ Lochia returns to the rubra stage and can be heavy.
■ Back pain is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the medical management of subinvolution of a uterus including diagnosis and pharmacological and procedural

A

■ Medical intervention depends on the cause of the
subinvolution.
■ A dilation and curettage (D&C) is performed for retained placental tissue.
■ Methergine PO is prescribed for fibroids.
■ Antibiotic therapy is initiated for metritis
Ultrasound evaluation to identify intrauterine tissue or subinvolution of the placental site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is some education to provide to a woman who has a uterine sub involution

A

Provide education on ways to reduce risk for infection, such as changing peripads frequently, hand washing, nutrition, adequate fluid intake, and adequate rest
Monitor and report increased bleeding, clots, or a change in the lochia to bright red bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

those who have fibroids are at a risk for what? And what are they given at discharge?

A

women who have fibroids are at risk for subinvolution. Provide instruction on the proper use of discharge medication, since these women are usually discharged with an order for Methergine PO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Retained Placental Tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The retained placental tissue can interfere with _________ and can lead to _______.

A

involution of the uterus
metritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

It’s a risk factor to retained placental tissue

A

■ Manual removal of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the assement findings of retained placental tissue?

A

■ Profuse bleeding that suddenly occurs after the first
postpartum week
■ Subinvolution of the uterus
■ Elevated temperature and uterine tenderness if metritis is
present
■ Pale skin color
■ Tachycardia
■ Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the medical management of retained placental tissue?

A

D&C is performed to remove retained placental tissue.
■ IV antibiotic therapy may be prescribed because of the
increased risk for metritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How often should the nurse assess the fundus and Nokia after a hemorrhage?

A

Assess the fundus and lochia every hour for first 4 hours and PRN after hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Instruct women to report to their health care provider any sudden increase in what four things?

A

lochia, bright red bleeding, elevated temperature, or uterine tenderness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why might a doctor prescribe IV antibiotic therapy after retained placental tissue removal?

A

may be prescribed because of the increased risk for metritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Retained placental tissue occurs when small portions of the ______, referred to as _____, remain attached to the uterus during the ____ stage of labor

A

Placenta, cotyledons, third

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is another word for hemabate?

A

Carboprost Tromethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the indication for hemabate?

A

PPH that has not responded to oxytocin or methylergonovine therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common side effects of hemabate?

A

Diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment of phototherapy is determined by the level of _____ and the ____ of the neonate in ____

A

Bilirubin, age, hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the different types of phototherapy systems?

A

Various types of phototherapy delivery systems are available, including blue lights, white lamps, halogen lamps, fiberoptic blankets, and blue light emitting diodes (LED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does phototherapy work?

A

y results in photoconverting bilirubin molecules to water-soluble isomers that can be excreted in the urine and stool without conjugation in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most effective colored lights for phototherapy?

A

Lights on the blue-green spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How quickly should total serum bilirubin levels drop after four to six hours of the initiation of phototherapy?

A

One to two mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How often should you administer phototherapy?

A

Continuously except for feedings or parental visits when eye patches are removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would you do if phototherapy is not effective or severe hemolytic disease is present?

A

Exchange transfusion where approximately 85% of the neonates red blood cells are replaced with donor cells. It reduces the levels of bilirubin left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how should bili lights be positioned from the infant and from the Incubator?

A

■ Fluorescent “bili lights” should be positioned 18–20 inches from the infant.
■ Fluorescent lights should be positioned 2 inches from the top of an incubator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What kind of device should be used to measure the irradiance of lamps?

A

photometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should cover the bank of lights in phototherapy?

A

Plexiglas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why should you monitor intake and output?

A

Phototherapy results in increased insensible fluid loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is it important to feed a jaundiced neonate every two to three hours?

A

important to provide adequate fluids to compensate for insensible fluid loss, and promote excretion of bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

complication of hyperbilirubinemia is _______.

A

kernicterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bilirubin accumulates within the brain and becomes toxic to the brain tissue, which causes neurological disorders such as _______, _______, _____, and _______

A

Deafness, delayed motor skills , hypotonia , intellectual deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common physiological characteristics of the neonate place the neonate that increase the risk for physiological jaundice:

A

■ Neonates have an increased RBC volume
■ RBC have a life span of 70–90 days, compared to 120 days in adults.
■ produce more bilirubin (6–8 mg/kg/day) than adults.
■ reabsorb increased amounts of unconjugated
bilirubin in the intestine due to lack of intestinal bacteria, decreased gastrointestinal motility
■ Neonates have a decreased hepatic uptake of bilirubin from the plasma due to a deficiency of ligandin, the primary bilirubin binding protein in hepatocytes.
■ Neonates have a diminished conjugation of bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risk Factors for Physiological Jaundice

A

■ Asian, Native American, and Greek ethnicity
■ Fetal hypoxia
■ ABO incompatibility (the woman is blood type O and the neonate is blood type A or B)
■ Rh incompatibility (the woman is Rh negative and the neonate is Rh positive)
■ Use of oxytocin during labor
■ Delayed cord clamping, which increases RBC volume
■ Breastfeeding
■ Delayed feedings, caloric deprivation, or large weight loss
■ Bruising or cephalohematoma
■ Gestational age of 35–38 weeks
■ Maternal diabetes with macrosomia
■ Epidural bupivacaine
■ Asphyxia
■ Older sibling with jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

________ jaundice is typically visible after 24 hours of life

A

Physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

As total serum bilirubin levels rise, jaundice will progress from the newborn’s ____ downward toward the ___ and _____ extremities

A

Head, trunk, and lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should the bilirubin normal levels be?

A

5–6 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does jaundice associated with ineffective breastfeeding happen

A

Dehydration can occur.
Delayed passage of meconium stool promotes reabsorption of bilirubin in the gut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are causes of pathological unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

HEMOLYSIS OF RBCs
Rh/ABO incompatibilities
Bacterial and viral infections
Inherited disorders of RBC/bilirubin
metabolism
Glucose-6-phospate
dehydrogenase deficiency

16
Q

How many days after delivery is endometritis usually diagnosed?

A

usually diagnosed within the first few days after delivery

16
Q

What is the most common sign of endometritis?

A

Fever is the most common sign

16
Q

What are other signs besides fever of endometritis?

A

chills, uterine tenderness, and foul smelling lochia.

16
Q

side effects of phototherapy:

A

■ Eye damage
■ Loose stools
■ Dehydration
■ Hyperthermia
■ Lethargy
■ Skin rashes
■ Abdominal distention
■ Hypocalcemia
■ Lactose intolerance
■ Thrombocytopenia
■ Bronze baby syndrome

17
Q

What is the treatment for endometritis?

A

Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and rest

18
Q

What is POST- BIRTH signs?

A

Pain in chest
Obstructed breathing or SOB
Seizure
Thought of harming baby or self
Bleeding through one pad/hr and size of an egg or larger
Incision that is not healing
Red or swollen leg that is painful or warm to touch
Temperature of 100.4°F or higher
Headache that does not get better even when taking analgesics

18
Q

What are the two primary psychological complications?

A

Postpartum depression and postpartum psychosis are the primary psychological complications.

19
Q

Approximately ___% of women will experience major mood disorders that have a profound effect on their ability to care for themselves and/or their infants

A

15%

19
Q

what is a general definition of postpartum depression?

A

the woman has a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in daily activities for at least 2 weeks

20
Q

Postpartum depression must have four of the following symptoms

A

■ Significant weight loss or gain: a change of more than
5% of body weight in a month
■ Insomnia or hypersomnia
■ Changes in psychomotor activity: agitation or retardation
■ Decreased energy or fatigue
■ Feelings of worthlessness or guilt
■ Decreased ability to concentrate; inability to make decisions
■ Recurrent thoughts of death or suicide attempt

20
Q

what is the major difference between postpartum Blues and postpartum depression?

A

PPD is disabling; the woman is unable to safely care for herself and/or her baby

20
Q

What are some risk factors to postpartum depression?

A

■ History of depression before pregnancy
■ Depression or anxiety during pregnancy
■ Inadequate social support
■ Poor quality relationship with partner
■ Life and child care stresses
■ Complications of pregnancy and/or childbirth

20
Q

What is some medical or psychiatric management for mild and moderate postpartum depression?

A

■ Mild PPD
■ Interpersonal psychotherapy
■ Moderate PPD
■ Interpersonal psychotherapy
■ Antidepressants

20
Q

What are the four primary causes of PPH in T’s?

A

Tone: uterine atony
Tissue: retained placental fragments
Trauma: lower genital track lacerations
Thrombin disorder DIC

21
Q

When would you not give hemabate?

A

Patients with asthma

21
Q

When would you not give methylergonovine?

A

Patients with htn

22
Q

What does REEDA stand for?

A

Redness, ecchymosis, edema, discharge and approximation of perineum

22
Q

A life-threatening lung disorder that results from underdeveloped and small alveoli and insufficient levels of pulmonary surfactant

A

Respiratory Distress syndrome

22
Q

What two combined factors can cause an alteration in alveoli surface tension that eventually results in atelectasis.

A

underdeveloped and small alveoli and insufficient levels of pulmonary surfactant

22
Q

The effects of atelectasis are:

A

■ Hypoxemia and hypercarbia
■ Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
■ Right-to-left shunting through the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale as the neonate’s body attempts to counteract the compromised pulmonary perfusion
■ Metabolic acidosis that occurs from a buildup of lactic acid that results from prolonged periods of hypoxemia
■ Respiratory acidosis that occurs from the collapsed alveoli being unable to expel excess carbon dioxide

22
Q

RDS affects ___% of all premature infants, the majority of these born at less than ___ weeks’ gestation

A

10%, 28

22
Q

What is pulmonary surfactant made of?

A

Pulmonary surfactant is a substance that is composed of 90% phospholipids and 10% proteins.

22
Q

■ Pulmonary surfactant is produced by _____ ___ ___ within the lungs.
■ The alveolar cells begin to produce _____
around _____ weeks and continue to term.
■ It reduces the ______ within the lungs and increases the ______ which prevents the alveoli from collapsing at the end of _____.

A

type II, alveolar cells
pulmonary surfactant, 24–28
surface tension, pulmonary compliance, expiration

23
Q

Tests used to evaluate fetal lung maturity are:

A

Phosphatidylglycerol (PG), Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio

23
Q

Where is PG synthesized, present in, and decrease the risk of what?

A

■ PG is synthesized from mature lung alveolar cells.
■ It is present in the amniotic fluid within 2–6 weeks of
full-term gestation.
■ The presence of PG indicates lung maturity and a decrease indicates risk of respiratory distress syndrome.

23
Q

Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) is detected where, and why is the ratio important?

A

■ Lecithin and sphingomyelin are two phospholipids that are
detected in the amniotic fluid.
■ The ratio between the two phospholipids provides information on the level of surfactant.

23
Q

A L/S ratio in non diabetics vs diabetics

A

■ A L/S ratio greater than 2:1 in a nondiabetic woman
indicates the fetus’s lungs are mature.
■ A L/S ratio of 3:1 in a diabetic woman indicates the
fetus’s lungs are mature.

23
Q

Complications of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) include:

A

■ Patent ductus arteriosus
■ Pneumothorax
■ Bronchopulmonary hypertension
■ Pulmonary edema
■ Hypotension
■ Anemia
■ Oliguria
■ Hypoglycemia and altered calcium and sodium levels
■ Retinopathy of prematurity
■ Seizures
■ Intraventricular hemorrhage

23
Q

The normal range of PaCO2 is :

A

35–45 mm Hg.

23
Q

The normal range of PaO2 is

A

60–70 mm Hg

23
Q

Assessment Findings of RDS in x-ray

A

X-ray exam shows a reticulogranular pattern of the peripheral lung fields and air bronchograms

23
Q

General assessment findings for RDS

A

■ Tachypnea is present.
■ Intercostal retractions; seesaw breathing patterns occur.
■ Expiratory grunting.
■ Nasal flaring is present.
■ Skin color is gray or dusky.
■ Breath sounds on auscultation are decreased. Rales are present as RDS progresses.
■ The neonate is lethargic and hypotonic.

24
Q

Acidosis may result from sustained ____ in RDS

A

hypoxemia

24
Q

Ventilation types of respiratory support for RDS

A

Oxygen therapy by mask, hood, or cannula for neonates requiring short-term oxygen support
CPAP
High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation therapy (ECMO)

24
Q

What does an ECMO do?

A

a cardiopulmonary bypass machine with a membrane oxygenator that is used when the neonate does not respond to conventional ventilator therapy. Blood shunts from the right atrium and is returned to the aorta, allowing time for the lungs to heal and mature.

24
Q

_______ and __________ may further decrease surfactant ________.

A

Hypoxemia and acidosis, surfactant production.

24
Q

Benefits of Surfactant Therapy

A

■ Prophylactic therapy decreases the occurrence of RDS and mortality in preterm neonates.
■ Decreased risk of pneumothorax
■ Decreased risk of intraventricular hemorrhage
■ Decreased risk of bronchopulmonary dysplasia
■ Decreased risk of pulmonary interstitial emphysema

24
Q

Cold stress increases _________, may promote ________, and may further impair_______.

A

oxygen consumption
acidosis
surfactant production

24
Q

Why is cold stress bad for RDS?

A

Cold stress increases oxygen consumption, may promote acidosis, and may further impair surfactant production.

24
Q

Why is dehydration and overhydration bad for RDS?

A

■ Dehydration impairs ability to clear airways because mucus becomes thickened.
■ Overhydration may contribute alveolar infiltrates or pulmonary edema

24
Q

_________ and _______ are the two most important predictors of an infant’s health and survival.

A

Period of gestation and birth weight

25
Q

________ and _________are the second leading causes of infant death in the United States, the first being ________ and ________.

A

Prematurity and low birth weight
congenital malformations and chromosomal anomalies

25
Q

how many weeks is very premature?

A

born at less than 32 weeks gestation

25
Q

how many weeks is premature?

A

Neonates born between 32 and 34 weeks gestation

25
Q

Neonates born between 34 and 36 weeks’ gestation

A

Late preterm

25
Q

which race has the most incidents of preterm neonates?

A

Non Hispanic blacks

25
Q

what is the weight for low birth weight?

A

less than 2500 grams at birth

25
Q

what is the weight for very low birth weight?

A

Less than 1500g at birth

25
Q

what is the weight for extremely low birth weight?

A

Less than 1000g at birth

26
Q

what are some common complications related to Premature birth?

A

retinopathy of prematurity, respiratory distress syndrome, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, patent ductus arteriosus, Periventricular intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis

26
Q

what is the ballard score for a preterm neonate?

A

At or below 37 weeks

26
Q

___ and ___ increase with greater gestational age.

A

Tone and flexion

27
Q

what colour is the skin of a preterm neonate?

A

Translucent, transparent, and red

27
Q

how is the fat on a preterm neonate?

A

Decreased

28
Q

about what weeks do creases on the anterior part of the foot appear?

A

28-30 weeks

29
Q

when do eyelids on a neonate open?

A

26 to 30 weeks gestation

30
Q

___ sutures are _____ among premature, low birth weight neonates

A

Overriding common

30
Q

what are some non modifiable risk factors of preterm labor and birth?

A

Previous preterm birth
Multiple abortions
Race and ethnic group
Uterine cervical anomaly
Multiple gestation
Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
Pregnancy and induced hypertension
Placenta previa after 22 weeks
DES exposure
Short interval between pregnancies
Abruptio placenta
Parody of zero or greater than 4
Premature rupture of membranes
Bleeding in first trimester

30
Q

how is the cry and reflexes of a premature neonate?

A

Tremors and jittery movement with weak cry and diminished or absent reflexes
Immature suck and swallow and breathing patterns

31
Q

what are bradycardia and apnea in neonates?

A

Sociation of breathing for at least 10 to 15 seconds and heart rate of less than 100 beats per minute

32
Q

what heart condition is related to a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Heart murmur

32
Q

why might a neonate appear pale and weak?

A

Anemia that is common amongst very low birth weight babies

32
Q

how is lung maturity in fetuses determined?

A

Lecithin or sphingomyelin ratio or phosphatidylglycerol before elective induction or cesarean birth, and for women in preterm labor.

32
Q

Corticosteroids, ________ OR _______, are administered to the pregnant woman if the woman pre - sents in preterm labor, or if preterm birth is anticipated

A

Betamethasone, dexamethasone

32
Q

corticosteroid administration results in reduced what conditions?

A

reduced respiratory distress syndrome, NEC, cerebroventricular hemorrhage, need for respiratory support, systemic infections, admission to the NICU, and neonatal death

32
Q

What is some rrespiratory interventions of neonates?

A

Nasal continuous positive airway pressure (NCPAP) or intubation

33
Q

What are some medications for preterm infants?

A

■ Sodium bicarbonate to treat metabolic acidosis if present
■ Dopamine or dobutamine for treatment of hypotension
■ Erythropoietin administration to stimulate production of RBC if indicated
■ Evidence suggests that erythropoietin administration may reduce the need for RBC transfusions among preterm/low birth weight infants
■ Antibiotic therapy as indicated to decrease risk of infection or treatment of infection
■ Opioids to treat pain associated with procedures that cause moderate to severe pain, such as with surgical procedures

33
Q

What are some invasive interventions done for a premature neonate

A

Blood transfusion if the neonate is anemic
IV fluids
Parenteral intravenous nutrition
Central line for long term parenteral nutrition
Umbilical artery and umbilical vein catheters

34
Q

what are some nursing actions to take when dealing with the respiratory system of a premature infant?

A

Assessing for respiratory distress like grunting, flaring, retracting, and cyanosis
Providing respiratory support and suctioning the airway as needed for removal of secretions
possible long term oxygen via nasal cannula or oxygen hood
Humidified oxygen

34
Q

what are ways to maintain a neutral Thermal environment for a premature baby?

A

Drying off the infant immediately
Keeping the head covered
Using plastic barriers made of polyethylene to cover preterm neonates after birth

34
Q

what are some ways to check the gavage feedings of a premature infant?

A

Check the bowel sounds, assess the abdomen for bowel loops and discoloration, Measure abdominal growth
Check with gastric residuals

35
Q

what are ways to maintain a neutral Thermal environment for a premature baby?

A

Drying off the infant immediately
Keeping the head covered
Using plastic barriers made of polyethylene to cover preterm neonates after birth

35
Q

what are some ways to check the gavage feedings of a premature infant?

A

Check the bowel sounds, assess the abdomen for bowel loops and discoloration, Measure abdominal growth
Check with gastric residuals

36
Q

what are some electrolyte imbalances that can occur with premature infants?

A

Hyperkalemia related to elevated potassium levels
Hyponatremia rrelated to low sodium levels my client and hypernatremia

36
Q

what kind of feedings do neonates get if they are on trophic feedings

A

small volume enteral feedings

37
Q

why would you give a premature infant a pacifier doing gavage feesings?

A

Nonnutritive sucking eases the transition from gavage feeding to bottle feeding, and results in decreased length of hospital stay for preterm neonates

37
Q

how would you treat a preemie’s skin?

A

■ Use adhesives sparingly
■ Change diapers frequently
■ Change positions frequently
■ Apply emollients to dry areas
■ Use water, air, or gel mattresses

37
Q

Conditions for transitioning to oral feedings occurs when the neonate:

A

■ Has cardiorespiratory regulation
■ Demonstrates a coordinated suck, swallow, and
breathe
■ Demonstrates hunger cues such as bringing hand to the
mouth, sucking on fingers
■ Maintains a quiet alert state

37
Q

Gavage feedings are appropriate for neonates who are

A

< 32 week’s gestation or who can’t safely receive oral feedings

38
Q

Procedure for gavage feeding

A
  1. Use a size 5–8 french feeding tube.
  2. Measure the OG tube from mouth to the ear, and from the ear to the lower end of the sternum.
  3. Check for proper placement after each insertion
    and before each feeding by:
    ■ Placing syringe on end of tube and pulling to remove stomach contents, and/or
    ■ Injecting a small amount of air into the tube with a syringe while listening for a whooshing/gurgling sound with a stethoscope
  4. Use tape to ensure that the tube is secured.
  5. Check for residuals before starting the feeding by aspirating stomach contents.. Note the amount, color, and consistency of the contents.
  6. Gravity or pump over 15–30 minutes.
  7. Continuous tube feedings may be ordered.
  8. To remove after the feeding, pinch it closed and remove it swiftly.
  9. Assess neonate for feeding intolerance throughout
38
Q

what are some advantages to breastfeeding a preemie?

A

Decreases the incidence of NEC

38
Q

how would you manage pain in a premature infant?

A

Assess the neonate for signs frequently
Promote non nutritive sucking during painful procedures
Administer opioids
Use swaddling, positioning, kangaroo care and therapeutic touch
Decreased environmental stimulus

39
Q

what are some ways to decrease stress and enhance neurodevelopment in a premature infant?

A

Maintain a quiet setting to decrease negative physiological responses
Keep lighting dim
Clustering activities for care
Allowing break in care if neonate becomes stressed
minimizing handling newborns who are unstable
Reposition every two to three hours
Position the neonate in sideline or prone position line Nathan degrees next flexion with both and hands placed towards the midline
Create a nest with blankets

39
Q

why would you position a neonate sideline or prone?

A

To enhance gastric emptying and oxygenation

39
Q

what are some benefits to kangaroo care?

A

■ Decreases risk of low body temperature.
■ Reduces illness, infection, and pain perception.
■ Improves daily weight gain and mother-infant attachment.
■ Decreases the length of hospital stay

40
Q

What is bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

a chronic lung problem that affects neonates who have been treated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen for problems such as RDS

40
Q

At how many weeks is a post term neonate delivered?

A

After the completion of 41 weeks gestation

40
Q

What is the threshold for macrosomia?

A

4000 to 4500 grams

40
Q

What are possible risk factors of post term neonates?

A

anencephaly
History of post term pregnancies
First pregnancy
Grand multiparous women

41
Q

Post mature neonates are at risk for what conditions?

A

Meconium aspiration
Fetal hypoxia
Neurological complications such as seizures
Hypoglycemia
Hypothermia
Polycythemia
Birth trauma

41
Q

Why a post mature neonate be at risk for meconium aspiration?

A

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid related to fetal hypoxia places the neonate at risk for meconium aspiration syndrome because the mature fetus can poop in the amniotic fluid due to fetal asphyxia

41
Q

Why would a post mature infant be at risk for fetal hypoxia?

A

related to placental insufficiency and a decrease in amniotic fluid, which increases the risk of cord compression

41
Q

Why would a neonate that is pause my chair be at risk for neurological complications?

A

asphyxia during labor and birth due to alteration in oxygenation

42
Q

What might cause they postmature infant to have hypothermia?

A

■ A lack of development of subcutaneous fat
■ Loss of subcutaneous fat related to insufficient nutrient transport through the placenta

42
Q

What is the hematocrit level that is considered polycythemia in a neonate and how does a new unit get polycythemia?

A

Polycythemia, a compensatory response, is caused by an alteration in oxygenation associated with placental insufficiency; hematocrit greater than 65% is considered polycythemia in a neonate

42
Q

Assessment Findings of postmature neonate

A

■ Dry, peeling, cracked skin
■ Lack of vernix
■ Profuse hair
■ Long fingernails
■ Thin, wasted appearance
■ Meconium staining
■ Hypoglycemia
■ Poor feeding behavior

42
Q

Medical Management of postmature neonate

A

■ Oxygen therapy administered for perinatal depression or
respiratory distress
■ Hematocrit to assess for polycythemia
■ Blood glucose monitoring for hypoglycemia

42
Q

Assess postmature neonates for:

A

■ Gestational age with use of gestational age scoring system ■ Birth trauma if neonate is macrosomic
■ Respiratory distress/cyanosis
■ Oxygen saturation if respiratory distress or cyanosis is
present
■ Signs of meconium staining
■ Blood glucose levels- hypoglycemia
■ Vital signs
■ Weight – intake and output
■ Gross anomalies

42
Q

why is it important to measure the intake and output of neonates that are post mature?

A

Postterm infants may be poor feeders and thus are at risk for inadequate fluid intake