Week 10 Hematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Platelet

A

small, colorless, disc shaped cell fragment without nucleus, found in large numbers in blood and involved in clotting

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2
Q

Eosinophil

A

WBC type; granulocyte that is release during infections, allergic reactions, and asthma

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3
Q

Basophil

A

WBC type; least common granulocyte; plays a role in allergy induced inflammation

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4
Q

Leukocyte

A

Colorless cell that circulates int eh blood and body fluids and is involved in counteracting foreign substances and disease

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5
Q

Neutrophil

A

Most abundant WBC; phagocyte and a granulocyte

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6
Q

Monocyte

A

Large, phagocytic WBC with a simple oval nucleus and clear, grayish cytoplasm; becomes a macrophage to surround and kill microorganisms

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7
Q

Lymphocyte

A

Form of a small leukocyte (WBC) with single round nucleus, occurring especially in the lymphatic system

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8
Q

The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner sees a 12-month-old infant who is being fed goat’s milk and a vegetarian diet. The child is pale and has a beefy-red, with sore tongue and oral mucous membranes. Which tests will the nurse practitioner order to evaluate this child’s condition?

A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
B. RBC folate, iron, and B12 levels

C. Reticulocyte levels​

D. Serum lead levels

A

B. RBC folate, iron, and B12 levels

Infants and children who are fed goat’s milk or who are on a strict vegetarian diet are at risk for folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency. These should be evaluated, along with iron, to rule out IDA. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to evaluate diseases associated with altered hemoglobin, such as beta-thalassemia and sickle cell anemia, neither of which is indicated by this child’s history. Reticulocyte levels are evaluated to evaluate transient erythroblastopenia of childhood, a condition that frequently follows a viral infection. Serum lead levels are not indicated based on this history.

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9
Q

A patient reports recent mild fatigue and palpitations. A complete blood count reveals a decreased hemoglobin level and a normal ferritin level. What other findings are likely to be present?

​A. Decreased hematocrit

B. Decreased MCV, MCH, and MCHC

C. Elevated total iron-binding capacity
D. Paresthesias, koilonychia, and pica

A

A. Decreased HCT

This patient has signs of milder iron-deficiency anemia and will also have a low hematocrit level. The RBC indexes are the last to change as the anemia becomes more severe. When the ferritin level drops, the TIBC will become elevated. Paresthesias, koilonychia, and pica occur with more severe anemia.

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10
Q

The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner evaluates a 5-year-old child who presents with pallor and obtains labs revealing a hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL and a hematocrit of 31%. How will the nurse practitioner manage this patient?

​A. Prescribe elemental iron and recheck labs in 1 month

B. Reassure the parent that this represents mild anemia

C. Recommend a diet high in iron rich foods

D. refer to hematologist for further evaluation

A

A. Prescribe Elemental iron and recheck labs in 1 month

The child has mild to moderate iron-deficiency anemia and will need iron supplementation. The hemoglobin, hematocrit, and reticulocytes should be reevaluated in 4 weeks after initiation of treatment. The child needs iron supplementation, so reassurance alone is not indicated. It is difficult to get iron from foods, so supplementation will be needed. Children with hemoglobin levels less than 4 g/dL and some children with hemoglobin levels less than 7 g/dL must be referred.

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11
Q

A complete blood count on a 12-month-old infant reveals microcytic, hypochromic anemia with a hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL. The infant has mild pallor with no hepatosplenomegaly. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner suspects what disorder?

​A. Hereditary spherocytosis

B. Iron-deficiency anemia​

C. Lead Intoxication

D. Sickle-cell anemia

A

B. Iron Deficiency Anemia

Iron-deficiency anemia is the most common type of anemia in infants and children, accounting for approximately 90% of cases. It is characterized by decreased hemoglobin, with microcytic, hypochromic RBCs. Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by pallor and jaundice with splenomegaly. Lead intoxication is accompanied by neurobehavioral problems. Sickle-cell anemia involves the presence of HgbS.

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12
Q

During a well-child examination of a 2-year-old child, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner palpates a unilateral, smooth, firm abdominal mass which does not cross the midline. What is the next course of action?

​A. Order a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis

B. Perform urinalysis, CBC, and renal function tests
C. Reevaluate the mass in 1–2 weeks

D. Refer the child to an oncologist immediately

A

D. refer to oncologist immediately

The finding is consistent with Wilms tumor, and referral, diagnosis, and treatment are urgent. Palpating a mass too vigorously could lead to the rupture of a large tumor into the peritoneal cavity so care should be taking in conducting the physical examination. The other tests may be ordered by the oncology team. Treatment and diagnosis must occur immediately.

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13
Q

A patient reports a neck mass that has been present intermittently for 5 or 6 weeks, which varies in size. The provider palpates a lymph node that measures 1.25 cm. Which test will provide proper histologic diagnosis for this patient?

A Bone marrow aspirate

B Computed tomography (CT) scan with intravenous (IV) contrast

C Lymph node biopsy,

D Positron emission tomography (PET) scan

A

C. Lymph node biopsy

The lymph node biopsy is used to provide proper histologic diagnosis and precise classification. Bone marrow aspirate identifies the presence of dysplastic cells. PET and CT scans will identify the presence of other lesions.

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14
Q

Which situations are considered oncologic emergencies in a patient diagnosed with cancer and require urgent referral to an oncologist? Select all that apply.

response - incorrect

A Bone marrow suppression

B Metastasis of cancer cellsMetastasis of cancer cells

C Superior vena cava syndrome,

D Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

E Tumor lysis syndrome

A

C, D, E

Superior vena cava syndrome, SIADH, and tumor lysis syndrome are all oncologic emergencies requiring urgent referral to the oncologist. Bone marrow suppression and metastasis occur with cancer but are not emergencies.

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15
Q

What is the most important role of the primary care provider in cancer management?

A Counseling about healthy practices to reduce risk factors

B Performing regular screenings to detect cancer

C Referring patients for genetic testing to identify those at risk

D Teaching patients about cancer management once diagnosed

A

A. Counseling

About three-fourths of cancer risks are related to elements that patients can control themselves and include diet, tobacco, alcohol, sun exposure, physical activity, and risky sexual behaviors. Emphasizing healthy lifestyle practices is a principle component of primary care. Screenings are next in importance and should be performed according to guidelines based on risk and age. Genetic testing is useful in a small percentage of patients; a good family history is important before referral for testing. The primary care provider may assist oncology specialists in teaching patients about cancer management.

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16
Q

The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner is examining a 5-year-old child who has had recurrent fevers, bone pain, and a recent loss of weight. The physical exam reveals scattered petechiae, lymphadenopathy, and bruising. A complete blood count shows thrombocytopenia, anemia, and an elevated white blood cell count. The nurse practitioner will refer this child to a specialist for what diagnostic testing?

A A bone marrow biopsy,

B Corticosteroids and intravenous immunogloblin (IVIG)

C Hemoglobin electrophoresis

D Immunoglobulin testing

A

A. Bone marrow biopsy

This child has symptoms and initial lab tests consistent with leukemia and should be referred to a pediatric hematologist-oncologist for a bone marrow biopsy for a definitive diagnosis. Corticosteroids and IVIG are given for severe idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Hgb electrophoresis is used to diagnose sickle cell anemia (SCA). Immunoglobulins are evaluated when immune deficiency syndromes are suspected.

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17
Q

A patient being treated for cancer has had chemotherapy within the past 2 weeks and comes to the primary care clinic with a fever of 38.5 °C. What is the initial action?

A Obtain a STAT complete blood count (CBC) with differential

B Order a chest radiograph

C Order blood and urine cultures

D Prescribe empirical antibiotics

A

A. STAT CBC w/diff

Patients receiving chemotherapy who have a temperature >38°C and an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 500/mm3 require immediate hospitalization and treatment. The primary provider should order a CBC to determine this risk and plan immediate hospitalization and referral to the oncologist. Once hospitalized, the patient will have further workup to determine the cause of the infection and then antibiotics to treat the infection.

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18
Q

Most common causes of anemia in elderly are…

A

anemia of chronic disease

nutritional deficiency (iron, b12, folate)

decreased bone marrow response erythropoeitin

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19
Q

What are the 3 etiologies of anemia?

A

RBC production disorders

RBC destruction disorders

Blood loss (acute or chronic)

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20
Q

What are the RBC production disorders

A

Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

anemia of chronic kidney disease (ACKD)

vitamin B12 & folate deficiency

Anemia of chronic disease

aplastic anemia (bone marrow stem cell failure)

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21
Q

The most important factor in the body’s ability to increase RBC production is…

A

iron

without adequate iron stores, the marrow cannot increase erythropoeisis

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22
Q

_____ is a glycoprotein secreted by the kidney that induces erythroid precursor cells to differentiate, thereby increasing new RBC production.

A

Erythropoietin

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23
Q

What are the RBC destruction disorders?

A

Sickle cell

RBC membrane defects (hereditary spherocytosis; hereditary elliptocytosis)

RBC enzyme defects (G6PD)

Autoimmune antibody production (autoimmune hemolytic anemia)

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24
Q

What does MCV indicate?

A

Mean Corpusular volume

The average size of RBC

Can be microcytic, normocytic or macrocytic

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25
What is a reticulocyte? What does it evaluate?
Immature RBC Larger than mature RBC d/t nucleus **Evaluates**: * bone marrow production of RBC * if causative factor is decreased production or loss
26
What is reticulocytosis? What condition causes this?
an increased number of reticulocytes Usually in response to decreased numbers of RBCs \>100,000 = bone marrow is responding to anemia conditions
27
What is reticulocytopenia?
Poor marrow function/failure
28
What does the reticulocyte index calculate? What does a low RI mean? Examples? Elevated RI meaning?
**calculates bone marrow response** **low RI** = bone marrow unable to account for anemia EX: IDA, ACD, B12, folate deficiency **Elevated RI** = marrow attempting to recover from anemia or hemolysis
29
In the presence of anemia with significant reticulocytes, hemolysis needs to be in the differential...What would you order to rule out hemolysis and why?
Serum bilirubin: r/o hyperbilirubinemia (conjugaed bilirubin is marker of hemoglobin catabolism) Increased serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) - indicative of direct cellular injury
30
A low reticulocyte count with anemia points to...
impaired erythropoiesis indication a reduction in RBC precursors or ineffective production
31
A bone marrow biopsy and aspiration report says erythroid hyperplasia....what does this mean?
RBCs are being produced but are not viable and usually do not leave the marrow
32
What are the size of RBCs in iron deficiency anemia?
microcytic and can be seen on peripheral blood smear before indices change
33
# Define anisocytosis define poikilocytosis
1. significant variations of size 2. significant variation of shape
34
What labs should be evaluated with a low MCV/microcytic anemia?
* Ferritin, * serum iron, * total iron bindng capacity * transferrin saturation percetage Help differentiate between iron def anemia and anemia of chronic disease
35
\_\_\_\_ is the first lab value to be abnormal when iron stores are becoming depleted even before IDA is reflected in morphology What could cause Ferritin to be falsely elevated?
Ferritin \<12 = absence iron stores acute-phase reactant, * liver damage and other iron rich sources, * iron overload, * inflammatory disorders & * ETOH
36
What are common causes of microcytic anemia
Iron deficiency Anemia of chronic disease thalassemia sideroblastic anemia
37
What should be suspected as a cause of IDA in adult men and postmenopausal women?
Chronic GI blood loss
38
What will iron studies show in a person with IDA?
low ferritin high TIBC
39
What are common complaints with IDA 4 Physical exam findings of severe IDA 4
* paresthesias * pica for starch, clay, ice * sore tongue * brittle/spoon shaped nails **Physical exam** * more forceful apical pulse * tachycardia on exertion * systolic flow murmur * CHF in older patient
40
What is the first change on a CBC in IDA?
HgB drop ...with increasing severity/duration RBCs become microcytic and hypochromic
41
What lab values would you expect in Thalassemia minor? ## Footnote hgB MCV MCHC RDW
Hgb low end of normal MCV = low MCHC = low RDW = normal
42
What lab values would you expect for anemia of chronic disease?
hgB = low end of normal MCV = low MCHC = low RDW = normal Serum iron = low ferritin = high TIBC = low
43
what lab values would you expect in sideroblastic anemia? ## Footnote hgB MCV MCHC RDW
hgB = low MCV = low MCHC = low RDW = varies Serum Iron = high Ferritin = high TIBC = normal
44
When is iron absorption optimum? When should there be an improvement in blood work?
before meals with ascorbic acid Improvement = 1 to 2 weeks; MCV corrected in 2 months
45
Universal screening for IDA begins at age \_\_\_
all children 1 year old should be screened
46
What changes are important in the diagnosis of thalassemia?
changes in the normal amount of adult hemoglobin Normally predominantly hemoglobin A1, then small amounts hgb A2 & F
47
What is Cooley anemia?
B-thalassemia major Severe, life-threatening during 1st year of life Associated with developmental problems, decreased life expectancy Lifelong chronic RBC transfusions
48
What labs would you order for determining the presence of thalassemia?
CBC w/diff serum iron studies hemoglobin electrophoresis
49
Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows Bart's hemoglobin. what does this mean?
A-thalassemia
50
A child presents with severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia, jaundice, and hepatosplenomegaly...what diagnosis are you going to consider?
Thalassemia major
51
When should you refer a patient with thalassemia intermedia to a hematologist?
* abnormal facies * growth retardation * pathologic fractures
52
What is Deferoxamine? complications
chelating agent that removes iron from tissues and allowed excretion of iron in urine and stools IV given weekly for life **complications** * if high dose with low ferritin * toxic eye effects * hearing loss * skeletal lesions
53
what is Deferasirox? complication
Oral iron chelator daily dose with adjustment Q3 months complications: * Renal toxicity = electrolyte dysfx
54
What are the complications of iron overload? 8
Endocrine * Growth retardation * DM * Hypothyroidism * Hypoparathyroidism * Disturbed pubertal development Cardiac * Arrhythmias * Pericarditis * Cardiac Failure
55
What is macrocytic macrocytic anemia and what does it look like on a peripheral smear? What are its common causes?
oval shaped; hypersegmented neutrophils, elevated RDW Causes: vitamin B12 & folate deficiency
56
What are causes of folate deficiency? causes of B12 deficiency?
Folate * ETOH #1 * goat's milk feeding in infants B12 * Vegan diet long term * BF by mother with pernicious anemia * Pernicious anemia (loss of intrinsic factor in stomach cells)
57
pernicious anemia onset
after 50 years
58
Folate and B12 deficiency ## Footnote symptoms (early and late) Symptoms specific to B12
**Symptoms** * decreased vibratory sensation * propioception loss * peripheral neuropathy * ataxia * LATE: spasticity, hyperractive reflexes, +Romberg **B12 only**: sore mouth & taste loss, beefy red toungue
59
Myelodysplastic syndromes ## Footnote What Clinical presentation Diagnosis Population
**What**: Bone marrow defect where cells produced do not mature into functional RBCs, WBCs & PLTs **Clinical Presentation** * depends on which cells aren't maturing EX RBCs immature = anemia * Usually found incidentally **Diagnosis** * Bone marrow biopsy = gold standard **Population**: \>65
60
Folate and B12 deficiency Diagnostics: * find on CBC? (hgb, mcv, rdw, retic, ri) * peripheral smear * other labs
**CBC**: * low hgb; MCV \>100; elevated RDW; * low reticulocyte count & RI **Peripheral smear** * Oval macrocytes \*earliest signs\* * hypersegmented neutrophils \*earliest signs **Other labs** * serum cobalamine (b12) * folate level * vit b12 metabolites of methylmalonic acid * homocysteine (elevated in both)
61
How would you differentiate between vitamin b12 deficiency caused by malabsorption VS lack of intrinsic factor? What medication can cause malabsorption
anti-IF assay anti-parietal cell antibodies \*\*highly specific for pernicious anemia **long term H2 blockers**
62
63
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) ## Footnote Patho WHO S/S
**Patho:** originates in lymphoblasts \>\>\> invade/replace healthy bone marrow. \>\>\> production of RBCs prevented **Who**: \<5 yrs & \>50 years **Symptoms** * fever * infection * bleeding * bone pain * swelling extremities or face * unexplained blood clots
64
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) ## Footnote symptoms 6 risk factors who
\*most common type of leukemia in adults\* **Symptoms**: * weakness * Dyspnea * infection * bruising/bleeding * unexplained H/A * blood dyscrasias **Risk factors** * Environmental irritants: smoking, radiation, chemo etc **Who**: * mostly older men
65
AML ## Footnote Patho
1. hematopoietic precursor cells (stem cells) don't fully turn into mature RBC 2. stem cells rapidly replicate & spread in bone marrow 3. RBC production prevented
66
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) what s/s
**What**: abnormal/dysfunctional lymphocyte production, "crowds out" healthy cells **Symptoms** * fever/chills * persistent fatigue * frequent infection * weight loss * swollen lymph nodes * easy bleeding * bone pain/tenderness
67
Colorectal cancer ## Footnote Risk factors
**Risk factors** * high fat diet * low fiber * sedentary lifestyle * FMH * obesity * diabetes * smoking * advanced age
68
Gallbladder cancer ## Footnote symptoms
**symptoms** * Jaundice * pain above stomach * fever * n/v * bloat * abdomen lumps
69
What are the most common organs for liver cancer to spread to?
lungs bones adrenal glands
70
what is the most common type of lung cancer? What are the 3 most common forms?
non small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) Common forms: * Adenocarcinoma * SCC * Large cell carcinoma
71
common places for lung cancer to metasize?
liver bones brain
72
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma Patho s/s 5
**Patho**: 1. Arise from B lymphocytes originating in lymph nodes and spread through lymph system 2. Lymphocytes are abnormal, replicate rapidly and avoid programmed death 3. Out number healthy lymphocytes & body can no longer fight infection **Symptoms** * Abdomen pain * fever * weight loss * appetite loss * fatigue
73
Pancreatic cancer ## Footnote most common type & describe
Adenocarcinoma: arises from exocrine cells in pancreas
74
How would you describe an anemia of chronic disease?
normocytic (normal MCV) normochromic (normal MCH/MCHC) Hgb \>9 insidious onset normally affects elderly & hospitalized patients
75
Anemia of Chronic Disease ## Footnote Diagnostics
**Diagnostics** * CBC * normocytic, hgb 10-11, decreased retic, * Bone marrow exam * normal - increased bone marrow stores * CRP; ESR * Ferritin/TIBC/Transferrin/serum iron (r/o IDA) * LFT * Renal function \*\*want to find underlying cause\*\*
76
What is the treatment of ACKD?
Recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) or Darbepoetin alfa
77
how to diagnose sickle cell disease
hemoglobin electrophoresis
78
What would you see on the CBC with sickle cell? peripheral blood smear?
* Evidence of hemolytic anemia * low hgb * reticulocytosis * hyperbilirubinemia * elevated LDH Peripheral blood smear * anisocytosis * poikilocytosis * Howell-Jolly bodies (shows fxal asplenia) * target cells
79
Causes of hemolytic anemia
sickle cell hereditary spherocytosis hypersplenism autoimmune hemolysis delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
80
Hydroxyurea ## Footnote Indication 4 Monitoring
Indication * \>3 sickle crisis/year * pain interferes with ADLs * Hx severe/recurrent chest syndrome * Offer \>9months to reduce sickle disease complications Monitoring * Q2weeks toxicity signs (low neut & plt; hgb drop 2)
81
Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation indication
**Indication**: sickle cell curative therapy
82
complications of sickle cell in children
**Dactylitis**: * infants and toddlers * painful swelling hands&feet r/t bone marrow expansion from ^erythropoeisis **Acute Splenic Sequestration** * Life threatening emergency * RBCs trapped in splenic sinuses * Progresses to hypovolemic shock
83
What is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality in sickle cell?
pulmonary HTN Dx w/ echocardiogram
84
Acute Chest Syndrome what s/s/ 5 progression
Acute pulmonary event in sickle cell; infectious or non infectious cause **S/S** * Fever * dyspnea * cough * pulmonary infiltrates * severe CP Progression * 1st hospitalized for vaso occlusive crisis then develops respiratory distress
85
what is the most common cause of death in children with sickle cell? What vaccinations/schedule should these children receive for prevention?
s. pneumoniae sepsis d/t splenic malfunction & inability to make IgG antibodies to antigens Prevention * PNA Vaccine * 2 months = PCV 13 * 2 years = PPV23 * 7 years = 2nd dose PPV23 (5 years after 1st) * Prophylactic PCN * newborn to 5 years old
86
Aplastic Anemia ## Footnote Patho s/s 5 Diagnostics
**Patho**: damage to bone marrow's ability to generate stem cells d/t infection/autoimmune/exposure **Symptoms** * Sudden onset * Recent viral infection/chronic disease/exposure * petechiae/ecchymosis/abnormal bleeding * pallor * mild lymphadenopathy **Diagnostics** * CBC (pancytopenia, normochronic/normocytic) * low retic = lack of bone marrow activity * Bone marrow biopsy for diagnosis\*\*\*\*
87
Lymphoma ## Footnote What Clinical Presentation
**What**: Arise from lymphocytes **Presentation** * Lymphadenopathy \>4 weeks & \>1.5cm * Lymph nodes wax & wane * "B symptoms"= disseminated disease * \>38C * night sweats * weight loss \>10% body weight
88
Which of the following is the most sensitive test to assess for iron deficiency? Select one: a. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) b. Serum iron c. Total iron binding capacity d. Ferritin
d. Ferritin
89
A low reticulocyte count can be seen with which of the following? Select one: a. Thalassemia minor b. Iron or vitamin B12 deficiency c. Acute blood loss d. Hemolytic anemia
b. Iron or vitamin B12 deficiency
90
A 25-year-old female with mild microcytic anemia is diagnosed with beta thalassemia minor. Which of the following should be included in the patient management plan? Select one: a. A referral to a hematologist for further evaluation and treatment b. Treatment with iron therapy indefinitely c. Referral to a genetic counselor if considering conceiving d. Check a serum haptoglobin level
c. Referral to a genetic counselor if considering conceiving
91
A patient has a CBC showing a pancytopenia (low hemoglobin, decreased leukocytes and platelets). Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis? Select one: a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia b. Von Willebrand disease c. Aplastic anemia d. Anemia of chronic disease
c. Aplastic anemia
92
An adult patient who is currently receiving treatment for lymphoma presents for swelling of the neck and face along with a cough. There are signs of venous distention in the upper body on physical exam. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following? Select one: a. Tumor lysis syndrome b. Hyperviscosity syndrome c. Malignant spinal cord compression d. Superior vena cava syndrome
d. Superior vena cava syndrome
93
What is the most common leukemia?
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
94
Presentation of acute leukemia What is more common in ALL vs AML?
* Symptoms r/t anemia * weakness * fatigue * pallow * dyspnea * Thrombocytopenia symptoms (bleeding) * Lymphadenopathy * Hepatosplenomegaly * Bone pain r/t expanded bone marrow * Joint pain/swelling * CNS symptoms ## Footnote **Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, testicular invovlement**
95
Chronic Leukemia presentation cardinal finding on physical exam?
* Asymptomatic in beginning * PROGRESSION DISEASE = * Bone pain * bleeding problems * infection * fatigue * pallor * adenopathy * fever/night sweats **Cardinal finding** = splenomegaly (sensation fullness LUQ) * compresses surrounding organs, weight loss, leg edema
96
Acute Leukemia Diagnostics Other diagnostics
* CBC * Blood smear * ^blast cells * decrease granulocytes, RBC & PLT * Blast cells 20% total * Bone marrow aspirate \*definitive diagnosis\* * Blast cells \>20% total cell population Other diagnostics * Hyperuricemia * LDH: elevated * PT/INR/APTT: r/o DIC in bruising patients * Myeoblast count: ^^^ = leukostasis
97
What is leukostasis?
Complication of Acute Leukemias Affects lungs and brains primarily Seen with ^^^ myeloblast count
98
Chronic Leukemia Diagnostics CML specific 1 CLL specific findings 7
* Normal RBC * Slight anemia * ^^myelocytes & basophils CML specific (does not make masses) * ^uric acid CLL specific * non tender adenopathy (lymph nodes wax and wane) * splenomegaly * fatigue, night sweats, fever, malaise * sustained lymphocytosis * decreased IgG * Peripheral blood smear \*\*diagnosis * CXR: detects hilar & mediastinal adenopathy
99
**Tumor Lysis Syndrome** ## Footnote **What** **Prevent** **Findings** **Cancers associated with**
**What**: * Rapid release of intracellular products * Occurs within 7 days of treatment **Prevention**: * Hydration * limit electrolytes during high risk period **Findings**: * ^Phos, K, Uric Acid * hypocalcemia * with or w/o renal failure * fluid overload **Associated** with: Leukemia, Lymphoma, solid tumors
100
Leukostasis
What: blood stasis when blood vessels overcrowded with blast cells
101
Neutropenia is worst _____ after chemotherapy and recovers _____ after chemo therapy Neutropenic patients with a fever is a sign of \_\_\_\_\_\_
Neutropenia is worst **10-14 days** after chemotherapy and recovers **4 months** after chemo therapy Neutropenic patients with a fever is a sign of **life threatening sepsis**
102
Hodgkin Lymphoma ## Footnote Patho Presentation
**Patho**: germinal B cells, "Reed-Sternberg cells" **Presentation** * Painless adenopathy to neck * Mediastinal mass * Pruritus * "b symptoms" * hepatosplenomegaly **Diagnosis** * Lymph node biopsy
103
How would you treat a patient with persistent, unexplained lymphadenopathy for 1 month?
Referral for biopsy to r/o malignant disease
104
When would you prescribe prophylactic antibiotic therapy in severe neutropenia? What would you prescribe?
Neutropenia = ANC \<500 Fluoroquinolones
105
Superior Vena Cava syndrome What? Common Cause 2 S/S (hallmark) How to diagnose
What: SVC obstruction by external compression, invasion or thrombosis Common cause: lung cancer & lymphoma Symptoms: (usually insidious) * Facial & neck edema \*\*\*hallmark\*\*\*\* * Chest & shoulder pain * cough * hoarsness * dysphagia Diagnosis: CT scan
106
most patients with myelodysplastic syndromes become ______ dependent for the rest of their lives
blood transfusion-dependent and will need chelation therapy to avoid iron overload
107
For a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome, what are the indications for urgent referral/emergency care? 4
1. with neutropenia \<1000 and Fever 2. Any bleeding that does not resolve with 15 mins pressure 3. Increasing trend of peripheral blasts (r/o transformation to acute leukemia) 4. Nodular or flat diffuse rash (r/o acute leukemia)
108
Malignant Spinal Cord Compression Symptoms Diagnosis
Symptoms: * New onset back pain (constant dull ache) * worse when lying down * Rapid progression to paraplegia Diagnosis: MRI or CT (if MRI contraindicated)
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Hypercalcemia of Malignancy cause s/s 6 Diagnosis Treatment Prognosis
Cause: stimulated osteoclast activity release ca+ from bone Symptoms: * Ca \>10 * AMS/lethargy/confusion * weakness * hypovolemia * polyuria, polydipsia * Hyporeflexia Diagnosis: Ionized serum calcium & total serum calcium & albumin Treatment: * Rehydration & refer * Hospitalize Ca+ \>14 or more than mild symptoms Prognosis \<1 month
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Tumor Lysis Syndrome WHAT WHEN PREVENTION S/S
What: Rapid release of intracellular products When: within 7 days of treatment Prevention: Hydration, limit K & phos during high risk period Symptoms: * Cairo Bishop * Azotemia/ elevated electrolytes * ARF * Symptoms r/t electrolyte imbalance N/V/D cramps * low UO
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Malignancy associated SIADH
Symptoms: * na \<135 * concentrated urine * N/V CONSTIPATION * muscle weaknesss * + Babinkski * Edema Treatment: Fluid restriction, raise Na, hospital
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hemophilia typically has low levels of
factor 8
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in what conditions would you see basophil stippling?
thalassemia Lead intoxication Myelodysplasia