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ISA CAP > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Assuming that any of the below choices would be acceptable for a given application,
which of the following would MOST LIKELY be the least costly feedback solution?
a. 1,000 count incremental encoder
b. 25-bit multi-turn absolute encoder
c. Master vernier resolver set
d. Laser interferometer

A

a. 1,000 count incremental encoder

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2
Q

In tuning an axis for point-to-point moves, what would the automation professional
look for?
a. Axis that has no following error
b. Axis with a lot of feedforward to adjust for velocity changes
c. Axis that quickly makes the move but with minimal or no overshoot
d. Extremely hot axis with very little following error

A

c. Axis that quickly makes the move but with minimal or no overshoot

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3
Q

Which of the following can be considered a fixed speed motor?
a. Stepper
b. Multiple pole
c. Wound rotor
d. Synchronous

A

d. Synchronous

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4
Q

Which of the following actuators should be used for simple point-to-point positioning
systems that do NOT require a lot of stiffness and are constrained by purchase
price?
a. Linear motor
b. Hydraulic actuator
c. Brushless AC motor
d. Pneumatic actuator

A

d. Pneumatic actuator

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5
Q

When measuring the performance of a motion control axis, which of the following is
the correct definition of the bandwidth and what is the bandwidth of the position loop
with typical industrial machinery?
a. Bandwidth is the point where the output is 0.7071 of the input in amplitude,
and typical industrial machinery is at about 30 Hertz.
b. Bandwidth is the point where the output is 0.7071 of the input in amplitude,
and typical industrial machinery is at about 3 Hertz.
c. Bandwidth is the point where the output is 0.636 of the input in amplitude, and
typical industrial machinery is at about 3 Hertz.
d. Bandwidth is the point where the output is 0.636 of the input in amplitude, and
typical industrial machinery is at about 30 Hertz.

A

b. Bandwidth is the point where the output is 0.7071 of the input in amplitude,
and typical industrial machinery is at about 3 Hertz.

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6
Q

A pneumatic cylinder is needed to provide linear motion in a small space. Cylinder A
has a cylinder area of 2.43 square inches and can be operated at 66 psi. Cylinder B
has a cylinder area of 1.97 square inches and can be operated at 80 psi. If space is
at a premium, what is the force of the BEST choice for the cylinder?
a. 27.2 pounds
b. 40.6 pounds
c. 157.6 pounds
d. 160.4 pounds

A

c. 157.6 pounds

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7
Q

Which of the following would be MOST likely to provide velocity control feedback for
a hydraulic cylinder?
a. Magnetorestrictive sensor
b. Encoders
c. Linear potentiometer
d. Proximity sensor

A

a. Magnetorestrictive sensor

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8
Q

Which of the following is true of a stepper motor?
a. It operates at a low slip speed.
b. It is used open loop.
c. It is used closed loop.
d. It is applied to a flux vector drive.

A

b. It is used open loop.

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9
Q

Which of the following allows a permanent magnet DC servo to turn the rotor through
360 degrees?
a. Servo eliminates the need for a field winding by using a wound rotor with a
three-phase Y, which adjusts current in the windings to produce smooth
torque.
b. Brush commutator uses brushes to switch current direction in the windings.
c. Transformer converts DC to AC current to switch current direction.
d. Servo uses a wound rotor to create three cascaded loops, one for current, one
for torque, and one to balance the torque against the permanent magnetic
field.

A

b. Brush commutator uses brushes to switch current direction in the windings.

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10
Q

In a clean environment, a large amount of linear force is needed with no resilience
and a high degree of control. Which of the following would satisfy these
requirements if the devices can be fairly expensive?
a. Electrical rotary motor with a lead screw
b. Hydraulic piston
c. Pneumatic piston
d. Hydraulic rotary motor with a lead screw

A

a. Electrical rotary motor with a lead screw

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11
Q

Which of the following is associated with a motor with two-quadrant operation?
a. Motoring the load in the reverse speed and torque direction
b. Regenerative braking
c. Using reverse torque to stop
d. Coasting to a stop

A

c. Using reverse torque to stop

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12
Q

Automation moving from human controlled machinery to automated control replaced
the measurement scale with which of the following?
a. Operator (input device)
b. Feedback device
c. Electronic controller
d. Actuator (motor)

A

b. Feedback device

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13
Q

Which of the following would enable an electrical controller and actuator to have
exact control over both motion and position?
a. Solenoid control valve with a feedback loop from a limit switch
b. Proportionate control valve with a feedback loop from a magnetorestrictive
sensor
c. Solenoid control valve with a feedback loop from a magnetorestrictive sensor
d. Proportionate control valve with a feedback loop from a limit switch

A

b. Proportionate control valve with a feedback loop from a magnetorestrictive
sensor

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14
Q

A servo with a feedback device is attached to the load and is generating an error
signal from the summing network. How is this error calculated, and what will the
drive and motor do when the device continues to be in error?
a. Summing network subtracts the feedback number from the digital command to
find the error; the motor will continue to drive the load until the error is zero.
b. Summing network adds the feedback number to the digital command to find
the error; the motor will cease operations until the error is zero.
c. Summing network subtracts the feedback number from the digital command to
find the error; the motor will cease operations until the error is zero.
d. Summing network adds the feedback number to the digital command to find
the error; the motor will continue to drive the load until the error is zero.

A

a. Summing network subtracts the feedback number from the digital command to
find the error; the motor will continue to drive the load until the error is zero.

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15
Q

Which of the following is typically used to provide position feedback for a linear
hydraulic axis?
a. Resolver
b. Laser interferometers
c. Encoder
d. Magnetorestrictive transducer

A

d. Magnetorestrictive transducer

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16
Q

Which of the following is the innermost loop of a servo motion control system that
resides in the drive and is typically set by the vendor?
a. Velocity loop
b. Torque loop
c. Three-phase Y
d. Position loop

A

b. Torque loop

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17
Q

Which of the following correctly explains how encoders are used to determine the
direction of travel?
a. Encoders use Sin and Cos signals to produce enough counts per rev to
determine an absolute position and direction of travel.
b. Encoders use a disc with slots cut in it to create a pulse train as the shaft is
turned; the count of the pulse train indicates the direction of travel.
c. Incremental encoders use a disc that reveals a specific binary code based on
the position of the disc, and the direction of spin indicates direction of travel.
d. Encoders have two photo detectors set 90 degrees apart, and the channel that
rises first shows the direction of travel.

A

d. Encoders have two photo detectors set 90 degrees apart, and the channel that
rises first shows the direction of travel.

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18
Q

Which of the following is true of a servo system that has its drive in velocity mode?
a. The velocity loop will reside in the controller, which will keep the loop in tune.
b. The servo drive is responsible for closing both the velocity and torque loops.
c. The controller handles the velocity loop and automatically tunes the system so
it can accurately follow the velocity command.
d. The position loop must be properly tuned before the velocity loop can be
tuned.

A

b. The servo drive is responsible for closing both the velocity and torque loops.

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19
Q

The major cost associated with implementing first principal models is due to
a. outside support.
b. software cost.
c. yearly maintenance costs.
d. increased frequency of lab samples.

A

a. outside support.

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20
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the operation of an MPC?
a. MPC is more sensitive to a decrease in dead time than to an increase.
b. An MPC goes unstable with an increase in process dead time.
c. MPC performs best in a process where the dead time is smaller than the time
constraint.
d. An increase in the process dead time of 50% can cause damped oscillations.

A

a. MPC is more sensitive to a decrease in dead time than to an increase.

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21
Q

Which of the following is true of most stack probes?
a. They eliminate the need for air cleaning of the system.
b. They are heated to keep the sample gas above the dew point.
c. They play a minor role in calibration of the system.
d. They provide a backup connection to the source being monitored.

A

b. They are heated to keep the sample gas above the dew point.

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22
Q

Which of the following is true of a chart recorder?
a. It monitors in parallel with the DAS system.
b. It does not take over monitoring duties if there is a DAS failure.
c. It is seen as part of the DAS system.
d. It assists the CEMS in passing the required weekly calibration.

A

a. It monitors in parallel with the DAS system.

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23
Q

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for complexity in HVAC systems?
a. Zone controls and their complex sensor feedback
b. Internet-based off-site building management requirements
c. Optimizing central equipment with individual zones
d. Need for green designs such as passive systems

A

c. Optimizing central equipment with individual zones

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24
Q

The PRIMARY purpose of process modeling is to
a. correct errors in the process as they occur.
b. determine the complexity of the system.
c. provide controlled variables from process outputs.
d. determine how well a controlled variable can be predicted.

A

d. determine how well a controlled variable can be predicted.

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25
Q

The PRIMARY advantage of an ANN lies in its ability to
a. handle correlated process inputs.
b. compile physical property data.
c. interpolate nonlinear relationships.
d. accurately identify dynamic responses.

A

c. interpolate nonlinear relationships.

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26
Q

Which of the following is typical of the cost for control systems?
a. The cost of an adaptive controller depends on the number of possible
disturbances.
b. The cost of MPC software depends on the number of manipulated variables.
c. The FLC and an adaptive controller are significantly more expensive than a
PID.
d. The installed cost of MPC and RTO is based on plant capacity.

A

b. The cost of MPC software depends on the number of manipulated variables.

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27
Q

The sample line in a CEMS is heated to
a. move the sample more quickly through the line.
b. preserve the integrity of the sample.
c. eliminate chemical absorption.
d. test the volatility of the sample at various temperatures.

A

b. preserve the integrity of the sample.

28
Q

A relative accuracy test audit (RATA) does NOT include which of the following basic
tests?
a. Linearity check
b. Pressure check
c. Cycle/response time test
d. Gaseous stratification

A

b. Pressure check

29
Q

Which of the following refers to the suite of communications protocols used to
connect hosts on the Internet?
a. Niagara
b. oBIX
c. TCP/IP
d. BACnet

A

c. TCP/IP

30
Q

Models for process design have “low fidelity” in terms of process dead time, cycling,
and noise because which of the following is NOT adequately modeled?
a. Pressure
b. Valves
c. Temperature
d. Errors

A

b. Valves

31
Q

Which of the following is true of fuzzy logic?
a. It relies on an operator’s technical understanding of the system rather than
experience.
b. It is mathematical in nature and unlike human logic.
c. It can be implemented in hardware but not software.
d. It uses imprecise data to arrive at a definite conclusion.

A

d. It uses imprecise data to arrive at a definite conclusion.

32
Q

A reverse osmosis water purification system takes impure water by-product from
certain operations at a chemical plant, detects the purity level of the water, controls
whether or not to purify the water, purifies the water as needed, and then reports
back to the overall system and supplies clean water for new operations at the plant.
Which of the following describes this water purification system?
a. Equipment entity (unit)
b. Control module (unit)
c. Control module (process cell)
d. Equipment entity (process cell)

A

a. Equipment entity (unit)

33
Q

Which of the following is true of a self-limiting heat tracer?
a. It is best used when temperatures must be carefully controlled.
b. It becomes more resistive as temperatures rise.
c. It has a temperature controller that limits power delivery.
d. It is acceptable for temperatures above 250 degrees Fahrenheit.

A

b. It becomes more resistive as temperatures rise.

34
Q

The EPA becomes aware that a plant does not have a quality assurance program in
place for its CEMS/DAS/RTU system. The most likely outcome is that
a. the EPA will fine the company from the date of the violation.
b. the company will hire an outside contractor to fulfill QA requirements.
c. the company has the discretion to determine if a QA plan is necessary.
d. the EPA will give the company 30 days to put a plan in place.

A

a. the EPA will fine the company from the date of the violation.

35
Q

Which of the following enables companies to deliver sophisticated video and audio
content?
a. Traditional Web browser
b. Data replication technology
c. Increased bandwidth
d. Load balancing software

A

c. Increased bandwidth

36
Q

Which of the following is true in terms of variable correlation?
a. If the current value of an input or output variable depends upon past values of
the same variable, there is cross-correlation between inputs.
b. If one variable depends upon another variable, there is a cross-correlation
from cause and effect.
c. It is easiest to obtain by examining historical data that does not change.
d. Correlation is not indicated in tests based on experimental models.

A

b. If one variable depends upon another variable, there is a cross-correlation
from cause and effect.

37
Q

Which of the following statements about fuzzy logic controllers is true?
a. The rules for the fuzzy logic replacement for a PI controller have two
antecedents and two consequents.
b. A fuzzy logic controller is tuned by adjusting the scale factors.
c. If-then statements are developed as backup rules in case of system failure.
d. A fuzzy logic controller cannot replace a PID controller unless the fuzzy
controller is linear.

A

b. A fuzzy logic controller is tuned by adjusting the scale factors.

38
Q

A sample chiller is designed to
a. select the calibration gas that is sent to the probe.
b. condense out the moisture.
c. remove particulate matter.
d. identify leaks in the sample gas line.

A

b. condense out the moisture.

39
Q

All of the following are included in the scope of building automation EXCEPT
a. fugitive emission control.
b. fire/life safety control.
c. energy management control.
d. video control.

A

a. fugitive emission control.

40
Q

Which of the following will NOT verify and improve the accuracy of a model’s
prediction of the dynamic response of the controlled variable?
a. Test skid
b. Laboratory measurements
c. Historical data
d. Online tests

A

c. Historical data

41
Q

Self-tuning is indicated when
a. an operator is diligent in entering tuning parameters as operating conditions
change.
b. a set of tuning parameters needs to be generated at startup.
c. process characteristics can be categorized from simple measured data.
d. process characteristics do not change rapidly.

A

b. a set of tuning parameters needs to be generated at startup.

42
Q

The primary function of bias calibration is to
a. remove the particulate before sending the sample to the probe.
b. check the sample gas transport system for leaks.
c. eliminate the need for special calibration during maintenance.
d. eliminate the need for a solenoid to send the gas to the probe.

A

b. check the sample gas transport system for leaks.

43
Q

Which of the following is true of HVAC systems?
a. Systems must conform to consistent parameters.
b. Most chillers, boilers, pumps, and air-handling equipment are based on simple
feedback of space temperature.
c. Systems are usually viewed on-site only.
d. Thermal zones usually reflect internal thermal barriers of the building.

A

d. Thermal zones usually reflect internal thermal barriers of the building.

44
Q

Which of following occurs with a linear dynamic estimator?
a. The controlled variable is synchronized with a field or lab measurement.
b. MPC techniques are modified for use within the LDE process.
c. A tieback model can be used to show the effect of multiple disturbances.
d. The process gain changes very little.

A

a. The controlled variable is synchronized with a field or lab measurement.

45
Q

Which of the following is true of the newest generation of adaptive controllers?
a. The algorithm uses model switching to adapt most quickly.
b. They have the same performance as traditional PIDs.
c. The degree of performance and robustness is preset.
d. The controller must wait for an excitation and adaptation when the controller

A

a. The algorithm uses model switching to adapt most quickly.

46
Q

Which of the following is BEST suited to a gas turbine power plant that must identify
NOx emissions?
a. Non-dispersive infrared gas analyzer
b. Constant potential electrolysis
c. Chemiluminescence analyzer
d. Solution conductivity analyzer

A

c. Chemiluminescence analyzer

47
Q

The BACnet movement and products based on the Echelon chip started a trend
toward which of the following?
a. Low cost, high functionality proprietary controls
b. Industry open standards
c. Low cost pneumatic controls
d. Internet/browser-based technology

A

b. Industry open standards

48
Q

Which of the following is true of multivariate statistical process control?
a. Process inputs are not sorted into principal components.
b. The model is not able to predict abnormal batch behavior.
c. The process mimics the behavior of the brain.
d. Data points, connected in the proper time sequence, form a worm plot.

A

d. Data points, connected in the proper time sequence, form a worm plot.

49
Q

Which of the following is NOT encompassed in model predictive control?
a. Cascade control
b. Feedforward
c. Constraint control
d. Decoupling

A

a. Cascade control

50
Q

Of the following analyzer categories, which is most commonly used for measuring
sulfur dioxide?
a. Non-dispersive infrared gas
b. Infrared absorption
c. Constant potential electrolysis
d. Solution conductivity

A

b. Infrared absorption

51
Q

Which of the following were some companies more prepared to adopt because they
designed their building automation systems around standardized presentation
models used in IT?
a. Industry open standards
b. Internet/browser-based technology
c. Low cost pneumatic controls
d. Low cost, high functionality proprietary controls

A

b. Internet/browser-based technology

52
Q

A steady state first principal model
a. eliminates pressure-flow solvers that make convergence of the model more
difficult.
b. is modeled by breaking a process volume into several interconnected
volumes.
c. can run in real time or faster than real time.
d. must start at the same point in time as the control system and run at the same
real time factor.

A

a. eliminates pressure-flow solvers that make convergence of the model more
difficult.

53
Q

The PRIMARY reason for failure in adaptive controllers is
a. control valve time constraints.
b. size of change in the controller output.
c. excessive deadband and stick-slip.
d. calibration span.

A

c. excessive deadband and stick-slip.

54
Q

A sample gas containing a large volume of oxygen in the presence of a magnetic
field will
a. experience a drop in pressure.
b. move vigorously.
c. move slightly.
d. experience no pressure change.

A

b. move vigorously.

55
Q

As a result of the freedom of information on the Internet and Web services, the large
building automation industry is converging with
a. internal process control systems.
b. middleware.
c. corporate enterprise systems.
d. energy management control systems (EMCS).

A

c. corporate enterprise systems.

56
Q

Both the LDE and MSPC
a. require that there be no correlation between process outputs.
b. handle hundreds of inputs.
c. excel at interpolation of nonlinear relationships.
d. can model process outputs with significant time constants.

A

a. require that there be no correlation between process outputs.

57
Q

Which of the following is true of the functioning of an adaptive controller?
a. The process is excited by a known change to identify the process gain, dead
time, and time constant.
b. Changes in valve position made during automatic operating mode trigger the
identification of the process model.
c. When the process exhibits a runaway response, it will wait for the time to
steady state.
d. The complete process model may be extracted from the combined model of
the controller and process for unknown disturbances.

A

a. The process is excited by a known change to identify the process gain, dead
time, and time constant.

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of the concept of control as a function?
a. Worker turning off a valve in response to a flashing light
b. Turbine spinning due to water from a waterfall
c. Worker pouring molten iron into a mold in response to a verbal command
d. Limit switch triggering a valve to close

A

b. Turbine spinning due to water from a waterfall

59
Q

Which of the following is true of optical flow meters?
a. They increase the temperature of the flue gas.
b. They are used for the calculation for stack flow.
c. They require frequent calibration.
d. They are triggered by the density of the flue gas.

A

b. They are used for the calculation for stack flow.

60
Q

Which of the following correctly indicates how direct digital control system elements
are specified?
a. Reusable identifiers for each type of hardware and software point
b. Unique numbers for software points and reusable identifiers for each type of
hardware point
c. Unique numbers for hardware points and reusable software points identified by
type code only
d. Unique number for each hardware and software point

A

d. Unique number for each hardware and software point

61
Q

Both ANN and MSPC will
a. risk identifying a process input as a cause.
b. work with less than five data points for each process input.
c. reject feedback correction from an online measurement.
d. model process outputs with significant time constants.

A

a. risk identifying a process input as a cause.

62
Q

An advantage of the MPC over the PID is that it excels at handling
a. backlash and stick-slip.
b. rate setting of greater than 60 seconds.
c. multivariable control problems.
d. unmeasured load disturbances.

A

c. multivariable control problems.

63
Q

A unit can contain all of the following EXCEPT
a. actuators and sensors.
b. control module.
c. process cell.
d. equipment module.

A

c. process cell.

64
Q

The Clean Air Act of 1970
a. mandated monitoring of stack emissions for selected industries.
b. established a national research agency to reduce pollution.
c. phased out the use of high sulfur coal and oil.
d. contained the first mention of the phrase “clean air.”

A

a. mandated monitoring of stack emissions for selected industries.

65
Q

The primary purpose of the DAS/RTU is to
a. provide a backup to the CEM system.
b. record required calibrations and monitoring.
c. calculate a reasonable degree of error for CEM systems.
d. calibrate pollutants for zero and span.

A

b. record required calibrations and monitoring.

66
Q

Which of the following uses passive designs and interactive control of a building as
well as outdoor air when possible for free cooling?
a. Direct digital control
b. Green building movement
c. Energy management control system
d. Client comfort system

A

b. Green building movement

ISA CAP (16 decks)

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