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Micro Final Exam > Week 5: Skin, Eyes, Respiratory Diseases > Flashcards

Week 5: Skin, Eyes, Respiratory Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

_____________ glands produce a lipid-rich substance that contains proteins and minerals and protects the skin.

a. Sweat
b. Mammary
c. Sebaceous
d. Endocrine

A

Sebaceous

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2
Q

Which layer of skin contains living cells, is vascularized, and lies directly above the hypodermis?

a. the stratum corneum
b. the dermis
c. the epidermis
d. the conjunctiva

A

Dermis

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3
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is most often associated with being

a. coagulase +
b. coagulase -
c. catalase -
d. gram-negative

A

Coagulase +

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4
Q

M protein is produced by

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Propionibacterium acnes
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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5
Q

___________ is a major cause of preventable blindness that can be reduced through improved sanitation.

a. Ophthalmia neonatorum
b. Keratitis
c. Trachoma
d. Cutaneous anthrax

A

Trachoma

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6
Q

Which species is frequently associated with nosocomial infections transmitted via medical devices inserted into the body?

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Proproniobacterium acnes
d. Bacillus anthracis

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

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7
Q

Warts are caused by

a. human papillomavirus.
b. herpes simplex virus.
c. adenoviruses.
d. parvovirus B19.

A

Human papillomavirus

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8
Q

Which of these viruses can spread to the eye to cause a form of keratitis?

a. human papillomavirus
b. herpes simplex virus 1
c. parvovirus 19
d. circoviruses

A

Herpes Simplex Virus 1 (HSV-1)

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9
Q

Cold sores are associated with:

a. human papillomavirus
b. roseola
c. herpes simplex viruses
d. human herpesvirus 6

A

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

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10
Q

Which disease is usually self-limiting but is most commonly treated with ganciclovir if medical treatment is needed?

a. roseola
b. oral herpes
c. papillomas
d. viral conjunctivitis

A

Roseola virus

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11
Q

Adenoviruses can cause:

a. viral conjunctivitis
b. herpetic conjunctivitis
c. papillomas
d. oral herpes

A

Viral conjunctivitis

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12
Q

___________ is a superficial fungal infection found on the head.

a. Tinea cruris
b. Tinea capitis
c. Tinea pedis
d. Tinea corporis

A

Tinea capitis

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13
Q

For what purpose would a health-care professional use a Wood’s lamp for a suspected case of ringworm?

a. to prevent the rash from spreading
b. to kill the fungus
c. to visualize the fungus
d. to examine the fungus microscopically

A

To visualize the fungus

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14
Q

Sabouraud dextrose agar CC is selective for:

a. all fungi
b. non-saprophytic fungi
c. bacteria
d. viruses

A

Non-saprophytic fungi

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15
Q

The first-line recommended treatment for sporotrichosis is:

a. itraconazole
b. clindamycin
c. amphotericin
d. nystatin

A

Itraconazole

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16
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause an Acanthamoeba infection?

a. swimming in a lake while wearing contact lenses
b. being bitten by deerflies in Central Africa
c. living environments in a college dormitory with communal showers
d. participating in a contact sport such as wrestling

A

Swimming in a lake while wearing contact lenses

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17
Q

The parasitic Loa loa worm can cause great pain when it:

a. moves through the bloodstream
b. exits through the skin of the foot
c. travels through the conjunctiva
d. enters the digestive tract

A

Travels through the conjunctiva

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18
Q

A patient tests positive for Loa loa antibodies. What does this test indicate?

a. The individual was exposed to Loa loa at some point.
b. The individual is currently suffering from loiasis.
c. The individual has never been exposed to Loa loa.
d. The individual is immunosuppressed.

A

The individual was exposed to Loa loa at some point

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19
Q

________ is commonly treated with a combination of chlorhexidine and polyhexamethylene biguanide.

a. Acanthamoeba keratitis
b. Sporotrichosis
c. Candidiasis
d. Loiasis

A

Acanthamoeba keratitis

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20
Q

The ________ is the outermost layer of the epidermis.

A

Stratum corneum

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21
Q

The mucous membrane that covers the surface of the eyeball and inner eyelid is called the ________.

A

Conjunctiva

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22
Q

A purulent wound produces ________.

A

Pus

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23
Q

Human herpesvirus 6 is the causative agent of ________.

A

Roseola

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24
Q

The most common subcutaneous mycosis in temperate regions is ________.

A

Sporotrichosis

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25
Q

Eye worm is another name for ________.

A

Loiasis

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26
Q

The ________ is the part of the eye that is damaged due to Acanthamoeba keratitis.

A

Cornea

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27
Q

Which microbial virulence factor is most important for attachment to host respiratory tissues?

a. adhesins
b. lipopolysaccharide
c. hyaluronidase
d. capsules

A

Adhesions

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28
Q

Which of the following does not involve a bacterial exotoxin?

a. diphtheria
b. whooping cough
c. scarlet fever
d. Q fever

A

Q fever

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29
Q

What disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii?

a. Q fever
b. tuberculosis
c. diphtheria
d. walking pneumonia

A

Q fever

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30
Q

In which stage of pertussis is the characteristic whooping sound made?

a. convalescence
b. catarrhal
c. paroxysmal
d. prodromal

A

Paroxysmal

(sudden attack)

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31
Q

What is the causative agent of Q fever?

a. Coxiella burnetii
b. Chlamydophila psittaci
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Coxiella brunetii

32
Q

Which of these microbes causes “walking pneumonia”?

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Chlamydophila pneumoniae

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

33
Q

Which of the following viruses is not commonly associated with the common cold?

a. coronavirus
b. adenovirus
c. rhinovirus
d. varicella-zoster virus

A

Varicella-Zoster virus

34
Q

Which of the following viral diseases has been eliminated from the general population worldwide?

a. smallpox
b. measles
c. German measles
d. influenza

A

Smallpox

35
Q

What term refers to multinucleated cells that form when many host cells fuse together during infections?

a. Ghon elements
b. Reye syndrome
c. Koplik’s spots
d. syncytia

A

Syncytia

36
Q

Which of the following diseases is not associated with coronavirus infections?

a. Middle East respiratory syndrome
b. German measles
c. the common cold
d. severe acute respiratory syndrome

A

German measles

37
Q

Which of these viruses is responsible for causing shingles?

a. rubella virus
b. measles virus
c. varicella-zoster virus
d. variola major virus

A

Varicella-Zoster virus

38
Q

Which of these infections is also referred to as Valley fever?

a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. blastomycosis
d. aspergillosis

A

Coccidiodomycosis

39
Q

Which of the following is not caused by a dimorphic fungus?

a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. blastomycosis
d. aspergillosis

A

Aspergillosis

40
Q

Which of the following is caused by infections by bread molds?

a. mucormycosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. cryptococcosis
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

Mucormycosis

41
Q

In the United States, most histoplasmosis cases occur

a. in the Pacific northwest.
b. in the desert southwest.
c. in the Mississippi river valley.
d. in Colorado river valley.

A

Mississippi River Valley

42
Q

Which of the following infections can be diagnosed using a skin test similar to the tuberculin test?

a. histoplasmosis
b. cryptococcosis
c. blastomycosis
d. aspergillosis

A

Aspergillosis

43
Q

Calcified lesions called _______ form in the lungs of patients with TB.

A

Ghon complexes

44
Q

The _______ is used to serologically identify Streptococcus pneumoniae isolates.

A

Quellung reaction

45
Q

_______ is a zoonotic infection that can be contracted by people who handle birds.

A

Psittacosis

46
Q

The main virulence factor involved in scarlet fever is the _______.

A

Erythrogenic toxin

47
Q

The _______ virus is responsible for causing German measles.

A

Rubella

48
Q

A(n) _______ is an uncontrolled positive feedback loop between cytokines and leucocytes.

A

Cytokine Storm

49
Q

In cases of shingles, the antiviral drug _______ may be prescribed.

A

Acyclovir

50
Q

The slow accumulation of genetic changes to an influenza virus over time is referred to as _______.

A

Antigenic Drift

51
Q

The _______ vaccine is effective in controlling both measles and rubella.

A

MMR

52
Q

In coccidioidomycosis, _______ containing many endospores form in the lungs.

A

Spherules

53
Q

In cryptococcosis, the main fungal virulence factor is the _______, which helps the pathogen avoid phagocytosis.

A

Capsule

54
Q

In some mycoses, fungal balls called _______ form in the lungs

A

Aspergillomas

55
Q

Most US cases of coccidioidomycosis occur in _______.

A

The Desert Southwest

56
Q

Coccidioidomycosis may develop when Coccidioides immitis _______ are inhaled.

A

Arthrospores

57
Q

Papillomas are also known as

a. urticaria
b. comedones
c. pustules
d. warts

A

Warts

58
Q

Tinea corporis is also known as

a. warts
b. ringworm
c. viral keratitis
d. conjunctivitis

A

Ringworm

59
Q

a deep lesion that develops from multiple boils is called a

a. pustule
b. carbuncle
c. macule
d. furuncle

A

Carbuncle

60
Q

Which of the following best describes impetigo?

a. a systemic fungal infection caused by Candida spp. and other species that is difficult to treat
b. a highly contagious infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes that causes vesicles, pustules, and bullae
c. a mild and self-limiting viral infection that can be caused by a wide range of infectious agents
d. a noncontagious rash (not caused by an infectious agent) that spreads rapidly across the skin

A

A highly contagious infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes that causes vesicles, pustules, and bullae

61
Q

What is one way you can distinguish between a Streptococcus and a Staphylococcus infection?

a. Staphylococcus bacteria are gram negative, whereas Streptococcus bacteria are gram positive.
b. Streptococcus bacteria grow on mannitol salt agar, whereas Staphylococcus bacteria do not.
c. Under the microscope, Staphylococcus bacteria form clusters and Streptococcus bacteria do not.
d. Streptococcus bacteria are catalase positive, whereas Staphylococcus bacteria are catalase negative.

A

Under the microscope, Staphylococcus bacteria form clusters and Streptococcus bacteria do not.

62
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis is commonly treated with which of the following?

a. chloramphenicol
b. erythromycin
c. fluoroquinolone
d. penicillin

A

Erythromycin

63
Q

To reduce transmission risk and symptoms, HSV-1 is often treated with:

a. fluoroquinolone
b. azithromycin
c. valacyclovir
d. ribavirin

A

Valacyclovir

64
Q

The relatively mild viral disease usually caused by human herpesvirus-6, or sometimes human herpesvirus-7, is better known as:

a. measles
b. chicken pox
c. roseola
d. fifth disease

A

Roseola

65
Q

Individuals who wear contact lenses are at particular risk of developing which of the following?

a. acute bacterial conjunctivitis
b. blepharitis
c. keratitis
d. HSV-1 lesions

A

Keratitis

66
Q

Which is the most effective way to reduce the risk of influenza transmission?

a. annual vaccination
b. tetracycline
c. oseltamivir
d. amantadine

A

Annual vaccination

67
Q

When the alveoli become fluid-filled in pneumonia, the affected areas are called:

a. pneumothorax
b. pneumonitis
c. consolidations
d. inflammations

A

Consolidations

68
Q

Against which lower respiratory infection does vaccination with PCV13 protect?

a. mycoplasma pneumonia
b. coronaviruses
c. pneumococcal pneumonia
d. Influenza

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

69
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?

a. coagulase +
b. Pyrogenic exotoxins
c. hyaluronic acid capsule
d. catalase -
e. production of exfoliatin (aka exfoliative toxin)

A

Coagulase +
Production of exfoliatin

70
Q

Tissue necrosis during necrotizing fasciitis is attributable to

a. streptokinase
b. streptolysins
c. pyrogenic exotoxins
d. coagulase

A

Streptolysins

71
Q

A 65-year-old woman has experienced a productive cough for the last several weeks, and her daughter is bringing her to the Emergency department because the woman is now complaining of severe headache. You decide to test a sputum sample for bacteria. What do you expect to see in a Gram stain?

a. Gram positive cocci in irregular clusters
b. Gram positive cocci in pairs or short chains
c. Gram negative cocci in chains
d. Cell wall-less bacteria

A

Gram-positive cocci in pairs or short chains

72
Q

Beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Mycoplasma infections.

a. True
b. False

A

True

73
Q

Parvovirus B19 has a ____________ genome.

a. ssDNA
b. dsDNA
c. +ssRNA
d. -ssRNA

A

ssDNA

74
Q

A suspected RSV diagnosis is best confirmed by

a. antigen detection swab.
b. presence of syncytia in tissue samples.
c. RT-PCR.
d. serology.

A

RT-PCR

75
Q

Select all which accurately describe Aspergillus.

a. transmitted by direct contact
b. It is mostly an issue in those with underlying health conditions
c. it can causes masses within the lung
d. it is a fungus

A
  1. It is a fungus
  2. It is mostly an issue in those with underlying health conditions
  3. It can cause masses within the lungs
76
Q

Your sister was diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia one week ago, and has been faithfully taking her prescription for penicillin. However, her symptoms have not improved, although neither have they worsened. You suggest she go back to her doctor for re-evaulation as you expect her antibiotic is not effective against the type of bacteria infecting her lungs. You explain to her that her infection is MOST LIKELY not responding to the antibiotics because

a. it is antibiotic resistant
b. it is viral and the diagnosing clinician was wrong
c. it is Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. it is a Gram-positive organisms and not treatable by penicillin

A

It is Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Micro Final Exam (3 decks)

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