Week 6 Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a wheal?

A

An elevated, irregularly shaped area of cutaneous edema; wheals are solid, transient, and changeable, with a variable diameter, can be red, pale, pink or white

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2
Q

describe papule

A

elevated, palpable, firm circumscribed area generally less than 5 mm in diameter

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3
Q

describe plaque

A

: elevated, flat-topped, firm, rough, superficial papulae greater than 2 cm in diameter

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4
Q

Atrophy

A

: diminution of epidermal surface; skin looks thinner and more translucent than normal

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5
Q

Keloid

A

: augmentation of scar tissue, creating a significant elevation on the skin surface after healing

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6
Q

Lichenification

A

: rough, thickened epidermis; accentuated skin markings caused by rubbing or scratching (EX chronic eczema or lichen simplex)

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7
Q

Excoriation

A

: linear scratches that may or may not be denuded

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8
Q

Erosion

A

: loss of epidermis that does not extend into the dermis

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9
Q

A 9-month-old infant has vesiculopustular lesions on the palms and soles, on the face and neck, and in skin folds of the extremities. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes linear and S-shaped burrow lesions on the parent’s hands and wrists. What is the treatment for this rash for this infant?

A Ivermectin 200 mcg/kg for 7–14 days, along with symptomatic treatment for itching

B Permethrin 5% cream applied to face, neck, and body, and rinsed off in 8–14 hours

C Treatment of all family members except the infant with permethrin 5% cream and ivermectin t

D Treatment with permethrin 5% cream for 7 days, in conjunction with ivermectin 200 mcg/kg

A

Permethrin 5% cream is the drug of choice for treating scabies and is intended for use in infants as young as 2 months of age. Infants will get lesions on the face and neck, and permethrin may be applied to the face, avoiding the eyes. Ivermectin is not recommended for children under 5 years old. Treatment must include the infant as well as all family members whether symptomatic or not.

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10
Q

A provider is considering an oral contraceptive medication to treat acne in an adolescent female. What is an important consideration when prescribing this drug? A A progesterone-only contraceptive is most beneficial for treating acneA progesterone-only contraceptive is most beneficial for treating acne B Combined oral contraceptives are effective for non-inflammatory acne onlyCombined oral contraceptives are effective for non-inflammatory acne only C Oral contraceptives are effective because of their androgen-enhancing effectsOral contraceptives are effective because of their androgen-enhancing effects D Yaz, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep are approved for acne treatment

A

Yaz, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep are approved for acne treatment

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11
Q

A patient comes to the clinic after being splashed with boiling water while cooking. The patient has partial thickness burns on both forearms, the neck, and the chin. What will the provider do? A Clean and dress the burn wounds clean and dress the burn wounds B Order a CBC, glucose, and electrolytes Order a CBC, glucose, and electrolytes C Perform a chest radiograph Perform a chest radiograph D Refer the patient to the emergency department (ED)

A

D Refer the patient to the emergency department (ED)

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12
Q

A child has small, firm, flesh-colored papules in both axillae, which are mildly pruritic. What is an acceptable initial approach to managing this condition?

A Application of trichloroacetic acid 25–50% using a dropper

B Applying liquid nitrogen for 2–3 seconds to each lesionA

C Reassuring the parents that these are benign and may disappear spontaneously

D Referral to a dermatologist for manual removal of lesions with curettage

A

Reassuring the parents that these are benign and may disappear spontaneously Molluscum contagiosum is a benign viral skin infection; most lesions disappear within 6 months to 2 years. An initial “wait and see” approach is acceptable. If itching is severe, the risk is autoinoculation and spread of lesions, along with increased discomfort and then other treatment measures may be attempted, depending on the severity. Topical medications, such as trichloroacetic acid or liquid nitrogen may be used if the lesions become uncomfortable or persist and should be used with caution. More severe outbreaks may require removal with curettage.

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13
Q

Which is the primary symptom causing discomfort in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD)? A Dryness B Erythema C Lichenification D Pruritis

A

Pruritus Itching is incessant, and patients usually develop other signs at the site of itching. None of the other options are associated with AD.

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14
Q

A preschool-age child has honey-crusted lesions on erythematous, eroded skin around the nose and mouth, with satellite lesions on the arms and legs. The child’s parent has several similar lesions and reports that other children in the day care have a similar rash. How will this be treated? A Amoxicillin 40-50 mg/kg/day for 7-10 days B Amoxicillin-clavulanate 90 mg/kg/day for 10 days C Bacitracin cream applied to lesions for 10–14 days D Mupirocin ointment applied to lesions until clear

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate 90 mg/kg/day for 10 days When children have multiple impetigo lesions or non-bullous impetigo with infection in multiple family members or child care groups, oral antibiotics are indicated. Amoxicillin-clavulanate is a first-line drug for this indication. Amoxicillin is not used for skin infections. Bacitracin is bacteriostatic and may be used when only a few lesions are present and if bacterial resistance is not an issue. Mupirocin is used for mild impetigo when the case is isolated.

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15
Q

Question A school-age child has several annular lesions on the abdomen, characterized by central clearing with scaly, red borders. What is the first step in managing this condition? A Fluoresce the lesions with a Wood’s lamp B Obtain fungal cultures of the lesions C Perform KOH-treated scrapings of the lesion borders D Treat empirically with antifungal cream

A

D Treat empirically with antifungal cream Unless the diagnosis is questionable, or if treatment failure occurs, tinea corporis is treated empirically with topical antifungal creams; therefore, it is not necessary to fluoresce the lesions, culture the lesions, or complete KOH testing of scrapings as an initial management step.

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16
Q

During a total body skin examination for skin cancer, the provider notes a raised, shiny, slightly pigmented lesion on the patient’s nose. What will the provider do? A Consult with a dermatologist about possible melanoma B Reassure the patient that this is a benign lesion C Refer the patient for possible basal cell carcinoma D Tell the patient this is likely a squamous cell carcinoma

A

C Refer the patient for possible basal cell carcinoma This lesion is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma, which is treated with electrodessication and curettage. Melanoma lesions are usually asymmetric lesions with irregular borders, variable coloration, >6 mm diameter, which are elevated; these should be referred immediately. All suspicious lesions should be biopsied; until the results are known, the provider should not reassure the patient that the lesion is benign. Squamous cell carcinoma is roughened, scaling, and bleeds easily.

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17
Q

Which type of bite is generally closed by delayed primary closure? Select all that apply. A Bites to the face B Bites to the hand, C Deep puncture wounds, D Dog bites on an arm E Wounds 6 hours old or older

A

Bites to hand and wounds 6 hours old or older and deep puncture wounds Cat and human bites, deep puncture wounds, clinically infected wounds, wounds more than 6 to 12 hours old, and bites to the hand should be left open and closed by delayed primary closure. A bite to the face is closed by primary closure. Dog bites do not require delayed or secondary closure.

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of acute maculopapular rash in adults?

A

drug eruptions

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of acute maculopapular rash in children?

A

viral infection

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20
Q

When does maximum destruction occur in cryotherapy?

What is cryotherapy indicated for?

A

liquid nitrogen is used…..max destroy with repeated freeze-thaw cycles

Indication

  • acrochorda (skin tags)
  • warts
  • seborrheic keratosis
  • actinic keratosis

Caution

  • Can cause hyperpigmentation in blacks
  • postinflammatory hyperpigmentation
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21
Q

Antiviral suppressive therapy is needed for people who have more than _____ outbreaks a year

A

6

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22
Q

What are TNF antagonists presribed for in dermatology?

Black box warning

Contraindications

A

Indication: severe psoriasis or psoriatic arthritis.

BBW

  • Increase susceptibility for infection
  • Blood dyscrasias
  • lymphoma

Contraindications

  • Live Vax
  • HF
  • MS
  • Tb & Hep B can be reactivated

**patients on these are considered to be immunocompromised**

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23
Q

What does basal cell carcinoma typically look like?

A

flesh-colored to slightly pigmented

raised, shiny, often with pearly borders

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24
Q

What doe squamous cell carcinoma characteristically look like?

A

Rough, scaling that does not heal and readily bleeds

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25
Q

how is BCC treated?

A

electrodessication and curettage

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26
Q

how is SCC treated?

A

total excision

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27
Q

What is adnexal?

What are the adnexal diseases?

A

“connected structures” EXhair follicle, sebaceous glands, eccrine gland, apocrine sweat gland, and arrector pili muscle. Direct extensions of epidermis

  • Acne vulgaris
  • acne rosacea
  • perioral dermatitis
  • folliculitis
  • hidradenitis
  • hyperhidrosis
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28
Q

Acne Vulgaris

What

A

What:

  • pilosebaceous follicle disorder
  • increased sebum
  • altered keratinization
  • inflammation
  • bacterial colonization P. acnes
    *
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29
Q

how long for oral antibiotics to work for acne vulgaris?

A

Treatment

  • 6 to 8 weeks for improvement
  • Reevaluation at 12 to 18 weeks

**benzoyl peroxide helps reduce antibiotic resistance

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30
Q

What should you monitor for someone on Isotretinoin?

A

triglycerides

LFTs

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31
Q

Rosacea

Who:

Difference between acne

Hallmark characteristics #7

A

WHO: 30 to 50yrs; usually women

DIFFERENCE: no comedones

Characteristics:

  • flushing, erythema
  • inflammatory papules & pustules
  • Telangiectasia
  • Edema
  • Watery/Irritated eyes
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32
Q

Rosacea

Treatment

Complications

A

Treatment

  • Flagyl; max 2 years(for erythema)
  • Azelaic acid; max 4 weeks (for erythema)
  • Oral abx; Tetracycline

Complications

  • Ocular Rosacea IMMEDIATE REFERRAL
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33
Q

Signs of Ocular Rosacea

A
  • watery eyes
  • telangiectasia of conjunctiva & lid
  • periocular erythema
  • light sensitivity
  • blurred vision
  • foreign body sensation
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34
Q

Perioral dermatitis

Who:

Presentation

A

Who: Women 20 to 45

Presentation

  • Resembles acne; papules/pustules w/ diffuse erythema
  • Confined to chin and nasolabial folds
  • symmetric
  • Itch & burning sensation

Treatment

  • Avoid steroids on face
  • Flagyl
  • Tetracycline
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35
Q

Folliculitis

Presentation

Treatment

A

Presentation

  • Itch
  • Can turn into carbuncle

Treatment

  • Benzoyl peroxide 1st line
  • Abx
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36
Q

Hidradenitis Suppurative (Acne Inversa)

Pathophysiology

presentation

diagnostic

A

Patho: keratin plugged apocrine glands

Presentation

  • Usually females, genital & axillary regions
  • swelling/pain/erythema
  • Abscess
  • Leaves scars w/basket weaving configuration

Diagnostics

  • culture lesions

Treatment

  • depends on “Hurley stage”
  • In collaboration with dermatologist
    • Abx
    • NSAIDs
    • Retinoids
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37
Q

Hyperhydrosis

Diagnostics

A

Diagnostics

  • TSH
  • Fasting glucose
  • Quantiferon (r/o tb if nightsweats)
  • if with HTN, r/o pheochromocytoma
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38
Q

The hair pull test notes 5+ hairs that include anagen hairs (with follicle sheath)

Telogen Effluvium would show….

Hair Breakage =

A

telogen Effluvium = no obvious cause = underlying illness

Causes: fever, anemia, childbirth, malnutrition.

Hair Breakage =

  • Anagen Effluvium = chemo = diffuse pattern
  • Tinea capitis = scale/crust/patchy
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39
Q

What animal bite bacteria causes devastating sepsis?

Animal bite Aerobic flora

Anaerobic

A

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

Aerobic

  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Staph
  • Strep
  • Coryne

Anaerobic

  • Bacteroides
  • Actinomyces
  • Porphyromonas
  • Fusobacterium
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40
Q

What is the bacteria that causes cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

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41
Q

What bacteria causes plague and is endemic among rodents in western US?

A

Yersinia pestis

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42
Q

What bacteria causes rat bite fever in the US?

A

Step moniliformis

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43
Q

What bacteria is often present in clenched-fist injuries?

fun fact #2

complication

A

E. corrodens; ALSO: MRSA; s. pyogenes

E. Corrodens Facts:

  • Resistant to empiric abx
  • Produces beta-lactamases

Complications

  • endocarditis
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44
Q

What are risk factors for wound bite infection? #8

A
  • >50 years
  • Advanced liver disease/ETOH/Asplenia, DM
  • Crush injury/penetrating injury
  • Hand or foot location
  • Failure to irrigate & debride during initial management
  • Treatment delay >12 hours
  • Edema at site
  • Peripheral vascular disease
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45
Q

How long for most bite wounds to develop signs of infection?

Which bite wounds should be left open?

A

24 to 72 hours after

  • cat & human bites
  • deep wounds
  • infected wounds
  • wounds >6 hours old
  • Bites to hand
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46
Q

What bite wound patients should receive prophylactic antibiotics?

What is the exception?

A
  • high risk bites with high risk conditions
  • cat bite
  • hand bite (whether human or animal)

EXCEPT FOR patients seen 72 hours of injury with no signs of infection

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47
Q

What is the prophylactic treatment for fresh bites….1st, 2nd line or 2nd line pregnant

What is the treatment for older bites?

A
  1. Augmentin
  2. Clinda & doxy OR Bactrim
  3. if pregnant & allergic = Macrolide

Older bites

  1. Hospitalization for IV abx
48
Q

When would you start prophylactic therapy for rabies exposure?

A

Head or neck bite d/t shorter incubation period

49
Q

When would you refer someone with a bite wound?

A
  • systemic manifestations of infection (fever, rigors, hypotension)
  • Severe Cellulitis
  • Bites refractory to oral tx
50
Q

Acrochordon

Describe

Management

A

Describe

  • “skin tag”
  • in skin folds
  • Associated with obesity and DM

Management

  • scissor excision
  • electrocautery
  • cryotherapy
51
Q

Dermatofibroma

Describe

Diagnosis

Management

A

Describe

  • firm, intradermal nodules
  • Usually women, on legs, caused by trauma

Diagnosis: Dimple/Fitzpatrick sign

52
Q

Sebaceous Hyperplasia

Describe

Management

A

Describe

  • enlargement of sebaceous gland beneath skin assoc w/pore/follicle
  • Yellow with raised outer area
  • “crown vessels”
  • Usually on Face
  • Assoc w/aging and pregnancy

Management

  • R/o BCC
  • electrodessication
  • phototherapy
  • laser therapy
53
Q

Seborrheic Keratosis

Describe

A

Describe

  • common benign NM lesion
  • Waxy/verrucous papules/plaques
  • “stuck on”
54
Q

Bullous Phemigoid

Patho

Clinical Presentation

A

Patho

  • autoimmune disorder
  • circulating IgG >>> tissue damage and blisters
  • Usually >60 years

Clinical Presentation

  • Prodromal phase: pruritus, red/eczema papules that last for weeks to months
  • Bullous phase: intense pruritus & widespread blisters
  • Usually flexors, lower legs
  • Negative Nikolsky sign
55
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid

Diagnosis

DDx

Management

A

Diagnosis

  • clinical features & immunopathologid findings
  • Gold standard = DIF of skin biopsy specimen to show IgG
  • ELISA shows IgG
  • Immunoblot for BP antigens

DDx

  • drug reaction
  • spider bite
  • Dermatitis herpetiforme

Management

  • Goal: reduce blister formation, heal erosions, decrease itch, prevent infection
  • Steroids
  • Referral to derm for biopsy BEFORE steroids
56
Q

What are the ER parameters for burns?

A
  • respiratory, genital, hand/feet, perianal
  • 2% body full thickness
  • 10% minor >50yrs
  • 15% minor 1-50 yrs
57
Q

What are the three zones of injury for burns?

A

Coagulation zone: irreversibly destroyed thrombosis of blood vessels

Stasis zone: microcirculation stagnation

Hyperemia zone: increased blood flow; spontaneous recovery likely

58
Q

Silvadene Education

A
  • common for minor burns
  • Cannot be used w/sulfa allergy
  • caution in face = “tattooing”
  • wash wound BID
59
Q

Acute Generalized Exanthematous Pustules

Describe

Diagnostics

Management

A

Describe

  • hundreds pinhead pustules on swollen red skin
  • usually flexural sites
  • Facial edema
  • 90% drug causes: antibiotics, CCB, antimalarials

Diagnostics

  • Fever, Leukocytosis, eosinophilia

Manage

  • Remove drug
  • Monitor liver toxicity
60
Q

Exanthematous Drug Eruptions

Cause

Presentation

Management

A

Cause

  • Delayed Type IV, T-cell reaction
  • abx, anticonvulsants, NSAID
  • immunosuppressed & concomitant viral infection more affected

Presentation

  • Pruritus, low grade fever, eosinophilia
  • Morbilliform
  • May progress

Management

  • Recovery w/in 2 weeks drug stopping
  • topical steroids and antihistamines
61
Q

Fixed Drug Eruption

Describe

Management

A

Describe

  • Single or multi red/brown/black macules
  • Reappear at same site w/reexposure
  • w/in weeks of exposure
  • may burn or itch
  • Locations: lips, perianal, hands, feet

Management

  • Distinguish from SJS, cellulitis or plaque
  • Resolve within 10 days after stopping drug
62
Q

Drug Reaction w/ Eosinophilia and Systemic Systems (DRESS)

What? assoc with?

Presentation 4

Complications

Management

A

RARE; sometimes fatal develops 2-8 weeks after exposure;

associated with reactivation Herpes

Presentation

  • Morbilliform on face and upper body >>>
  • Edematous & vesicular
  • Facial Edema*****hallmark
  • Systemic s/s: fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia

Complications

  • Hepatitis**
  • myocarditis
  • pneumonitis
  • nephritis
  • thyroiditis

Management = HOSPITAL

63
Q

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome/Toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

CAUSE: ADR or mycoplasma pneumonae

WHEN: within 8 weeks of initiation

Presentation

  • malaise, sore throat, arthralgia, stinging eyes
  • Central & facial dermatitis that spreads peripherally
  • Flat macules or vesicles that turn hazy
  • Skin is tender & shears easily
64
Q

Difference between SJS and TEN

A

SJS = BSA <10%

TEN = BSA >30%

65
Q

most cases of cellulitis in adults is cause by…

A

group A beta-hemolytic strep

66
Q

What organism is most likely the cause for cellulitis in patients w underlying abnormalities of the lymphatic system?

A

non-group A strep

67
Q

What patients are considered to have a severe skin infection?

A
  • refractory to oral abx or drainage
  • hemodynamic alteration
  • immunocompromised
68
Q

Skin and soft tissue infection

diagnostics

A

Diagnostics

  • Gram stain & culture: mild infections
  • Xray = deep seeded infection

* BC and labs unwarranted to healthy adults with cellulitis

69
Q

For someone with an SSTI, when would you use abx that cover for MRSA?

A
  • failed initial non-MRSA tx
  • critically ill
  • previous MRSA infections/known colonized
70
Q

How would you treat a healthy adult with mild cellulitis?

What about uncomplicated non ulcerative cellulitis in someone with diabetes?

What is the diabetic has mild infected diabetic ulcers?

A

1st line: PCN

with diabetes

  1. Augmentin
  2. quinolones

diabetic with infected ulcers

  1. Cipro AND clinda or flagyl
71
Q

When would you hospitalize someone with a soft tissue or skin infection? 9

A
  • immunocompromised
  • poor response to outpt tx
  • hemodynamic compromise
  • necrotizing fasciitis
  • Diabetics
  • Ischemic Vascular disease
  • Periorbital Cellulitis
  • Hand infections
  • Animal or Human Bit wounds
72
Q

Erysipela

What (makes it diff from cellulitis)

Cause

Presentation

A

WHAT: nonpurulent SSTI upper dermis and includes lympthatics

“superficial cellulitis” - restricted to superficial dermis and lympthatics

CAUSE: Children & elderly at risk

  • Group A strep***
  • S. pyogenes
  • S. aureus

Presentation

  • Sudden onset of erythema, edema, pain
  • itching
  • Hallmark
    • well-demarcated borders of inflammation
    • bright red w/orange skin surface
    • Unilateral, lower extremity
73
Q

Erysipela

Management

A

Management

  • Uncomplicated is self limiting; resolves in 10 days
  • 1st line: PCN
  • 2nd line pcn allergic: 1st gen cephalosporin or macrolide
74
Q

Erythrasma

What

Who

Cause

Presentation

A

WHAT: chronic, mild infection of skin folds

WHO: diabetic, elderly, immunocompromised

CAUSE: Cornybacterum minutissum

Presentation: Well-demarcated, brown-red macular patches

Diagnostic:

  • Wood’s Lamp = coral-red lesion **essential diagnostic
    • R/o concurrent infection with KOH
    • Gram satin
75
Q

Treatment for Erythrasma

A

1st line: topical Clindamycin or antifungal creams; benzoyl for finger webs

Widespread erythrasma =

  • 1st line: Erythromycin
  • 2nd line: Clarithromycin
  • 3rd line: Tetracycline
76
Q

Intertrigo

patho

diagnosis

management

A

PATHO: superficial inflammatory skin disorder from areas of friction that disrupt skin barrier to allow for opportunistic infections

*possible initial presentation of HIV

Diagnosis:

  • KOH r/o candida
  • culture
  • woods lamp

Management

  • Burrow solution compress to soothe
  • Culture before oral abx
  • keep skin folds cool and dry
77
Q

Which of the following correctly describes classic impetigo?

Select one:

a. Erythematous papules or pustules caused by P. acnes
b. Honey colored crust on an erythematous based caused by streptococcus pyogenes
c. Erythema, swelling and tenderness of the skin caused by group A streptococcus
d. Blisters associated with peeling caused by staph aureus

A

Honey colored crust on an erythematous based caused by streptococcus pyogenes

78
Q

The parents of a 5-month-old report that the infant has a diaper rash that is not responding to over the counter cream. On exam, the nurse practitioner notes a moist bright red rash involving the inguinal folds and satellite lesions. Which of the following should the nurse practitioner recommend?

Select one:

a. 0.5% hydrocortisone cream
b. Mupirocin 2% cream
c. Clotrimazole 1% cream
d. Griseofulvin orally

A

c. Clotrimazole 1% cream

79
Q

A 16-month-old immunized child taking amoxicillin for acute otitis media presents for an itchy rash starting on the truck spreading to the extremities for 1-2 days. The nurse practitioner notes a morbilliform rash on the trunk and extremities. The parents deny recent fever. The child is on day 7 of amoxicillin. Which of the following is an appropriate management plan?

Select one:

a. Stop the amoxicillin and label it as an allergen to the child
b. Diagnose the child with roseola infantum
c. Prescribe hydrocortisone 1% lotion
d. Prescribe an oral corticosteriod for 5-7 days

A

a. Stop the amoxicillin and label it as an allergen to the child

80
Q

A 22-year-old presents with mild itching and flaking of the scalp and the nurse practitioner notes well demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales without alopecia. The nurse practitioner should describe which of the following?

Select one:

a. Ketoconazole shampoo
b. Topical corticosteriod solution
c. Oral antifungal agent
d. Permethrin cream

A

b. Topical corticosteriod solution

81
Q
A
82
Q

HSV cutaneous skin infection diagnosis

A

Diagnose

  • Viral culture #1 standard
  • Tzanck smear
  • DFA test
83
Q
A
84
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum

Cause

Incubation

Resolution time

A

Cause: Molluscum Contagiosum virus (MCV)/Poxvirus

Incubation: 2 weeks to 6 months

Resolution: 9 months up to 4 years

85
Q

Measles (aka rubeola)

Infectivity period

Incubation period

Features

Exanthem

A

Infectivity period

  • 5days before rash & 3 weeks after rash disappears

Incubation period

  • 7-14 days

Features

  • Prodrome: Fever, myalgia, cough, corsyza & conjunctivitis
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Koplik spots 2 days before rash

Exanthem

  • After prodrome
  • Starts on head
  • coalesce maculopapular; does not blanch at later stage
  • Day 5 rash disappears same order it appeared
86
Q

Erythema Infectiosum “Fifth Disease” ParvoB

Infectivity period

Incubation period

Features

Exanthem

A

Infectivity period

  • 1-2 days after fever stops
  • No longer infective when rash appears

Incubation period: 4-14 days

Features

  • Adults w/arthritis
  • Papular purpuric “gloves & socks”

Exanthem (no longer contagious with rash)

  • 7-10 days before prodrome
  • “Slapped Cheek” first
  • Red morbilliform rash on extremities
  • Fades to lacy pattern, up to 3 weeks
87
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

Features

Exanthem

A

Features

  • Prodrome: HA, malaise, pharyngitis, itchy USUALLY ASYMP

Exanthem

  • 1st: Herald patch
  • then Christmas tree appearance
88
Q

Roseola (Exanthem subitem, HSV 6 & HHV-7)

Infectivity period

Incubation period

Features

Exanthem

A

Infectivity period: Exposure to 3 days after fever stops

Incubation period: up to 2 weeks

Features

  • Infants; usually
  • Abrupt high fever
  • then abrupt rash from trunk to extremities SPARES FACE
  • seizures or periorbital edema

Exanthem

  • Rose-pink maculopapular rash
89
Q

Rubella (German Measles)

Infectivity period

Incubation

Features

Exanthem

A

Infectivity period: 2 weeks before & after rash

Incubation: Up to 3 weeks

Features:

  • Prodrome prominent in adults: low grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis
  • Post auricular lymphadenopathy THEN rash
  • Forschheimer spots

Exanthem

  • Diffuse Pink macules & papules
  • Start face, then trunk then extremities
  • Lasts 1-3 days
90
Q

What is the most common presentation of tinea capitis?

Patho

What fungus is it caused by?

A

Black dot aka Endothrix

hair invasion is seen broken off close to the surface so it looks like black dot

T. tonsurans

91
Q

What is the treatment for widespread tinea or infections that involve the nails or scalp?

duration of treatment and pt education

A

Systemic Antifungal Medication: Griseofulvin

Duration: 2 to 4 months or 2 weeks after negative KOH/culture

Patient Education

  • Take with high fat food

Contraindication

  • Pregnancy
  • Liver dysfx
  • Lupus

Drug Interaction:

  • OCPs
  • warfarin
  • cyclosporin
92
Q

Oral Terbinafine

Indication

contraindication

monitoring

A

Onychomycosis

Contraindication

  • Liver or renal disfunction

Monitoring

  • LFT Q6 weeks
  • CBC Q6 weeks r/o neutropenia
93
Q

Oral itraconazole

Indication

Monitoring

A

onychomycosis

Monitor

  • Hepatic dysfx *CYP450
94
Q
A
95
Q

What is a complication of tinea capitis?

Symptoms?

Cause?

A

Kerion

symptoms

  • Boggy, exudative area on scalp
  • leads to perm hair loss & scarring

Cause: hypersensitive reaction to fungus

96
Q

What are complications of tinea for people with comorbid conditions?

A

Osteomyelitis

Cellulitis

97
Q

What meds worsen a fungal infection

A

corticosteroids = dermatophytic

98
Q

Tinea Versicolor

cause

risk factors

A

Cause:

  • M. furfur
  • P. orbiculare (yeast form)

Risk factors

  • High heat & Humidity, sunlight exposure
  • genetics
  • immunosuppression/pregnancy
  • malnutrition
  • Cushings
99
Q

Tinea versicolor

Presentation

diagnostics

Treatment

A

Presentation

  • hypo or hyperpigmented areas (hyper resolve first)
  • Scaley
  • Round coalescing papules & plaques
  • Location: sternum, chest sides, abdomen,back

Diagnostics

  • KOH
  • Wood light = irregular/light/white/yellow flouro

Treatment

  • 1st line: Topical antifungal
  • 2nd line: Oral antifungal for extensive/unresponsive
100
Q

Lice

Treatment

A

Treatment

  • 2 months - 2 years = Permethrin
  • >2 years = Ovide *flammable
  • Ivermectin (Sklice) >6 mos 1 application

2nd line

  • Bactrim w/ 2nd dose Permethrin
101
Q

Scabies Treatment

A

1st line:

  • Permethrin cream left on 12 hours & reapplied in 2 weeks
  • Topical Corticosteroids tx itchy
  • ITCHING MAY PERSIST FOR 4 WEEKS AFTER

2nd line

  • Sulfur ointment
  • Ivermectin lotion
  • Malathion

***Ivermectin can cause death in elderly

102
Q

Herpetic Whitlow

A
103
Q

What can psoriasis progress into?

A

arthritis

104
Q

What is an Auspitz sign?

A

Psorias

pin point bleeding points revealed if scales are removed.

105
Q

What is Koebner phenomenon

A

when skin lesions appear after trauma ie psoriasis

106
Q

Guttate psoriasis

symptoms

A

symptoms

  • rain drop plaques
  • begin in trunk and spread to extremities
  • spare palms and soles

*common in adolescents

*usually after strep infection

107
Q

Psoriasis

Treatment

what meds worsen psoriasis?

A

Treatment

  • Topical steroids <3% TBS
  • Vitamin D
  • Calcineurin inhibitor

Meds that worsen

  • Lithium
  • BB
  • antimalarials
108
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

Cause

Symptoms

Resolution

Diagnosis

Treatment

A

CAUSE: HSV

Symptoms:

  • 1st: Herald patch
  • Viral prodome: HA, fever, anorexia, arthalgia
  • rash: <10mm, gray scale/red, trunk/back/upper arms

Resolution: 6 to 8 weeks; usually self limiting

Diagnosis: clinical

Treatment

  • Pruritis: calamine or nighttime antihistamine
  • NO STEROIDS = FLARE
109
Q

what are the 4 p’s of lichen planus characterisitics?

What are it’s usual locations?

A
  • Planar (flat)
  • purple
  • polyangular
  • pruritic

purple papules with angular/irregular borders.

Wickham striae (lesions lacy white lines)

Location: legs above ankles, lower back, forearms and wrists

110
Q

Lichen planus

what is it associated with

Treatment

A

Hep C

Treatment

  • Pruritis: antihistamines
  • Kenalog injections
  • Super high topical steroids
  • Oral steroids for large areas
  • if does not improve in = REFER
111
Q

What is HBsAG a marker of ?

A

marker of infectivity

positive = acute or chronic Hep B infection

112
Q

What is Anti-HB a marker of?

A

immunity

113
Q

Vitiligo

Treatment

A
  • Recent lesions & face & neck most responsive
  • Topical steroids
    • Assess every 2 months for skin atrophy
      • response = development follicular pigment spots that widen with time
114
Q

What is anti-HBc a marker of?

What is it used for?

A

acute, chronic, or resolved HBV infection;

Prevaccination testing to determine previous exposure to HBV

115
Q
A