Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The ___ contains all thoracic structures except pleural cavities.

A

Mediastinum

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2
Q

The central mediastinum is divided interior superior and inferior parts by a line from the ___ junction to the the T___/___ disc.

A

Line from manubriosternal junctional anteriorly to the T4/5 IVD

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3
Q

The heart and roots of great vessels are in the middle of the ___ mediastinum.

A

Inferior

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4
Q

Under the manubrium, from superficial to deep are the great ___ -> the aortic arch associated with the ___ and ___ nerves -> trachea, ___, thoracic duct and left ___ ___ nerve.

A

Great veins ->
Aortic arch associated with the vagus and phrenic nerves ->
Trachea, oesophagus, thoracic duct and left recurrent laryngeal nerve

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5
Q

The ___ ___ vein drains the head and neck, and the ___ vein drains the upper limb. These arteries join behind the ___ joint to form ___ veins (1 for each side) that join to form the SVC behind the ___ ___ costal cartilage.

A
Internal jugular vein (1 for each side) 
Subclavian vein (1 for each side)
Sternoclavicular joint
Brachiocephalic veins
SVC behind the first right costal cartilage
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6
Q

Why is the JVP ideally measured on the right side?

A

The right brachiocephalic vein has a shorter and more vertical course compared to left (longer and more horizontal course) - pressure column directly from RA

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7
Q

The brachiocephalic veins join to form thje SVC behind the ___ ___ costal cartilage.
The azygous vein comes up the posterior thoracic wall and arches forwards over the lung roots into the back of the SVC behind the ___ ___ costal cartilage.
The SVC enters the right atrum behind the ___ ___ costal cartilage

A

First right
Second right
Third right

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8
Q

The ascending aorta changes to the arch of the aorta at the ___ ___.

A

Manubriosternal junction

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9
Q

___ ___ is a fibrous ligament between the bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk and the underside of the arch of the aorta. This was a duct in the embyological circulation to bypass pulmonary circulation if blood did not pass through ___ ___ in the septum. In the embryo, the duct is called ___ ___.

A

Ligamentum arteriosum
It is a backup if blood did not pass through foramen ovale in the septum
Ductus arteriosus

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10
Q

What are the first 3 branches of the arch of the aorta?

A

1st - brachiocephalic trunk - divides right common carotid and right subclavian arteries behind the right sternoclavicular joint
2nd - left common carotid artery
3rd - left subclavian artery

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11
Q

In a retroesophageal right subclavian vein variation, the order of branches of aortic arch is right common carotid, left common carotid, left subclavian and THEN right subclavian. To supply the right limb, the right subclavian must pass behind the ___ to get to the right upper limb.

A

Oesophagus

These patients may present with difficulty swallowing

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12
Q

The ___ nerve is formed by the ___ rami of nerves C3/4/5.

A

Phrenic nerve

Ventral/anterior rami

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13
Q

What is the course of the phrenic nerves?

A

Through neck, down on scalenus anterior and between subclavian vein and artery on each side into mediastinum
It is ALWAYS anterior to the lung root structures and ALWAYS the MOST lateral structure in the mediastinum
Right goes through caval orifice at T8
Left pierces diaphragm where apex of heart contacts left dome of diaphragm

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14
Q

The phrenic nerve pierces the ___ and supplies it from its underside.

A

Diaphragm

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15
Q

The ___ phrenic nerve is lateral to venous structures, and the ___ phrenic nerve is lateral to arterial structures.

A

Right - lateral to venous

Left - lateral to arterial

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16
Q

The phrenic nerve is a ___ nerve. The phrenic nerve supplies ___ supply to the diaphragm. It supplies sensory supply to the mediastinal and diaphragmatic ___ and ___.

A

Mixed
Motor
Pleura and pericardium (i.e. all structures it passes)

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17
Q

The ___ nerve is a cranial nerve that moves down the mediastinum - it tries to stay in the midline.

A

Vagus

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18
Q

What is the course of the vagus nerves?

A

Down neck with common carotid and IJV -> right tucks against trachea, but aortic arch is in way of left, so left passes lateral to aortic arch, BEHIND the lung roots -> left and right ramify on oesophagus to form oesophageal plexus -> through muscular diaphragm with oesophagus at T10 (left of midline)

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19
Q

The trachea bifurcates at a plane between the ___ junction and T___/___ (i.e. same as division of superior and inferior mediastinum).

A

Manubriosternal junction

T4/5

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20
Q

Where are the 4 NORMAL sites of narrowing of the oesophagus?

A

1 at the start of the tube where oesophagus starts as continuation of pharynx (superior narrowing)
1 where it passes through the diaphragm (inferior narrowing)
1 where the aorta arches up/back/left (aortic narrowing of oesophagus)
1 where left main bronchus crosses to LHS from bifurcation of trachea

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21
Q

A lymphatic collection sac called ___ ___ collects ALL lymph from below the ___ (lower limbs, pelvis and abdomen). From here, the thoracic duct starts (at the level of T___, between the crura), at the back of the oesophagus and ascends. After it ascends, it descends and collects lymph from the LHS of the head/neck thorax and the left ___ limb. It then drains into the junction of the left ___ ___ vein and left ___ vein.

A

Cisterna chyli
All lymph from below the diaphragm
Thoracic duct starts at T12
LHS of head/neck/thorax and left upper limb
Drains into junction of left internal jugular vein and left subclavian vein

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22
Q

What are the 5 structures in the posterior mediastinum (space behind heart and under the plane b/w manubriosternal junction and T4/5 IVD)?

A

Descending thoracic aorta and its branches - intercostal (posterior), bronchial, pericardial, oesophageal arteries
Oesophagus and oesophageal plexus (from vagus)
Azygous system
Thoracic duct
Sympathetic trunks
Note - trachea is NOT in the posterior mediastinum as it bifurcates AT the plane, does not extend below the plane

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23
Q

___ antimicrobials are used mostly in immunocompromised patients, but in patients with functioning immune system, ___ antimicrobials are often used.

A

Bactericidal - if immunocompromised

Bacteriostatic - if functioning immune system

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24
Q

Penicillin G is non-___ (except if a patient is allergic). But it is acid ___ so most is destroyed in the stomach. Therefore it is injected.

A

Non-toxic

Acid labile

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25
Q

Penicillin V is a modified version of penicillin G by the addition of a ___ group. Penicillin V is acid ___ so can be administered orally.

A

Benzyl

Stable

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26
Q

Glycopeptide drugs like vancomycin are used to treat ___ (abbrev., basically resistant to all beta lactams). They bind to terminal D-Ala-___-___ residues directly. Why does vancomycin not act on G-ve bacteria?

A

MRSA
D-Ala-D-Ala directly
G-ve bacteria have outer membranes that are impermeable to large macromolecules and highly charged molecules - vancomycin is large and highly charged

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27
Q

Enterococci are Gram ___ cocci. They increasingly show resistance to vancomycin - this is achieved by replacing the D-Ala-D-Ala with D-Ala-D-___.

A

Positive

Lac

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28
Q

VRSA (S. aureus) are rare because the mechanism for resistance appears to cause increased cell stress so the bacteria die out. But vancomycin intermediate SA (VISA) are more common - what is their mechanism of resistance?

A

They produce extra cell wall material (i.e. peptidoglycan) to mop up vancomycin
You can’t just increase the dose because vancomycin is assoc. with toxicity

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29
Q

Transpeptidases or ___-binding proteins are the enzymes involved in cross-linking of building blocks of peptidoglycan.

A

Penicillin-binding proteins

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30
Q

Penicillin is a suicide inhibitor - it mimics D-Ala-D-Ala bond and binds to transpeptidases or ___-binding proteins. It cannot be hydrolysed so the enzyme is inactivated and synthesis of PTG stops. When PTG synthesis stops, bacteria activate cell wall destroying enzymes that break down their own cell walls resulting in cell death. Therefore, penicillin is a ___ antimicrobial.

A

Penicillin-binding proteins

Bactericidal

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31
Q

Some bacteria produce beta-___ that ___ beta lactam drugs. P. aeruginosa has an ___ encoded class I beta lactamase. These are unaffected by older beta lactamase inhibitors (e.g. clavulanic acid which only acts on ___ encoded beta lactamases).

A

Beta-lactamases
Hydrolyse
Chromosomally
Plasmid

32
Q

Aminoglycosides like gentamicin target ___. They bind to the site where the aminoacyl ___ recognises the codon. Growth continues initially but structural protein synthesis is affected and the cell cannot grow properly.

A

Ribosomes

Site where aminoacyl tRNA recognises the codon

33
Q

Resistance to aminoglycosides is by ___ entry into the cell by covalent modifications e.g. acetylation, adenylation, phosphorylation. What are some other mechanisms to ___ entry?

A
Reducing
Reduce entry by:
Modifications of outer membrane - low level resistance but affects all aminoglycosides
Pump out of cell
Ribosomal mutation - potent resistance
34
Q

Metronidazole is a ___ that is reduced to its active form by a ___ (an enzyme not in humans). This enzyme is esp. found in ___ organisms. Why? How can an organism develop resistance to metronidazole/prodrugs?

A

Prodrug
Nitroreductase
Anaerobic organisms - the nitroreductase keeps an environment anaerobic (removal of oxygen atoms) because O2 is damaging to anaerobic organisms
Metronidazole is esp. used for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa (e.g. amoebae, Giardia)
Resistance by failing to active prodrug e.g. altering nitroreductase enzyme

35
Q

Multidrug-resistant M. tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is resistant to ___ or ___ first line drugs. Extensively drug-resistant M. tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is resistant to all ___ first line drugs, so you can only use second line drugs.

A

MDR-TB - resistant to 2/3 first line drugs

XDR-TB - resistant to all 4 first line drugs

36
Q

ALL Gram negative bacteria are intrinsically resistant to ___.

A

Vancomycin - G-ve bacteria have outer membranes that are impermeable to large macromolecules and highly charged molecules - vancomycin is large and highly charged

37
Q

Lines of ___ occur in thrombi in vivo/flowing blood due to layers of red (red cells) and white (platelets and fibrin).

A

Zahn

38
Q

In arterial thrombi, there is a higher proportion of ___ and fibrin so the thrombus is called “___”. Arterial thrombi are associated with ___ dysfunction/damage. ___ (drug) is useful to prevent arterial thrombosis.

A

Platelets and fibrin
White thrombus
Endothelial dysfunction
Aspirin

39
Q

In venous thrombi, there is a higher proportion of ___ cells and fibrin so the thrombus is called “___”. Venous thrombi is associated with blood ___ and hyper___. ___ (drug) is useful to prevent venous thrombosis.

A

Blood cells
Red thrombus
Blood stasis and hypercoagulation
Warfarin

40
Q

What are the 3 components of Virchow’s triad?

A

Abnormal endothelium - endothelial dysfunction/damage
Abnormal blood flow - stasis or turbulent flow
Abnormal coagulability - hypercoagulability

41
Q

What is a genetic cause of abnormal coagulability? What are some non-genetic causes of abnormal coagulability?

A

Genetic e.g. factor V Leiden

Non-genetic e.g. estrogen (OCP, pregnancy), cancer, smoking, obesity, ageing

42
Q

What are the 4 outcomes of thrombus?

A

1 Dissolution by fibrinolysis
2 Organisation and recanalisation (organisation = granulation tissue with capillaries)
3 Propagation - increase in size of thrombus
4 Embolisation

43
Q

Venous thrombosis usually results in blockage of ___ arteries. Arterial thrombosis can cause occlusion in situ, or in downstream organs. But they are unlikely to affect the ___ because valves cover the ___ ___ during systole.

A

Venous - pulmonary arteries (e.g. DVT)

Arterial are unlikely to affect heart because valves cover the coronary sinuses during systole

44
Q

___ refers to insufficient blood supply to organ/tissue, and ___ refers to tissue death due to insufficient blood supply.

A

Ischaemia

Infarction

45
Q

___ ischaemia may be due to coronary thrombosis, thromboembolus, exercise and atherosclerosis, torsion or shock. ___ ischaemia may be due to atherosclerosis, renal artery stenosis or hyaline arteriolosclerosis.

A

Acute

Chronic

46
Q

Red infarctions can occur at sites with ___ blood supply e.g. lungs, liver; in areas with ___ blood supply e.g. intestine; in venous infarction e.g. testicular torsion; or in reperfusion (common with emboli to the ___).

A

Dual blood supply
Collateral blood supply
Venous infarction
Reperfusion - common with emboli to the brain

47
Q

Pale infarctions (i.e. no haemorrhage) can occur in ___ arteries in most organs e.g. heart, kidney, spleen.

A

End arteries

48
Q

Process of infarction: infarction -> ___ necrosis (ghost outlines) -> DAMPs -> inflammation -> ___ tissue -> scar.

A
Coagulative necrosis
DAMPs
Inflammation
Granulation tissue
Scar
49
Q

Digoxin is a cardiac ___. It has a ___ therapeutic index. It acts by increasing ___ influx to increase contractility. Digoxin binds to the ___ binding site of the Na+/K+ ATPase. This molecule is ubiquitous! Glycosides can cause ___ dysrhythmias, but they increase PNS activity (unknown mechanism) so they are used for ___ dysrhythmias. They are usually only used in ___-term.

A
Glycoside
Low therapeutic index
Calcium
K+
Can cause ventricular dysrhythmias
But they are used for atrial dysrhythmias because they increase PNS activity
Short
50
Q

Amrinone is a ___ inhibitor - it slows down cAMP degradation so there is increased PKA activation and increased calcium influx -> increased contractility.

A

Phosphodiesterase

51
Q

In chronic heart failure, there is a ___ of beta1-adrenoceptor sensitivity. This occurs due to chronic overactivation with sympathetic compensation for reduced CO. Therefore, beta1-adrenoceptor ___ like dobutamine cannot be used for long-term.

A

Loss/reduction (due to reduced expression and impaired coupling of beta1-adrenoceptors)
Agonists

52
Q

Reflex ___ is a side effect of arterial vasodilators used to reduce ___ in heart failure.

A

Reflex tachycardia
Reduce afterload in HF
Therefore, not used as much as other drugs e.g. ACEIs, AT1 antagonists, beta blockers

53
Q

___ ___ ___ inhibitors or ARBs are first line treatment for HF.

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme

54
Q

What are the side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A
First dose hypotension (titrate dose!)
Dry cough
Loss of taste
Hyperkalaemia (+ thiazide diuretic)
Acute renal failure
Itching, rash, angioedema
Foetal malformations
55
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in ___ ___ stenosis, ___ oedema and pregnancy.

A

Bilateral renal stenosis
Angioneurotic oedema
Pregnancy

56
Q

What are the side effects of beta adrenoceptor antagonists?

A

Hypotension, fatigue (cardiac and B2-mediated (vasodilatory) - interfere with redistribution of blood flow)
Bronchoconstriction (due to B2 block) - therefore, contraindicated in asthma
Cold extremities - A1-mediated reflex - therefore, contraindicated in peripheral vascular disease
May cause/mask signs of hypoglycaemia - contraindicated in diabetes

57
Q

Beta adrenoceptors antagonists are contraindicated in ___ (due to potential bronchoconstriction), ___ ___ disease (due to A1 mediated reflexes), and ___ (may mask signs of hypoglycaemia).

A

Asthma
Peripheral vascular disease
Diabetes

58
Q

___ III is a natural inhibitor of Xa and thrombin.

A

Antithrombin III

59
Q

Heparin increases the activity of ___ ___ to exert its anticoagulant effects. It is mainly used ___ (time course).

A

Antithrombin III

Acutely

60
Q

Vitamin K is essential for the formation of clotting factors ___, ___, ___ and ___. (All require gamma carboxylation after synthesis, and reduced vitamin K is the cofactor in carboxylation of glutamate.)

A

2, 7, 9, 10 (TV channels)

61
Q

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is used to monitor the anti-coagulant effect of ___. Prothrombin time and INR are used to monitor the anti-coagulant effect of ___.

A

APTT - heparin (intrinsic)

PT and INR - warfarin (extrinsic)

62
Q

Aspirin is an ___ inhibitor of ___/

A

Irreversible inhibitor of COX

Reduces thromboxane synthesis - decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

63
Q

Describe how the benefits of endothelial vasodilator function are maintained but platelet aggregation is reduced by low dose aspirin therapy.

A

COX allows thromboxane synthesis in platelets AND vasodilator synthesis in endothelium
Aspirin is susceptible to first pass metabolism (90% eliminated by liver before it enters circulation)
At low dose - most is inactivated in the liver
Platelets in the portal vein are exposed to the highest dose where COX is inhibited, and thromboxane synthesis is reduced -> decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
But endothelial cells are exposed to very low doses so that COX is not inhibited significantly - maintained PGI2 from endothelium to inhibit platelet aggregation and promote vasodilation

64
Q

Valve ___ refers to narrowing of the valves resulting in ___ overload. Valve ___ refers to regurgitation resulting in ___ overload.

A

Valve stenosis - pressure overload

Valve incompetence - volume overload (to maintain CO, the heart needs to pump a higher stroke volume)

65
Q

High flow may cause innocent flow ___. ___ are due to turbulence around stenotic or incompetent valves.

A

Innocent flow murmurs e.g. in children, fever, anaemia, pregnancy (high cardiac output)
Murmurs are due to turbulent flow (e,g. due to valve defects or high cardiac output)

66
Q

Normal thickness of the LV is

A

LV

67
Q

Normal heart weight in women is

A

Women

68
Q

What are 3 histological features of myocardial hypertrophy?

A

Enlarged, rectangular (box-shaped) nuclei
Bi-nucleated myocytes
Increased collagen/connective tissue

69
Q

In left heart failure, there is often ___ congestion and oedema. In right heart failure, blood pressure in ___ veins increases resulting in haemorrhage and necrosis in middle of ___ (i.e. ___ ___).

A

L - pulmonary congestion and oedema

R - hepatic veins -> haemorrhage and necrosis in middle of lobules (nutmeg liver)

70
Q

___ is used to deal with confounding. ___ is used to deal with information bias. ___-___-___ ___ is used to deal with selection bias. This always ___estimates treatment effects.

A

Randomisation
Blinding
Intention-to-treat analysis (assume that subjects stay in randomised group, regardless of cross-over)
Always underestimates

71
Q

NNT is ___ ___ to ___ and refers to the number of people needed to undergo intervention in order to prevent an outcome in ONE. It is equal to 1/(absolute ___ or ___ reduction).

A

Number needed to treat

NNT = 1/(absolute risk or rate reduction)

72
Q

What are some of the social determinants of health (there are 10)?

A
Social gradient (i.e. position on social ladder)
Stress
Early start (e.g. development and education)
Social exclusion (e.g. poverty)
Work (control)
Unmployment
Social support
Addiction
Food
Transport
73
Q

There is a positive relationship between income and life ___.

A

Expectancy

74
Q

Describe the 4 stages of epidemiological transition.

A

1 - high birth rates, high death rates and small population (most of population 65)
4 - low birth rates, low death rates and high population (more > 65 and less

75
Q

What diseases predominate in stage 1 of the epidemiological transition? In stage 4?

A

Stage 1 - pestilence, famine, infectious disease

Stage 4 - delayed/chronic degenerative disease due to longer life expectancy