Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Using just a few sentences, define autoimmune disease and state the key underlying immune defect.

A

Autoimmune diseases are immune-mediated inflammatory diseases in which the tissue and cell injury are due to immune reactions to self-antigens
***presence of autoantibodies does not always indicate the presence of autoimmune disease, as innocuous autoantibodies can be found in healthy individuals.
Autoimmunity results from the loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the phenomenon of unresponsiveness to an antigen as a result of exposure of lymphocytes to that antigen. Mechanisms of self-tolerance include:
a) Killing (or rendering harmless) of immature self-reactive T- and B-lymphocyte clones that recognize self-antigens in the central lymphoid organs (bone marrow, thymus) aka central tolerance.
b) In the peripheral lymphoid tissues, mechanisms of self-tolerance include anergy (irreversible functional inactivation of lymphocytes), suppression by regulatory T cells, and deletion by activation-induced cell death; as these mechanisms occur in the peripheral lymphoid tissue, this is known as peripheral tolerance

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2
Q

State the two key factors that combined together lead to autoimmune disease. Describe some of the ways that infections can cause autoimmunity

A

GENETIC SUSCEPTIBILITY→ greatest association is w/ HLA genes, but does not necessarily indicate cause/get disease
ENVIRONMENTAL TRIGGER→ associated with infections, and clinical flare-ups can be preceded by infectious prodromes. Infections may up-regulate the expression of co-stimulators on APC’s, and if these cells are presenting self-antigens, there may be a breakdown of anergy and activation of T cells specific for the self-antigens. In some infections, the offending organism may express antigens that have the same amino acid sequences of self-antigens. This can result in an immune response to the self-antigens, and the process is known as molecular mimicry (e.g. rheumatic heart disease, in which antibodies against streptococcal proteins cross react with myocardial proteins producing myocarditis). Some viruses, such as EBV and HIV, cause polyclonal B-cell activation, which may result in the production of autoantibodies. Another mechanism would include tissue injury due to the infection, which may release self-antigens and structurally alter self-antigens so that they are able to activate T lymphocytes

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3
Q

In one sentence, describe the typical clinical course of untreated autoimmune disease.

A

Autoimmune diseases, once initiated, tend to be progressive. While there may be sporadic relapses and remissions, there is usually inexorable tissue damage if untreated.

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4
Q

Describe the underlying pathologic mechanism of systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE).

A

Multisystem autoimmune disorder characterized by the formation of multiple autoantibodies, particularly antinuclear antibodies that result in widespread multi-organ tissue injury.
→patients with SLE can have antibodies directed against red cells, platelets, and lymphocytes, resulting in cytopenias
***fundamental defect in SLE = failure of mechanisms to maintain self-tolerance

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5
Q

State the potential complication of the presence of anti-phospholipid antibodies in SLE.

A

Pts can have Anti-phospholipid antibodies that may produce a false positive syphilis test, and can prolong the partial thromboplastin time (lupus anticoagulant). Despite having in vitro anticoagulant activity, anti-phospholipid antibodies are associated with complications of a hypercoagulable state, and patients can get venous and arterial thrombosis, resulting in spontaneous miscarriages and cerebral ischemia (this is called secondary anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome, as it is occurring in association with SLE, another autoimmune disease).

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6
Q
  1. Explain why SLE can involve multiple organ systems. Describe some of the key pathologic and clinical features seen in SLE when involving the skin, kidney, joints, and hematologic system.
A

Acute necrotizing vasculitis: can affect virtually any organ (CNS infarct).
Kidney (lupus nephritis): due to immune complex deposition in the glomeruli, tubular or peritubular capillary basement membranes, or larger blood vessels. A variety of patterns of glomerular injury are seen.
Skin: typically immune complex deposition at the dermoepidermal junction.
Joints: non-erosive, non-deforming small joint involvement (in contrast to RA).
Cardiovascular: fibrinous pericarditis, non-bacterial verrucous endocarditis; accelerated coronary atherosclerosis in long-term disease.
Spleen: splenomegaly.
Lungs: pleuritis, pleural effusion, interstitial fibrosis.
Mnemonics for clinical findings:
SOAP BRAIN MD:
Serositis
Oral ulcers
ARTHRITIS
PHOTOSENSITIVTY
Blood
Renal
Antinuclear antibodies
Immune
Nephritis
MALAR RASH [BUTTERFLY RASH]
DISCOID RASH
***screen test for SLE is antinuclear antibodies [3-4% of disease free individuals test positive for ANA]

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7
Q

Describe the underlying pathologic mechanism in rheumatoid arthritis. Describe the pathologic findings seen in the involved joints and in rheumatoid nodules.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic systemic inflammatory disorder that may affect many tissues and organs, but primarily attacks the joints, producing a nonsuppurative, proliferative, and inflammatory synovitis that often progresses to destruction of the articular cartilage and ankylosis (stiffening or immobillity) of the joints.
Pathogenesis is uncertain, but RA is thought to be triggered by exposure to an arthritogenic (arthritis causing) antigen in a genetically predisposed individual that results in a breakdown of immunological self-tolerance and a chronic inflammatory reaction. The initial acute arthritis thus leads to a continuing autoimmune reaction, with activation of CD4+ helper T-cells, and the release of inflammatory mediators and cytokines that ultimately destroy the joint.
Genetic susceptibility is a major contributor to the disease, with specific HLA alleles and other genes linked to the risk of developing RA (e.g. HLA-DRB1, PTPN22).
The environmental arthritogen(s) are unknown, but may be antigens from infectious organisms. Citrullinated proteins (proteins modified by the enzymatic conversion of arginine to citrulline) formed in the body (especially in the lungs of smokers) have also been implicated as a potential autoantigen.
Immunopathogenesis of RA: Citrullinated proteins are also implicated as an autoantigen. CD4+ T cells play a key role in the autoimmune reaction, which results in the formation of a pannus (mass of inflamed synovium) which grows over the joint cartilage and results in inflammatory destruction of the joint. Autoantibodies include rheumatoid factor (typically IgM autoantibody to Fc portion of IgG) and antibodies to citrulline-modified peptides (anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies, ACCP). Rheumatoid factor is not specific for RA, as it can be seen in 1-5% of healthy people. ACCP antibodies appear to be more specific for RA.
HUMIRA: antibody to TNF
***macrophage activation releases TNF so they developed this antibody
**characteristic pathologic sign of synovium w/ RA = LOTS of plasma cells!!!
**rheumatoid nodules have palisading macrophages & inflammatory cells

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8
Q

Describe the underlying pathogenesis of Sjogren syndrome, and describe the typical pathologic and clinical findings. State the type of neoplasm that can be seen in Sjogren syndrome.

A

Chronic disease characterized by dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia), resulting from immunologically mediated destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands.
• isolated disease OR in association with another autoimmune disease (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis (most common),
• typically in middle age women.
Pathogenesis is unknown, but thought to be related to aberrant T and B cell activation.
• see lymphocytic inflammation and fibrosis of lacrimal and salivary glands; may see parotid gland enlargement (Mikulicz syndrome).
• characteristically have antibodies to SS-A and SS-B (not specific).
Diagnosis of Sjogren syndrome involves clinical findings as well as clinical tests of tear production, tear clearance, and conjunctival damage; measurement of the above antibodies and lip biopsy (to assess minor salivary gland inflammation) are also used.
Increased risk for development of lymphoma (marginal zone lymphoma OR MALT).

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9
Q

Describe the underlying pathogenesis of systemic sclerosis (scleroderma), and describe the typical clinical and pathologic findings as seen in the skin, GI tract, lungs, and musculoskeletal system. Compare and contrast diffuse vs. limited scleroderma, and define the CREST syndrome.

A

Pathologic findings: chronic inflammation, presumably autoimmune in nature, with widespread damage to small blood vessels and progressive interstitial and perivascular fibrosis of the skin and multiple organs. The disease occurs in adults, with a 3:1 F:M ratio. The skin is most commonly affected, but the GI tract, kidneys, heart, muscles, and lungs are also frequently involved.
2 subtypes have been described:
A) Diffuse scleroderma: widespread skin involvement at onset, with rapid progression and early visceral involvement.
B) Limited scleroderma: skin involvement is confined to the fingers, forearms, and face, with late visceral involvement (more indolent form). Some patients with the limited form develop the CREST syndrome (calcinosis, Raynaud’s, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly (skin thickening), & telangiectasia).
Cause is unknown, but may be related to an abnormal immune response by CD4+ T lymphocytes to an unknown antigen(s) with release of cytokines that activate inflammatory cells and fibroblasts. Inappropriate humoral immunity (in the form of autoantibodies) is also involved. Small vessel (microvascular) damage is also consistently present. Pathologic findings are secondary to ischemic damage and fibrosis in the affected organs.
Patients may have antibodies to Scl-70 (DNA topoisomerase 1); most patients with CREST syndrome will have anti-centromere antibodies.
Clinical findings:
• Raynaud’s phenomenon (most common initial complaint)→vasospastic response to cold or emotional stress
• Skin: sclerotic atrophy and sclerosis [fibrosis], beginning in the distal fingers and extending proximally; can also involve the face; extensive dystrophic calcification in the subcutaneous fat can also be present.
• GI tract: involved in 90% of patients; esophageal fibrosis results in dysmotility, with dysphagia and reflux; small bowel involvement can result in loss of villi and dysmotility with malabsorption, cramps, and diarrhea.
• Lungs: interstitial fibrosis (respiratory failure is the most common cause of death).
• Musculoskeletal system: non-destructive arthritis; 10% of patients can develop an inflammatory myositis indistinguishable from polymyositis.
• Kidneys: vascular thickening; patients may develop hypertension

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10
Q

Dermatomyositis:

A
  • Inflammatory disorder of skin and skeletal muscle.
  • Classic rash is violaceous discoloration of upper eyelids associated with periorbital edema, accompanied by scaling erythematous eruption or dusky red patches over the knuckles, elbows, and knees.
  • Muscle weakness typically affects proximal muscles first and is symmetric, often accompanied by myalgias.
  • Extramuscular manifestations may be present such as interstitial lung disease, vasculitis, and myocarditis; 20-25% of patients with dermatomyositis have an underlying malignancy!
  • Juvenile form of the disease exists, accompanied by abdominal pain and involvement of the GI tract.
  • Pathogenesis is thought to be related to immunologic injury to small BVs and capillaries in the skeletal muscle, perhaps secondary to autoantibodies, as well as activation of T lymphocytes. Muscle biopsy shows lymphocytic inflammation around small blood vessels & in the perimysial connective tissue, along with perifascicular myocyte atrophy. Necrotic muscle fibers with regeneration is also seen.
  • Treat with immunosuppressive agents.
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11
Q

Polymyositis:

A
  • Muscle and systemic involvement is similar to that seen in dermatomyositis, except for the lack of skin involvement. Mainly occurs in adults.
  • Pathogenesis may be caused by T-cell mediated injury of myocytes, as well as by autoantibodies (Jo 1 antibodies (histidyl transfer RNA synthetase), which can also be seen in dermatomyositis). Muscle biopsy shows lymphocytic inflammation surrounding and invading muscle fibers, without the perifascicular atrophy seen in dermatomyositis. Necrotic and regenerating muscle fibers are found throughout the fascicle. No vascular injury is seen.
  • Treat with immunosuppressive agents.
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12
Q

Secondary Sjogren syndrome

A

(Sjogren associated with one of the above diseases).
Some patients present with an “overlap” autoimmune disease w/ features that are a mixture of the features seen in SLE, systemic sclerosis, and polymyositis. These patients also have antibodies to a ribonucleoprotein (RNP) particle containing U1 ribonucleoprotein.

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13
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)

A

is defined by the overlap features and the presence of the distinctive anti-U1-RNP antibody.

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14
Q

For all of the autoimmune diseases discussed, state the key autoantibodies that are present (study the Mayo Clinic Connective Tissue Disease Cascade).

A

See Handout

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15
Q

Describe the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. In what patient population does one typically encounter primary immunodeficiencies?

A
  • Primary immunodeficiencies [almost all genetically determined→born w/] can affect either the T or B cell functions in adaptive immunity, or the defense mechanisms in innate immunity (e.g. phagocytic function or complement system). Most primary immunodeficiency states manifest themselves in infancy, between 6 months and 2 years of life, and they are detected as a result of multiple recurrent infections.
    →B cell and combined B and T cell abnormalities account for nearly three-fourths of the primary immunodeficiencies; isolated T cell, phagocytic, and complement defects are rare.
  • Secondary (due to complications of cancer, infection, malnutrition, immunosuppression, irradiation, or chemo)
    MUCH MORE COMMON THEN 1’
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16
Q

Describe the underlying pathogenic defect (and pertinent genetics if appropriate), as well as the findings of appropriate laboratory tests (e.g. immunoglobulin levels, blood smear for CHS, complement tests).

A

page 5

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17
Q

Complement deficiency syndromes:

A
  • Hereditary deficiencies have been described for virtually all components and several pathway regulators.
  • Deficiencies of the early classical pathway components (C2, C1, C4) show little or no increase in susceptibility to infections, but there is an increased incidence of an SLE-like autoimmune disease.
  • Deficiency of components of the alternate pathway (properdin and factor D) are rare and are associated with recurrent pyogenic infections.
  • Deficiency of C3 affects both the classical and alternative pathways, and results in susceptibility to serious and recurrent pyogenic infections. C3 deficiency also results in increased incidence of immune complex-mediated glomerulonephritis.
  • Deficiencies of the terminal components (C5, C6, C7, C8, C9) show increased susceptibility for recurrent neisserial (gonococcal and meningococcal) infections. This is due to impaired function of the MAC involved in the lysis of organisms (Neisseria bac have thin walls; are especially sensitive to the lytic actions of complement).
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18
Q

• Chédiak-Higashi syndrome:

A

o Rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by recurrent pyogenic infections, partial oculocutaneous albinism, progressive neurologic abnormalities, and mild coagulation defects.
o The gene responsible for this defect is called CHS1/LYST, and is a trafficking regulatory protein. This results in defective fusion of phagosomes and lysosomes in phagocytes, causing susceptibility to infections.
o The diagnosis of CHS can be made by examination of a peripheral smear for pathognomonic giant cytoplasmic granules in leukocytes and platelets, and confirmed with genetic testing.
o Treatment of choice = Hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT)

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19
Q

List the causes of secondary immunodeficiency. State which type of infection patients without a spleen are at risk for and why.

A

Causes of secondary immune deficiency:
-Malignancy (disease-related immunosuppression):
Hodgkins disease, CLL (e.g. hypogammaglobulinemia in chronic lymphocytic leukemia)
Multiple myeloma
Malignancy of solid tumors (tumor-derived immunosuppressive factors)
-Disorders of biochemical homeostasis:
*Diabetes (multifactorial, including decreased neutrophil function and impaired cytokine production from macrophages)
*Renal insufficiency/dialysis
*Hepatic insufficiency/cirrhosis
*Malnutrition (affects many components of the immune system. Worldwide, malnutrition is the most common cause of acquired immunodeficiency)
-Autoimmune disease (e.g. SLE, RA)
-Severe burn injury
-Exposure to radiation, toxic chemicals
-Asplenia/hyposplenism (loss of splenic macrophages post splenectomy can lead to increased risk of bacterial infection with encapsulated organisms, particularly with Streptococcus pneumoniae; as such, these patients receive vaccinations for S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis)
-Aging

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20
Q

List the three ways that one could suspect a patient has an immunodeficiency.

A

o 1. Clinical history indicates that the patient has an immunodeficiency
o 2. Patient presents with opportunistic infection from a “signature organism” (i.e. Pneumocytosis jiroveci, oral candidiasis, invasive aspergillus)
o 3. Patient presents with recurrent infections or other symptoms that are suggestive

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21
Q

• CBC with diff

A

: to assess for decrease in lymphocytes (lymphopenia) and/or decrease in neutrophils (neutropenia).

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22
Q

• Comprehensive metabolic panel

A

to assess for diabetes, kidney or liver disease

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23
Q

• Sedimentation rate, CRP

A

to assess for inflammatory state (infection, autoimmune disease)

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24
Q

o Antibody deficiencies

A

(B-cell function): immunoglobulin levels.

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25
Q

o Cellular immunity

A

(T-cell function): in addition to CBC, can use flow cytometry, skin testing with candida antigen to assess cutaneous delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) response.

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26
Q

o Phagocytic disorders

A

CBC, peripheral smear (giant azurophilic granules in neutrophils, eosinophils, and other granulocytes are characteristic of Chediak-Higashi syndrome), genetic tests, specific tests of neutrophil function.

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27
Q

o Complement activity

A

o Complement activity: total serum complement (CH50)

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28
Q

o Autograft

A

self to self

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29
Q

o Isograft

A

syngeneic, between identical twins

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30
Q

o Allograft

A

between genetically different individuals of the same species

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31
Q

o Xenograft

A

between two species (i.e. pig (porcine) heart valve to human)

32
Q

• Using only one word, state the major barrier to successful transplantation.

A

o Major barrier to transplant success is rejection, in which the recipient’s immune system recognizes the graft as being foreign and attacks it.
• Both cell-mediated immunity and antibody mediated immunity can be involved

33
Q

• State the two groups of antigens that are most important in determining the likelihood of transplant rejection.

A

o ABO and HLA compatible grafts result in a better chance of avoiding rejection:
• ABO antigens are expressed on endothelial cells and many epithelial cells
• MHC Class I (HLA-A, B, C) are expressed on all nucleated cells and platelets, although not on mature RBCs
• MHC Class II (HLA-DP, DQ, DR) are expressed on APCs such as macrophages, DCs, and B cells
• Key HLA loci involved in transplant rejection = HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-DR; minor = HLA-C

34
Q

• Explain the process of cellular rejection (direct and indirect pathway) and humoral rejection. State the major types of pre-formed alloantibodies, and explain the rationale of pretransplant testing.

A

o T cell-mediated graft rejection is called cellular rejection, and it involves destruction of donated graft cells by recipient CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes and delayed hypersensitivity reactions triggered by activated recipient CD4+ T helper lymphocytes

Direct:

  • Donor MHC Class I and II antigens on APCs in the graft are recognized by host CD8+ and CD4+ T cells, respectively
  • CD4+ cells proliferate and produce cytokines (IFNγ) which induce tissue damage through local delayed hypersensitivity reaction
  • CD8+ T cells respond by differentiating into CTLs that kill graft cells

Indirect:

  • Graft antigens are picked up, processed and displayed by host APCs and activate CD4+ T cells
  • These CD4+ T cells damage the graft by local delayed hypersensitivity reactions and stimulate B cells to produce antibody

o Antibodies against alloantigens are important mediators of rejection. These antibodies may be pre-formed (present before transplant) or may develop following the transplant.
• Pre-formed antibodies:
• Antibodies to ABO blood group antigens (naturally occurring)
• Anti-HLA antibodies (pregnancy, previous transfusion or transplant)
o If pre-formed antibodies are present, a hyperacute rejection reaction is possible.
o These antibodies cause tissue damage through several mechanisms:
• Complement-dependent cytotoxicity
• Inflammation
• Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
• Antibody-dependent acute humoral rejection (typically found in vasculature, resulting in rejection vasculitis)
o Pre-transplant testing can reduce the risk of rejection and includes:
• ABO compatibility testing of donor and recipient.
• HLA typing of donor and recipient (serology, DNA sequencing) to assess degree of HLA compatibility.
• Detection of preformed anti-HLA antibodies in the recipient’s serum (react recipient serum to a panel of HLA antigens).
• Performance of a lymphocyte cross-match (react recipient serum against donor lymphocytes; detects pre-formed anti-HLA antibodies in recipient that react with donor HLA antigens)

35
Q

• Define and explain the immunologic mechanisms of hyperacute, acute, and chronic rejection as they relate to renal allografts. Describe the key pathologic features of hyperacute, acute, and chronic rejection in renal allografts. Which type of rejection is the most common cause of renal graft failure?

A

o Hyperacute rejection = result of ABO incompatibility or presence of pre-formed anti-HLA antibodies in the recipient which bind to endothelial antigens, activate complement, and result in vessel thrombi and ischemic necrosis (type II hypersensitivity). Begins suddenly (minutes – hours) following transplant.
o Acute rejection = result from cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions (host CD4+ T cells release cytokines to activate host macrophages and CD8+ T cells) or from antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions (host CD4+ T cells release cytokines which promote B cells to differentiate into plasma cells that produce anti-HLA antibodies that bind to endothelial antigens). Occurs over days to weeks.
• Deposition of the complement breakdown factor C4d can be demonstrated in biopsy specimens (indicates B-cell mediated injury)
o Chronic rejection = result of both cell-mediated and antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. Occurs over months and years and is often secondary to vascular injury.
o Most common type of rejection for renal graft failure is: acute rejection

36
Q

• Describe the two major complications of immunosuppressive therapy in the transplant setting.

A

o Chances of graft survival is improved by: ABO and HLA compatibility and use of immunosuppressive agents both prior and following transplant
o Long-term immunosuppressive complications:
• Increased susceptibility for opportunistic infections and common community acquired infectious disease
• Increased risk of malignancies such as EBV associated post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD), squamous cell carcinoma of skin, and Kaposi Sarcoma

37
Q

• Define autologous and allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT).

A

o Autologous HCT (auto-HCT) uses hematopoietic progenitor cells derived from the individual with the disorder.
o Allogeneic HCT (allo-HCT) uses hematopoietic progenitor cells collected from someone other than the individual with the disorder
• In allogeneic HCT, transplanted immunocompetent T-cells from the donor (graft) may recognize the recipient (host) cells as foreign, thereby initiating a graft-versus-host reaction which may lead to graft vs. host disease (GVHD).

38
Q

• Explain the underlying immunologic mechanisms of graft vs. host disease (GVHD), and the rationale behind HLA matching in allogeneic HCT.

A

o In GVHD, the immunologically competent donor T cells recognize the recipient’s HLA antigens as foreign and react against them. Because the recipient (host) is immunocompromised (due to myeloablative therapy), the host is incapable of mounting a reaction against the grafted lymphocytes, thus allowing the graft lymphocytes to attack the host.
o To minimize this complication in allogeneic HCT, transplants are done between donor and recipient that are HLA-matched. Patients undergoing autologous HCT do not get GVHD

39
Q

• Define acute and chronic GVHD, and list the principle organ systems involved.

A

o Acute GVHD is arbitrarily defined as occurring in the first 100 days following allogeneic HCT
• Mechanism of injury involves direct cytotoxicity by CD8+ T cells as well as cellular injury caused by cytokines released from activated CD4+ T cells. Typically the skin, liver, and GI tract epithelium are most affected. Patients may experience severe dermatitis, destruction of small bile ducts with jaundice, and GI tract mucosal ulceration with bloody diarrhea.
o Chronic GVHD, arbitrarily defined as occurring more than 100 days after allogeneic HCT, may follow acute GVHD or occur insidiously.
• The skin may exhibit loss of skin appendages with dermal fibrosis. Chronic liver disease may result in cholestatic jaundice. The GI tract may exhibit fibrous strictures, along with malabsorption and chronic diarrhea. The lungs may show obliterative bronchiolitis.
o Summary: key prerequisites for GVHD:
• Donor graft must contain immunocompetent T-cells
• Recipient must be immunocompromised.
• Recipient must have HLA antigens that are foreign to the donor T-cells

40
Q

• Explain why patients undergoing HCT are immunodeficient.

A

o HCT recipients are immunodeficient because they undergo myeloablative therapy prior to transplantation and result in a delay in repopulation of the recipient’s immune system
o These patients are at a high risk of developing a variety of opportunistic infections (Aspergillus, CMV, pneumocystitis, etc.)
o HCT patients are also at an increased risk of developing secondary malignancies such as breast cancer, squamous cell carcinoma, secondary myelodysplasia/acute leukemia, and EBV PTLD

41
Q

• Define amyloidosis, and state the characteristic appearance of amyloid in tissue sections. What special stain is typically used to stain amyloid? Is amyloidosis a single disease entity, or a group of diseases? How does amyloid injure adjacent cells?

A

o Amyloidosis = heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by the deposition of amyloid in the extracellular space of tissues and organs which results in tissue and organ dysfunction
o Staining for amyloid:
• H&E: amyloid appears amorphous, eosinophilic, hyaline, extracellular substance that can result in pressure atrophy of adjacent cells
• Congo Red Stain: amyloid appears red and exhibits a green birefringence
o Amyloidosis is a group of diseases that have a common deposition of similar appearing proteins
o Amyloid accumulation can cause increasing amounts of pressure to be placed on adjacent cells leading to atrophy. Amyloid deposition near blood vessels results in narrowing and increased permeability which allows protein to leave the blood vessels

42
Q

o AL (amyloid light chain) amyloid:

A

made up of complete Ig light chains, the N-terminal fragments of light chains, or both. Usually these light chains/fragments are composed of lambda light chain protein. This type of amyloid is produced from free Ig light chain protein secreted by a monoclonal population of plasma cells (monoclonal light chain protein).

43
Q

o AA (amyloid-associated) amyloid

A

derived by proteolysis of a larger precursor protein in the serum called SAA (serum amyloid-associated) protein that is synthesized in the liver and circulates in the serum associated with high density lipoprotein. The production of SAA is increased in inflammatory conditions (“acute phase response”); thus, this form of amyloidosis is associated with chronic inflammation.

44
Q

o Beta-amyloid protein (Aβ

A

derived by proteolysis of a larger precursor protein called amyloid precursor protein. This form of amyloid is found in the cerebral plaques of Alzheimer disease as well as in the walls of the cerebral vessels of patients with Alzheimer disease.

45
Q

o Transthyretin (TTR):

A

normal serum protein that binds and transports thyroxine and retinol. Mutations of TTR can result in amyloid deposition, and these genetically determined disorders are referred to as heritable neuropathic and/or cardiomyopathic amyloidosis. TTR can also be deposited in the heart of aged individuals (as part of senile systemic amyloidosis) without mutation of TTR.

46
Q

o β2-microglobulin

A

this normal serum protein cannot be filtered through dialysis membranes and can accumulate in patients on long term dialysis (>20 years) and the condition is known as hemodialysis-associated amyloiodosis.

47
Q

• Using just a few words for each, define the terms systemic amyloidosis, localized amyloidosis, primary amyloidosis, secondary amyloidosis, and hereditary (familial) amyloidosis.

A

o Systemic = involves several organ systems
• Systemic amyloidosis can be subclassified into primary amyloidosis when associated with an immunocyte disorder (i.e. plasma cell, B cell) or secondary amyloidosis, when it occurs as a complication of an underlying chronic inflammatory process
o Localized = involving a single organ (i.e. heart).
o Hereditary or familial amyloidosis refers to a group of heterogenous, heritable forms of amyloidosis with several distinctive patterns of organ involvement.
o Amyloidosis can also be classified by the type of protein produced (AL, AA, ATTR amyloidosis).

48
Q

Primary Amyloidosis

A

(AL)

Most common type of amyloidosis in the US

Associated disease/ Pathogenic Mechanism:
Plasma cell dyscrasia (monoclonal proliferation) – some assoc. with multiple myeloma

Produce monoclonal Ig and monoclonal light chain protein (Bence-Jones protein in urine)

Distribution of amyloid deposition:
heart, kidney, peripheral nerve, gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, but nearly any other organ can be involved

49
Q

Reactive Systemic Amyloidosis

A

(AA; secondary)

Second most common in US

Associated disease/ Pathogenic Mechanism:
RA, other CT disorders (ankylosing spondylitis), and IBS; renal cell carcinoma, Hodgkin Lymphoma

Developing countries: chronic infectious diseases such as TB, leprosy, osteomyelitis

Distribution of amyloid deposition:
Systemic distribution

kidney, liver, and spleen

50
Q

Hemodialysis-associated Amyloidosis

A

(B2-microglobulin)

Associated disease/ Pathogenic Mechanism:
Amyloid deposition derived from B2-microglobulin which accumulates in patients with end-stage renal disease who are on dialysis

Distribution of amyloid deposition:
Osteoarticular structures

51
Q

Age-related (senile) systemic Amyloidosis

A

(TTR protein)

Associated disease/ Pathogenic Mechanism:
Overlap with late-onset cardiac amyloidosis which involves deposition of mutant TTR – screen for Ile122 mutation to distinguish these diseases (~4% of African Americans are carriers of the mutant allele)

Distribution of amyloid deposition:
Deposition results in restrictive cardiomyopathy and arrhythmia

52
Q

Localized Amyloidosis

A

(AL)

Associated disease/ Pathogenic Mechanism:
Occurs in AD patients which results in plaques and amyloid-laden cerebral vessels that have beta-amyloid protein (Aβ), which is derived from the larger amyloid precursor protein (AAP)

Distribution of amyloid deposition:
Nodular deposits of amyloid in the lung, larynx, skin, urinary bladder, tongue, and orbit

53
Q

• Describe the organ systems most commonly affected by systemic amyloidosis, and list some of the key clinical symptoms. State how a diagnosis of amyloidosis is established, and the techniques that can be used to determine the type of amyloid that is deposited. State how amyloidosis can be treated.

A

o The type of precursor protein, the tissue distribution, and the amount of amyloid deposition largely determine the clinical manifestations. In the two most common forms of systemic amyloidosis, primary (AL) and secondary (AA amyloidosis), the major sites of clinically important amyloid deposition are in the kidneys, heart, and liver. In some disorders, clinically important amyloid deposition is limited to one organ.
o Some clinical and laboratory features that suggest amyloidosis include waxy skin and easy bruising, enlarged muscles (e.g. tongue, deltoids), symptoms and signs of heart failure, cardiac conduction abnormalities, hepatomegaly, renal dysfunction (heavy proteinuria or the nephrotic syndrome), peripheral and/or autonomic neuropathy, and impaired coagulation (factor X deficiency).
o Diagnosis is established by tissue biopsy within staining for amyloid
• For systemic disease – biopsy a clinically uninvolved area (abdominal or rectal biopsy)
• For localized disease – biopsy the locally affected tissue
o Lab Tests:
• Immunohistochemistry or liquid chromatography–mass spectrometry can be performed on the tissue biopsy to determine the type of amyloid present (AL, AA, TTR).
• Note, not all patients with monoclonal light chain protein detected on electrophoresis have amyloidosis!!
o Treatment: varies based on cause of amyloid production
• AA amyloidosis – treat underlying infectious or inflammatory disorder
• AL amyloidosis – treat underlying plasma cell dyscrasia
• Hemodialysis-related amyloidosis – alter mode of dialysis or consider renal transplantation
• Hereditary amyloidosis – liver transplantation if have mutant TTR precursor protein

54
Q

o Immune response over time:

A

• After leaving the thymus and bone marrow it takes about 30 minutes for mature lymphocytes to travel the body.
• After 30 minutes B and T cells can primarily be found in:
The spleen (~45%), stay here for about 5 hours
A lymph node (~45%), stay here for about 18 hours
The MALT (~10%)
• A mature, unactivated lymphocyte will complete this circuit about 1x to 2x per day.
• About 5,000 T cells can probe an APC (DC) per hour.
• It is estimated that about 1:100,000 B and T cells can respond to antigen at any given time in the body.
o T cells encounter antigen-APC complexes in the superficial and middle cortical areas
• When bound, the APC-T cells will move along a fibroblast network
• The interaction between APC and T cell arrests the T cell for a while and allows the T cell to proliferate

o T cells then encounter B cells in the Deep cortical layer of the lymph node and will be connected for hours
• B cells then start to kick out IgG which will travel through the bloodstream throughout the body
• Some B cells will work their way back into the germinal center where they will undergo somatic hypermutation
In the dark zone, the B cell sees antigen and undergoes somatic hypermutation through AID
Affinity can become better (further somatic hypermutation through AID) or worse (undergo apoptosis)
• Better affinity B cells then leave the lymph node through high endothelial venules (HEVs) to enter efferent lymphatics
o Following somatic hypermutation, the B cell can bind to a T cell through CD40/CD40L to become a plasma or memory B cell

o B2 B cells can encounter soluble antigen and do not require an interaction with T cells

55
Q

•HIV Classification:

A

o Genome: Two copies of positive sense (+)ssRNA
o Capsid symmetry: Icosahedral
o Envelope: Yes; includes gp120 and gp41 (encoded by env)
• Determines its transmission: fluids
o Trophism: CD4+ T cells (also CD4+ monocytes, macrophages)

56
Q

• Enzymes that accompany HIV

A

o proteases
o reverse transcriptase
o integrase

57
Q

• HIV Viral Infection:

A

o 1. Virus Entry: viral protein interacts with host receptor
• gp120 interacts with CD4
• gp41 binds to CXCR4 and CCR5
• CXCR4 also binds stromal derived factor-1 which can prevent HIV interaction with CD4

o 2. Viral genome replication
• Reverse transcriptase– RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (ssDNA synthesized), host DNA polymerase is able to take ssDNA and make dsDNA
• Integrase - allows for viral dsDNA to be incorporated in the host chromosomal DNA → provirus
• There are Three Different Reading Frames for Viruses:
• There is a lot of overlapping information – super compact!!!
• gag: capsid proteins (p24 et al) – clinically significant (dx tests)
• pol: reverse transcriptase, protease and integrase
• env: envelope glycoproteins gp120 and gp41
• LTRs (5’ or 3’): integration sites; bind host transcription factors NF-kB, Sp1, TBP (strong promoters)
• RNA can be spliced to make: rev, nef, and tat – although these products do not end up in the viral particle
• Tat – transcription factor; promotes expression of spliced RNA
• Rev – transcription factor; promotes unspliced RNA transcription which can become gag and pol polyproteins (these are packaged and sent out) or can be structure particles
o Immune involvement:
• IL-2 response: Th1, activates CTLs (CD8+ T cells)
• IL-4,5,6 response: Th2, activates B cells to become plasma cells

58
Q

• gp120

A

interacts with CD4

59
Q

• gp41

A

binds to CXCR4 and CCR5

• CXCR4 also binds stromal derived factor-1 which can prevent HIV interaction with CD4

60
Q

• Reverse transcriptase

A

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (ssDNA synthesized), host DNA polymerase is able to take ssDNA and make dsDNA

61
Q

• Integrase

A

allows for viral dsDNA to be incorporated in the host chromosomal DNA → provirus
• There are Three Different Reading Frames for Viruses:

62
Q

• gag

A

capsid proteins (p24 et al) – clinically significant (dx tests)

63
Q

• pol

A

reverse transcriptase, protease and integrase

64
Q

• env

A

envelope glycoproteins gp120 and gp41

65
Q

• LTRs

A

(5’ or 3’): integration sites; bind host transcription factors NF-kB, Sp1, TBP (strong promoters)

66
Q

• Tat

A

transcription factor; promotes expression of spliced RNA

67
Q

• Rev

A

transcription factor; promotes unspliced RNA transcription which can become gag and pol polyproteins (these are packaged and sent out) or can be structure particles

68
Q

o Immune involvement HIV

A
  • IL-2 response: Th1, activates CTLs (CD8+ T cells)

* IL-4,5,6 response: Th2, activates B cells to become plasma cells

69
Q

o Opportunistic Infections associated with HIV: most common infections

A
  • Viral: Kaposi sarcoma virus (KSV, HHV-8); Cytomegalovirus (CMV, HHV-4) systemic infection
  • Fungal: Candida
  • Protozoa: Cryptococcus, Pneumocystis
70
Q

HIV-1 Infection without Intervention

A
o	CD4 counts:							
•	600 – 1,200 cells/uL = Normal				
•	< 500 = HIV						
•	< 200 = AIDS
•	< 50 = life-threatening!!!!! – Severe AIDS

p24 antigen (virus) is detectable before p24 antibodies (host)

71
Q

• Diagnosis of HIV:

A

o Direct ELISA (detects patient p24) confirmed by western blot (detects patient anti-p24 antibodies)

72
Q

• Monitor HIV patients through

A

o CD4 counts by flow cytometry (see counts above)
o Viral load through PCR (viral RNA or DNA)
• PCR measures viral DNA (HIV provirus)
• RT-PCR is reverse transcription – PCR. It measures viral RNA in serum.

73
Q

• Goal of HIV therapy

A

keep CD4 count as high as possible
o Also, reduce the level of circulating viral particles (keeps CD4 counts high and reduces likelihood of other cells becoming infected as well as reduces transmission possibilities)
o Keep patients at a low viral load = better prognosis!

74
Q

• Clinical Manifestation of HIV

A

o Primary HIV syndrome: mononucleosis-like cold or flu-like symptoms (may occur 6-12 weeks after infection)
• Lymphadenopathy, fever, rash, headache, fatigue, diarrhea, sore throat, neurologic manifestations, asymptomatic
o HIV antibody test often negative but becomes positive within 3-6 months, this process is known as seroconversion
• Large amount of HIV in peripheral blood
• Primary HIV can be diagnosed using viral load titer assay or other tests (see above)
• Primary HIV syndrome resolves itself and HIV infected person remains asymptomatic for a prolonged period of time, often years
o Clinical Latency:
• HIV continues to reproduce, CD4 count gradually declines from its normal value of 500-1200.
• Once CD4 count drops below 500, HIV infected person at risk for opportunistic infections.
• The following diseases are predictive of the progression to AIDS:
• persistent herpes-zoster infection (shingles)
• oral candidiasis (thrush)
• oral hairy leukoplakia (EBV under immunosuppressed conditions)
• Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) – rare blood cancer of blood vessels; manifests as bluish-red oval-shaped patches that eventually thicken
o AIDS: CD4 count drops below 200 person is considered to have advanced HIV disease
• If preventative medications not started, the HIV infected person is now at risk for:
• Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
• cryptococcal meningitis
• toxoplasmosis
• If CD4 count drops below 50:
• Mycobacterium avium (atypical TB)
• Cytomegalovirus infections
• lymphoma
• dementia
• Most deaths occur with CD4 counts below 50.
o Prognosis:
• Risk of dying in three years after diagnosis linked to:
• CD4 below 200
• viral load over 100,000
• older than 50 years of age
• injecting drug user
• having prior AIDS-defining illness
• 84% alive in 10 years

75
Q

The following diseases are predictive of the progression to AIDS

A
  • persistent herpes-zoster infection (shingles)
  • oral candidiasis (thrush)
  • oral hairy leukoplakia (EBV under immunosuppressed conditions)
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) – rare blood cancer of blood vessels; manifests as bluish-red oval-shaped patches that eventually thicken
76
Q

o AIDS

A
CD4 count drops below 200 person is considered to have advanced HIV disease
•	If preventative medications not started, the HIV infected person is now at risk for:
•	Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
•	cryptococcal meningitis
•	toxoplasmosis
•	If CD4 count drops below 50:
•	Mycobacterium avium (atypical TB)
•	Cytomegalovirus infections
•	lymphoma
•	dementia
•	Most deaths occur with CD4 counts below 50.
o	Prognosis:
•	Risk of dying in three years after diagnosis linked to:
•	CD4 below 200
•	viral load over 100,000
•	older than 50 years of age
•	injecting drug user
•	having prior AIDS-defining illness
•	84% alive in 10 years