Week 6: Blood Transfusion & Transplant Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

what is The ABO blood System based on?

A

The ABO system consists of four basic types (A, AB, B, and O) into which human blood may be classified, based on the presence or absence of certain inherited sets of antigenic carbohydrate structures that are present on erythrocyte surfaces and some endothelial cells.

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2
Q

Define Blood type

A

The blood “type” is determined by the types of oligosaccharides present on the surface of the red blood cells:
 if only the antigen A or B is found, the blood is type A or B, respectively,
 if both A and B antigens are present, the blood type is AB
 if neither the A or B type antigen is present, the blood type is 0 The A and B antigens differ only in a side-chain on the terminal sugar.

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3
Q

The Genetics of ABO Group

A

The presence of A and B carbohydrates in our tissues is determined by three alleles at a single genetic locus. One allele encodes an enzyme which produces the A substance, another the B substance; and when both of these alleles are present in a heterozygote both carbohydrates are made. The third allele, O, behaves essentially as a “null” allele, producing neither A nor B substance. Thus, while the ABO system yields only four blood types (phenotypes), there are six possible genotypes:
Genotype blood type
A/A. A
A/O A
B/B. B
B/O. B
A/B AB
O O
Only a single genotype can produce the phenotype AB, namely the heterozygous state A/B. Likewise, type O individuals must be homozygous O/O. However, type A or type B individuals can be either homozygous or heterozygous, the O allele being effectively recessive since it does not contribute either of the two antigens.
The inheritance of the ABO blood groups follows simple Mendelian rules. For instance, a homozygous type A mother and a type AB father can yield only two kinds of offspring, type A (genotype A/A) or type AB (genotype A/B). On the other hand, a heterozygous type A and a heterozygous type B, on the other hand can yield four genotypes and four corresponding phenotypes.

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4
Q

Describe the Rhesus System

A

The Rhesus system is defined by the presence or absence of a single red blood cell antigen, representing the two blood types Rh+ and Rh-.
‘Natural’ antibodies to Rh do not exist in humans, as they do for the AB antigens. However, Rh+ cells infused into a Rh-negative recipient can give rise to a strong antibody response. This exposure stimulates the production of anti Rh IgG immunoglobulins. This is very clinically significant as IgG is the only known immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta.
A Rh+ male and a Rh- female can create a Rh+ fetus. Leakage of fetal Rh+ erythrocytes into the maternal blood during pregnancy, labour or delivery can stimulate the formation of anti Rh IgG antibodies. Subsequent Rh+ fetus
are at risk because the IgG antibodies can pass from the maternal blood supply into the fetus and destroy fetal blood cells and cause organ damage (Erythroblastosis Fetalis, also known as Haemolytic Disease of the New born or HDN).
It is important to note that unlike the A and B antigens, the Rh antigens are present only on red blood cells. Therefore, while they are important for blood transfusion, they do not normally play a role in organ transplantation, and Rh typing of organ donors and recipients therefore not a significant consideration.

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5
Q

what is the importance of Blood Typing and Cross-matching?

A

Typing blood to match donor and recipient with respect to ABO antigens is an important and widely used procedure; however, there are a number of antigenic molecules on erythrocytes and even the same blood group and rhesus status can trigger an immune response in a blood recipient’s system to a donor blood.
The presence of these antigens and antibodies can be readily detected by an agglutination reaction.
Patient’s serum is tested against RBCs of known blood groups and known serum types.

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6
Q

Define Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A

The reaction occurs when the red blood cells that were given during the
transfusion are destroyed by the person’s immune system.

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7
Q

Define Transfusion Induced Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

A

TRALI is a form of acute respiratory distress due to donor plasma containing antibodies against the recipient HLA antigens, mediating the characteristic lung damage. It is the number one cause of transfusion related death in Europe and US.
Transfusion is followed within six hours of transfusion by the development of prominent non-productive cough, breathlessness, hypoxia and frothy sputum. Fever and rigors may be present. CXR shows multiple peripheral nodules with infiltration of the lower lung fields.

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8
Q

Define Transfusion Associated Graft Versus Host Disease (TAGVHD)

A

Acute GVHD is a complication of allogeneic hemopoietic progenitor cell transplantation when viable lymphocytes in the allograft recognise the host HLA antigen type as foreign. TA-GVHD is typically evident from 8-10 days post transfusion. The clinical syndrome includes fever, diarrhoea, abnormal liver function tests and a characteristic rash particularly affecting the palms. It is almost uniformly fatal, with death occurring within 1 month in over 90% of cases. There is no effective treatment of TA-GVHD and the mortality rate is extremely high.

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9
Q

Define Transfusion-related Immunomodulation (TRIM)

A

Transfusion-related immunomodulation refers to the transient depression of the immune system following transfusion of blood products.

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10
Q

What happens is an Allergic Reaction as a result of blood transfusion?

A

Allergic reactions occur when patients have antibodies that react with proteins in transfused blood components. Anaphylaxis occurs where an individual has previously been sensitised to an allergen present in the blood and, on re-exposure, releases immunoglobulin E (IgE) or IgG antibodies. Patients with anaphylaxis become acutely dyspnoeic due to bronchospasm and laryngeal oedema and may complain of chest pain, abdominal pain and nausea. Urticaria and itching are common within minutes of starting a transfusion. Symptoms are usually controlled by slowing the transfusion and giving antihistamine and the transfusion may be continued if there is no progression at 30 minutes.
Pre-treatment with chlorphenamine should be given when a patient has experienced repeated allergic reactions to transfusion.

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11
Q

Define Febrile Non-Haemolytic Transfusion Reactions

A

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction is a type of transfusion reaction that is associated with fever but not directly with haemolysis. Fevers (>1°C above baseline) and rigors may develop during red cell or platelet transfusion due to patient antibodies to transfused white cells. This type of reaction affects 1-2% of patients especially multiparous women and those who have received multiple previous transfusions are most at risk. Reactions are unpleasant but not life-threatening.
Session Six: Blood Transfusion & Transplant Immunology

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12
Q

What was the major breakthrough in transplantation?

A

The major breakthrough came when it was recognised that the body not only recognises antigens from foreign bodies but also molecules encoded within the body. It was suggested that these histo-compatible antigens were encoded by histocompatible genes. When tissues are transplanted from a recipient to a donor with compatible histo-compatible antigens there is a greater chance of success.
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) was the first histo-compatible gene to be discovered. These multiple gene loci encode proteins that are responsible for causing rejection of grafts. The human analogue form is called Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

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13
Q

Types of Graft

Grafts can be classified in a number of ways including:

A

 The genetic relationship between donor and host.
 The location
 The type of tissue involved.

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14
Q

Define Autograft:

A

A transplantation from one part of an individual to another part of the same individual

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15
Q

Define Syngeneic graft:

A

A transplantation from one individual to a genetically identical individual.

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16
Q

Define Allogenic graft:

A

A transplant from one individual to a genetically different member of the same species.

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17
Q

Define Xenograft:

A

A transplant between members of different species.

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18
Q

Define Orthotopic graft:

A

placed into its normal anatomical location

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19
Q

Define Heterotopic graft:

A

A graft placed somewhere other than its normal

anatomical location.

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20
Q

Graft rejection is an immunological phenomenon with the following characteristics:

A

 It shows specificity.
 It displays immunological memory.
 It is systemic. While rejection occurs in a particular location the
ability to reject a graft is not localized.
Once a MHC molecule from a donor graft has been detected the body will mediate an immune response. Graft rejection is a manifestation of Cell Mediated Immunity (CMI). The response to MHC antigens on another individual’s cell is one of the strongest immune responses.

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21
Q

Define Chronic Rejection

A

Chronic rejection is often associated with differences at minor histo- compatible genes and is T cell-mediated. The graft appears to heal normally but over a long period (months/years) there is fibrosis of the graft and reduced blood supply. This leads to slow rejection of the graft.

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22
Q

Define Acute Rejection

A

Acute rejection is associated with the major histocompatibility genes. Acute rejection can occur within days/weeks. It is mediated by T cells and antibodies to the graft which activate the complement pathway.

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23
Q

Define Hyper-acute Rejection

A

Hyper-acute rejection of the graft starts within minutes. Antibodies specific for antigens on the graft endothelial cells create an immune response that prevents establishment of the graft vasculature. The rejection results in thrombosis and ischemic necrosis of the graft leading to the loss of the graft within days.

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24
Q

Define Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction (MLR)

A

If lymphoid cells from two different strains of mouse are mixed and allowed to incubate in culture for a few days, each population will be triggered by the foreign antigens of the other and the responses of the T cells assayed.
The magnitude of the reaction is proportional the difference in the MHC molecules; however, the MLR differs from the transplantation reaction in that the antigens responsible for MLR are primarily Class II antigens of the MHC.

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25
Q

T cells can be activated against histocompatibility antigens either directly or indirectly. Describe these two mechanisms.

A

Direct Induction of Rejection
The donor dendritic cells are transported into the recipient’s body within the transplant tissue. When T cells in the recipient recognise donor allogenic MHC molecules on graft dendritic cells it may activate T cells.

Indirect Induction of Rejection
Indirect stimulation occurs when graft cells are ingested by dendritic cells. The dendritic cells process the antigen and present it on the MHC or APC as a foreign peptide fragment.

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26
Q

An increased risk of rejection can be due to:

A

Prior exposure to foreign graft antigens
 The degree of genetic difference between host and donor
 Type of tissue being transplanted

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27
Q

List the Components of blood

A

Plasma
Packed red blood cells Cryoprecipitate
Platelets

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28
Q

What is meant by rhesus negative and positive?

A

Rhesus system looks at the presence or absence of D antigen on the RBC surface

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29
Q

Describe the basis of ABO blood groups

A
  • 3 main alleles [A,B,O] that give rise to four main blood groups in humans [A,B, O, AB]
  • A and B alleles are dominant over O but codominant with each other
  • A and B antigens recognised & bound by IgM antibodies found in serum – these antibodies are known as “isoagluttanins” and are natural antibodies
30
Q

Describe the Rhesus system

A
  • Five main Rhesus antigens on RBCs: c/C, D, e/E - can either be negative or positive.
  • Most important one clinically is RhD
  • The RhD gene encodes for the RhD antigen
  • Those who are RhD negative have a gene that does not code for the RhD antigen; those who are rhesus positive have gene switched on
31
Q

what is the shelf life of RBCs?

A

• Shelf life donated RBCs is 35 days
• Most hospitals require x2 separate samples to be sent to ensure
correct blood received

32
Q

What is the basis of group and save and cross match

A

Group and Save vs Cross match

  • G&S identifies ABO group & Rh type and detects serum antibodies
  • X-match runs a sample of donor blood against patient plasma /serum to check for agglutination
33
Q

What is a direct Coombs?

A

DIRECT (also known as ‘DAT’ or ‘DCT’)

  • Used to detect antiglobulin antibodies already attached to red blood cell surface antigens.
  • A positive result is abnormal: demonstrates the presence of antibodies attached to the antigens on the surface of the red cell
  • Implies that haemolysis has occurred (destruction of RBCs by immune system)

e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, haemolytic disease of the newborn (foetal blood), drug induced haemolysis

34
Q

What is indirect Coombs?

A

INDIRECT
in the blood plasma (serum)
- Important that these are picked up to prevent destruction/lysis of donor red blood cells during a blood transfusion
e.g. Screening of blood for transfusion – cross matching, screening mothers for haemolytic disease of the newborn

35
Q

Rhesus Disease of the Newborn

A

• RhD-ve mother and Rh+ve father can have Rh+ve foetus
• If there is any transfer of blood from foetus either during that
pregnancy or during birth, mother becomes sensitised
• Creates IgG antibodies which are able to cross the placenta which induces immune haemolysis of foetal red cells -> results in hydrops foetalis
Women who are Rh-ve therefore given anti D IgG during pregnancy

36
Q

Immune Complications of Transfusion

A
  • Allergic Response
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
  • Transfusion-induced Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)
  • Transfusion Associated Graft Vs Host Disease
  • Transfusion Related Immunomodulation
  • Febrile Non-Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
37
Q

Allergic Response to transfusion symptoms and process

A

• Typically associated with plasma products
• IgE mediated hypersensitivity response to soluble allergens in
the blood product
• Symptoms include urticaria, local erythema around transfusion site and pruritis. NO cardiovascular or respiratory compromise.
• Management: stop transfusion immediately and review. D/w senior – can consider giving chlorphenamine and slowing the transfusion but must be happy these are not early warning signs of anaphylaxis!

38
Q

Anaphylactic Response to transfusion symptoms and process

A

Much less common than an allergic response
• Typically occurs in IgA deficient patients with IgG anti-IgA (IgA antibodies) who are transfused with IgA containing blood products, causing IgA/IgG immune complexes to form, which activates C3a and C5a anaphylotoxins.
• Can also occur when a patient has previously been sensitised to an allergen in the blood product – when re-exposed, will release IgG or IgG antibodies
• Symptoms: bronchospasm, hypotension, laryngeal oedema, nausea, feeling of impending doom, chest pain.
• Management: STOP TRANSFUSION and give IM adrenaline.

39
Q

Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A

• Immune haemolytic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM
• Typically due to incompatible blood given to patient e.g. due to
labelling error
• Causes rapid destruction of donor RBCs, inflammatory cytokine storm and can cause multi organ shut down. Bloods may show DIC.
• Commonest symptoms: - Fever
- Hypotension
- Haemoglobinuria
- Feeling of impending doom

40
Q

Transfusion-induced Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

A
  • Uncommon response typically to transfusion of platelets and plasma
  • Causes acute respiratory distress due to non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
  • Arises because of donor plasma containing antibodies against recipient HLA antigens
  • Number 1 transfusion related death in Europe
41
Q

Symptoms of TRALI

A

• Symptoms occur approximately 6hrs post transfusion - Non-productivecough

  • Dyspnoea
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypotension
  • Fever
  • Frothysputum.
42
Q

Transfusion Associated Graft Vs Host Disease

A
  • Complication of transfusion in which viable lymphocytes from the donor mount an immune response against the host lymphoid tissue
  • Normally donor lymphocytes are flagged as foreign and destroyed by the recipient’s immune system.
  • However, if the recipient is immunocompromised, the recipient’s immune system is not able to destroy the donor lymphocytes which can result in graft-versus-host disease.
  • Presents 8-10 days post transfusion with a characteristic rash, fever, diarrhoea, deranged LFTs
  • High mortality rate
43
Q

Transfusion Related Immunomodulation

A
  • Transient depression of the immune system following blood product transfusion
  • Thought to be related to leukocytes present in the transfusion which may contribute to this.
44
Q

Febrile Non-Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A

• Commonly occur in response to RBC and platelet transfusion • More likely to occur in patients who have had multiple
transfusions or multiparous women
• Symptoms: temp >38.0, nausea, myalgia, shivering
• Management: Treat with anti-pyretic drugs and can attempt slowing or temporarily stopping the transfusion

45
Q
  • A 47 year old lady undergoes an elective cholecystectomy. During surgery, the surgeons accidentally puncture her vena cava. Eventually the damage is repaired but she requires 10 units of cross-matched red cells.
  • You are the FY1 and order an FBC and clotting. You notice the prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) are both prolonged. Which of these blood products would you give?
  • 1) Albumin
  • 2) Fresh Frozen Plasma
  • 3) O Negative Red Cells
  • 4) Whole Blood
  • 5) Anti-D Immunoglobulin
A

• 2) Fresh Frozen Plasma

46
Q

What is Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • Genetic cardiovascular disease
  • Increase in left ventricular wall thickness
  • Mutation in cardiac sarcomere protein genes
  • Autosomal dominant trait
47
Q

What are the Signs & symptoms of Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • Sudden cardiac death(VTorVF)
  • Dyspnoea (high ventricular filling pressure)
  • Syncope (inadequate CO or arrhythmias)
  • Angina (diastolic function, O2 consumption)
  • Palpitations
  • Orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
  • Congestiveheartfailure
  • Dizziness (impaired diastolic function)
48
Q

Management of Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
  • Avoidance of heavy exercise
  • Medications
  • Beta blockers (decrease diastolic dysfunction)
  • Calcium channel blockers • Amiodarone
  • Anticoagulation
  • Septalreduction
  • ICD
  • Transplant
49
Q

Complications of HCM

A
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias
  • Infective mitral endocarditis
  • Atrial fibrillation with mural thrombus formation
  • Sudden death
50
Q

How are transplant donors matched with their recipients?

A
  • MHC type 2
  • MHC type 1
  • ABO – naturally occurring anti – A and Anti –B antibodies (on endothelium) can lead to hyper acute rejection of ABO incompatible kidneys
51
Q

Describe Hyper acute rejection

A

• Within hours
• Preformed antibodies to ABO or Class 1
antigens
• (exposure to allogenic lymphocytes – pregnancy, blood transfusion, previous graft)
• Type 2 hypersensitivity – graft destroyed by vascular thrombosis
• Rare – careful ABO and HLA cross matching

52
Q

Describe acute rejection

A
  • Type 4 hypersensitivity – days / weeks
  • HLA incompatibility
  • Donor dendritic cells stimulate allogenic response – responding T cells travel to the transplanted kidney
  • Cytokine production - activated cytotoxic T cells, macrophage activation, production antibodies
53
Q

Describe Chronic rejection

A
  • Months / years
  • Progressive renal failure and hypertension
  • Mediated by T cells
54
Q

How are steroids used to combat rejection? list some side effects

A

Use
Anti – inflammatory and
reduced macrophage activity leads to reduced cellular infiltration
Routine use in combination
High dose in treatment of acute rejection
Side effects
Increase risk of infection - failure to export neutrophils into the tissues and reduced macrophage activity

55
Q

What drugs are used to compact transplant rejection?

A
  • Azathioprine
  • liver metabolites affect DNA synthesis all cells
  • Bone marrow toxicity
  • Mycophenolate mofetil
  • Purine inhibitor in activated B & T cells
  • Ciclosporin
  • Fungal metabolite
  • Inhibits calcium dependent activation of cytokine genes
  • Especially inhibits IL2 production
  • Inhibit CD4 proliferation and NK cell activity
  • Tacrolimus
  • Derived from soil fungus
  • Different binding protein but similar action
  • Prolongation of graft survival – included in virtually all protocols

Sirolimus (Rapamycin)
Fungal origin
Inhibits mTOR (mammalian target of rampamycin)
Blocks signalling
from IL 2 receptors
from CD 28 co stimulation
Induces cell cycle arrest Inhibits T cell proliferation induced by IL 2

56
Q

How do Calcineurin inhibitors work?

A

T-cell activation - influx of calcium ions
• Ca & calmodulin bind to phosphatase
calcineurin
• Dephosphorylation of transcription factor
NFAT
• NFAT translocates to the nucleus -
transcription immune response genes (e.g.
the IL2 gene)
• Ciclosporin and tacrolimus bind to the
immunophilins cyclophilin and FKBP12
• Block the phosphatase activity of
calcineurin.
• Prevent dephosphorylation & nuclear
translocation of NFAT and transcription of
genes involved in the immune response.
• T-cell activation and proliferation is
prevented

57
Q

A 74 year old woman is admitted to hospital after a fall. She has fractured her hip. She has a bone density scan and she is diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is “listed” for a total hip replacement. The anaesthetist asks you to take blood for’ group and save’.
1. What does this mean and how does it differ from a group and X−match request?

A

A group and save includes ABO, Rh, and antibody detectionƒidentification
ABO, Rh, antibody detectionƒidentification, and compatible matching with a donor unit are included in a type and cross. A group and cross match needs to be completed before blood is issued to prevent ABO incompatibility.

58
Q
  1. Do blood cells express MCH antigens? Explain your answer.
A

Blood transfusions are the most successful cell based transplants. The reason for their success is that red blood cells are non−nucleated and therefore do not express major histocompatibility complex antigens. Red cells express only a limited number of RBC antigens with ABO and Rh blood group antigens most important.

59
Q
  1. What are baroreceptors and how do they respond to acute blood loss?
A

Baroreceptor reflex. Bleeding or other cause of fluid loss results in a drop of blood volume and hence blood pressure, which is detected by baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch. Baroreceptors activate the sympathetic system−sympathetic nerves, which release norepinephrine (noradrenaline) and adrenal medulla, which releases epinephrine (adrenaline)−, which results in the constriction of the peripheral blood vessels in the skin and increased heart contractility and heart rate.

60
Q
  1. Bruising results after tissue distress causes capillaries to break under the skin allowing blood to escape and build up. Name the two pathways involved in blood clotting
A

Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

Tissue factor dependent pathway and contact activation pathway.

61
Q

Describe the role of plasmin in the blood clotting cascade

A

Plasmin is generated by proteolytic cleavage of plasminogen, a plasma protein synthesized in the liver. This cleavage is catalyzed by tissue plasminogen activator (t−PA), which is synthesized and secreted by endothelium. Plasmin proteolytically cleaves fibrin into fibrin degradation products that inhibit excessive fibrin formation.

62
Q

What is the earliest indication of renal damage from diabetes?

A

Microalbuminuria

63
Q

Name the metabolic pathway that will lead to production of ketones

A

Beta oxidation

64
Q

Name the metabolic substrate from which ketones are derived.

A

Fatty acids

65
Q

What is the normal random blood glucose concentration in a non− diabetic individual?

A

4−7.8 mmol.l−1

66
Q

A 35 year old female with Type I Diabetes is waiting for a kidney transplant. She has been waiting for 1 year but so far the search for a match has failed. Her eGFR is now 15 mlƒminƒ1.73m2. List two potential complications of CKD of this severity.

A

Advanced CKD can affect any system of the body. The two commonest complications are a) normochromic normocytic anaemia b) renal osteodystrophy. However, other complications may include peripheral neuropathy, pruritus, myoclonic jerking and pericarditis.

67
Q

Briefly describe the principles of peritoneal dialysis.

A

The peritoneal membrane acts as a semi−permeable membrane.
Dialysis fluid containing an osmotic agent allows water to be removed from patients membrane capillaries by osmosis. Solutes removed from patients capillaries by diffusion and convection into the dialysis fluid.

68
Q

The fundamental immune abnormality in type 1 diabetes is a failure of self−tolerance in T cells specific for islet antigens. What are the two main types of MHC molecule and where are they found

A

MHC I and MHC II
(Also MHC III but not as well understood)
Class I MHC found: Most cells in the body (nucleated cells)
Class II MHC: Only found in antigen presenting cells. E.g. macrophages, dendritic cells, activated b cells.

69
Q

MHC has various names depending on species− what are the mouse and human versions called?

A

HLA (human leucocyte antigen) which is the human MHC H2− mouse version

70
Q

In relation to MHC explain what happens when a cell is infected with a virus

A

When a virus enters the cell it ‘hijacks’ the host cells cellular machinery to produce its proteins. Fragments of viral proteins (peptides) are loaded onto the class I MHC molecules and transported to the surface of the infected cell. Killer T cells (also called cytotoxic lymphocytes) have receptors and their receptors can identify that this cell now needs to be destroyed. (The cells also present peptides from ordinary cellular proteins e.g. enzymes and structural proteins. The MHC presents a ‘snapshot’ of what is in the cell.)

71
Q

What happens in relation to MHC with an exogenous pathogen, for example a staphylococci aureus infection?

A
MHC II molecules are only found in antigen presenting cells. E.g. macrophages.
Thus a macrophage will phagocytose bacteria it finds and will then put the fragments of ingested bacterial proteins onto the class II MHC molecules on the surface of the macrophage. Helper T cells then detect these fragments.
72
Q

Identify 3 differences between class I and class II MHC

A

Class I
Signal problem within a cell and alert killer T cells Made up of one long ‘heavy chain’ and one short chain Ends of the peptide containing groove are closed
Class II
Signal a problem outside of the cell and alert T helper cells Two long chains
Ends of the peptide containing groove are open