Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

The external iliac artery becomes the _____ artery

A

femoral

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2
Q

What does the iliac artery supply?

A

The branches supply the pelvic viscera and perineum

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3
Q

What are the branches of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery

A

Iliolumbar artery
lateral sacral arteries
superior gluteal arteries

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4
Q

What are the branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery? Include both male and female

A
Umbilical artery 
Obturator artery 
Accessory obturator artery (20%) 
Inferior vesical artery 
Uterine artery 
vaginal 
Middle rectal artery 
Internal pudendal artery 
Inferior gluteal artery
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5
Q

The ______ _______ ________ may provide a metastatic pathway for prostatic or ovarian cancer cell to the vertebrae or cranial cavity

A

lateral sacral veins

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6
Q

What nerves of the sacral plexus exit from the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Sciatic nerve
pudendal nerve
superior gluteal nerve
inferior gluteal nerve

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7
Q

What is the pathway of sprem transport?

A

Straight tubules

Rete Testis

Efferent ductules

Epididymis

Ductus deferens

ejaculatory duct

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8
Q

What epithelium is found in the seminiferous tubules?

A

Spermatogenic, with Sertoli cells & germ cells

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9
Q

What epithelium is found in the straight tubules?

A

Proximal = Sertoli cells only Distal = simple cuboidal

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10
Q

What epithelium is found in the rete testis?

A

Simple cuboidal with microvilla & single cilia

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11
Q

What epithelium is found in the efferent ductules?

A

Alternating patches of simple cuboidal nonciliated & simple columnar ciliated

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12
Q

What epithelium is found in the epididymal duct?

A

Pseudostratified columnar w/stereocilia

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13
Q

What epithelium is found in the ductus deferens?

A

Pseudostratified columnar w/ fewer stereocilia

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14
Q

What epithelium is found in the ejaculatory ducts?

A

Pseudostratified & simple columnar

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15
Q

What is the function of the seminiferous tubules

A

Produce sperm

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16
Q

What is the function of the straight tubules?

A

Convey sperm into rete testis

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17
Q

What is the function of the rete testis?

A

Collects sperm from seminiferous tubules

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18
Q

What is the function of the efferent ductules?

A

Convey sperm into the epididymis

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19
Q

What is the function of the epididymal ducts?

A

Sperm maturation & short- term storage

Expels sperm at ejaculation

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20
Q

What is the function of the ductus deferens

A

Carries sperm from epididymis → ejaculatory ducts

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21
Q

What is the function of the ejaculatory ducts?

A

• Mix sperm & seminal fluid
• Deliver semen to urethra
• Prostatic secretion is
added here

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22
Q

Neoplastic disorders are grouped according to origin from the main ovarian cell types. What are the three types?

A
  1. Mullerian epithelium
  2. Germ cells
  3. Sex cord stromal cells
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23
Q

The _____ _______ is a coat of glycoproteins that encase the primary oocyte

A

zona pellucida

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24
Q

What is the mechanism that the cells undergo during follicular atresia? Describe the membrane.

A

Apoptosis is the membrane

ensures the regression of the follicle without causing an inflammatory response

glassy membrane with thick folded basement membrane

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25
Q

Describe what happens to the corpus luteum if the egg is fertilized

A

Continues to produce estrogen and progesterone

is stimulated by hCG from the trophoblast layer

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26
Q

Describe what happens to the corpus luteum if the eg is not fertilized

A

The corpus luteum begins involution about 14 days after ovulation

regression of the CL leads to the formation of the corpus albicans, which is a scar CT, decreases in size over time

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27
Q

If pregnancy takes place, endometrial stroma undergoes histologic changes following implantation
Fibroblasts become enlarged, polygonal, more active in protein synthesis and form ______ _______

A

decidual cells

28
Q

Describe the transformation zone

A

The portion of the cervix where the epithelium changes from nonkeratinized stratified squamous to simple columnar (ecto to endo)

29
Q

There are elevated levels of _____ in meiotic arrest (prophase 1) in the oogorium

A

cAMP

30
Q

There are elevated levels of ______ _______ in the meiotic arrest that occurs in metaphase II

A

MAPK proteins

31
Q

What is the theca externa stimulated by?

A

LH

32
Q

What are the granulose cells stimulated by?

A

FSH

33
Q

Describe follicular atresia

A

Demise of the ovarian follicle
Can occur at any time
granulose cells and oocytes undergo apoptosis
thecal cells persist and repopulate the cellular storm of the ovary and retain their LH receptors

34
Q

What do inhibins do?

A

Inhibit FSH production from the gonadotrophs

35
Q

Positive feedback of estrogens, progestins, and activins on the HP axis is involved in the induction of the _____ surge

A

LH

36
Q

As the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle begins, circulating levels of ______ and ______rapidly decrease

A

LH and FSH

37
Q

Higher levels of estrogen present during the pre-ovulatory (follicular) phase of the menstrual cycle _____ BBT

A

lower

38
Q

Higher levels of progesterone released by the corpus luteum after ovulation ______ BBT

A

raise

39
Q

What is the diagnosis given the following?
• Most common cause of infertility in females
• Frequently manifests during adolescence
• Exhibit various combinations of otherwise unexplained hyperandrogenism, anovulation, & a polycystic ovary
• Ovarian dysfunction is characterized by abnormal ovarian steroidogenesis & folliculogenesis, clinically manifested by androgen excess & anovulation

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome PCOS

40
Q

In PCOS, there will be elevated ______ and ______ but low ______

A

LH and testosterone

low FSH

41
Q

If there are high levels of androgens what will be promoted in the developing follicles?

A

atresia

42
Q

Enlarged polycistic ovaries are known to be associated with increased ______ levels

A

Androgen (DHEA)

43
Q

_______ ________ is the most common cause of congenital hypogonadism

50% of the cases result from the complete absence of the second X chromosome

A

Turner syndrome

44
Q

A patient comes into the clinic with internal and external genitalia characteristics of a female. The patient is 14 and has not started her period, has a webbed neck, short stature. Labs show and increased FSH level secondary to ovarian failure. What does the patient have?

A

Turner syndrome

45
Q

In _______ _________ the germ cells do no develop and each gonad consists of connective tissue filled streak

A

primary hypogonadism

46
Q

A 52 y/o female comes in complaining of irregular periods. Blood tests show a decrease in estrogen and inhibit, with high levels of LH and FSH. What is likely going on?

A

Menopause

47
Q

What are some of the symptoms that can be associated with menopause?

A
Irregular periods 
Vaginal dryness 
hot flashes 
night sweats 
Sleep problems 
mood changes 
weight gain and slowed metabolism 
thinning hair 
loss of breast fullness
48
Q

What 3 barriers must be breached in the egg in order for fertilization to occur?

A

Expanded cumulus
zona pellucida
plasma membrane of the oocyte

49
Q

Which zone pellucid proteins are involved in the acrosome reaction?

A

ZP3

50
Q

The _____ ______ helps to prevent polyspermy

A

cortical reaction

51
Q

_____ prevents the involution of the corpus luteum, preventing menstruation and increasing the progesterone and estrogen levels as well as stimulating a growth factor

A

hCG

52
Q

_____ _______ is implantation of the egg somewhere other than the fundus of the uterus

A

ectopic implantation

53
Q

A 26 y/o female presents to the clinic c/o abdominal pain. She states that her period is late but is not sure if she is pregnant. She claims that she has had some light spotting associated with the pain. Upon her pregnancy test, the hCG levels are slightly lower than what would be expected of a normal pregnancy. What is likely going on?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

54
Q

What is the most common site of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ampulla and isthmus

55
Q

The ______ ______ cushions the fetus, permits fetal movements, and regulates the fetal body temperature

A

amniotic fluid

56
Q

A 30 week pregnant lady comes in which abdominal pain, bloating, and a dyspnea. What is probably going on?

A

Hydramnios: increase amnotic fluid

57
Q

In ________ there is insufficient amniotic fluid which can lead to renal genesis, pulmonary hypoplasia, or maternal HTN

A

Oligohydramnios

58
Q

The _______ of the _____ ______ is commonly associated with chromosomal and fetal abnormalities. It is detected via ultrasound

A

absence of the umbilical artery

59
Q

What is the umbilical cord made of?

A

Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

60
Q

_____ _______ is when the placenta implants in lower uterine segment or cervix: Often leading to serious 3rd-trimester bleeding, Most common type of abnormal placentation (0.5%)
20% of all cases of bleeding are due to placenta previa

A

Placenta previa

61
Q

What is placenta accrete?

A

partial or complete absence of the decidua → villous chorion adheres directly to myometrium
Failure of placental separation at birth
Can cause severe, possibly life-threatening postpartum
bleeding

62
Q

A ______ _______ is the replacement of normal villi by dilated or hydropic (edematous) translucent vesicles

A

hydratidiform mole

63
Q

Describe a partial mole

A

A portion of the villi are edematous, capillaries can be seen in the villi

fetal tissue is found

normal ovum is fertilized with two eggs

triploid or tetraploid

64
Q

Describe a complete mole

A

Almost all the villi are enlarged

no fetal tissue

all of the DNA is paternal

65
Q

An _____ ______ is a complete mole that penetrates the uterine wall

A

invasive mole

66
Q

You are on clinical rotations and your attending tells you about a patient that is coming in. She says that the patient as high levels of hCG and is receiving chemotherapy as a treatment. She states that the patient is receiving chemotherapy secondary to a concern of uterine hemorrhage. She asks you “What does this patient have?” You say

A

an invasive mole

67
Q

A _______ _________ is a highly invasive metastatic tumor that arises from trophoblastic cells

hCG levels will rise without uterine enlargement

A

gestational choriocarcinoma