Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

GIGU Clinical > Week 5 > Flashcards

Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

The external iliac artery becomes the _____ artery

A

femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the iliac artery supply?

A

The branches supply the pelvic viscera and perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the branches of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery

A

Iliolumbar artery
lateral sacral arteries
superior gluteal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery? Include both male and female

A 
Umbilical artery 
Obturator artery 
Accessory obturator artery (20%) 
Inferior vesical artery 
Uterine artery 
vaginal 
Middle rectal artery 
Internal pudendal artery 
Inferior gluteal artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The ______ _______ ________ may provide a metastatic pathway for prostatic or ovarian cancer cell to the vertebrae or cranial cavity

A

lateral sacral veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What nerves of the sacral plexus exit from the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Sciatic nerve
pudendal nerve
superior gluteal nerve
inferior gluteal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathway of sprem transport?

A

Straight tubules

Rete Testis

Efferent ductules

Epididymis

Ductus deferens

ejaculatory duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What epithelium is found in the seminiferous tubules?

A

Spermatogenic, with Sertoli cells & germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What epithelium is found in the straight tubules?

A

Proximal = Sertoli cells only Distal = simple cuboidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What epithelium is found in the rete testis?

A

Simple cuboidal with microvilla & single cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What epithelium is found in the efferent ductules?

A

Alternating patches of simple cuboidal nonciliated & simple columnar ciliated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What epithelium is found in the epididymal duct?

A

Pseudostratified columnar w/stereocilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What epithelium is found in the ductus deferens?

A

Pseudostratified columnar w/ fewer stereocilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What epithelium is found in the ejaculatory ducts?

A

Pseudostratified & simple columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of the seminiferous tubules

A

Produce sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of the straight tubules?

A

Convey sperm into rete testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of the rete testis?

A

Collects sperm from seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of the efferent ductules?

A

Convey sperm into the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the epididymal ducts?

A

Sperm maturation & short- term storage

Expels sperm at ejaculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the ductus deferens

A

Carries sperm from epididymis → ejaculatory ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the ejaculatory ducts?

A

• Mix sperm & seminal fluid
• Deliver semen to urethra
• Prostatic secretion is
added here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Neoplastic disorders are grouped according to origin from the main ovarian cell types. What are the three types?

A
  1. Mullerian epithelium
  2. Germ cells
  3. Sex cord stromal cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The _____ _______ is a coat of glycoproteins that encase the primary oocyte

A

zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism that the cells undergo during follicular atresia? Describe the membrane.

A

Apoptosis is the membrane

ensures the regression of the follicle without causing an inflammatory response

glassy membrane with thick folded basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe what happens to the corpus luteum if the egg is fertilized
Continues to produce estrogen and progesterone is stimulated by hCG from the trophoblast layer
26
Describe what happens to the corpus luteum if the eg is not fertilized
The corpus luteum begins involution about 14 days after ovulation regression of the CL leads to the formation of the corpus albicans, which is a scar CT, decreases in size over time
27
If pregnancy takes place, endometrial stroma undergoes histologic changes following implantation Fibroblasts become enlarged, polygonal, more active in protein synthesis and form ______ _______
decidual cells
28
Describe the transformation zone
The portion of the cervix where the epithelium changes from nonkeratinized stratified squamous to simple columnar (ecto to endo)
29
There are elevated levels of _____ in meiotic arrest (prophase 1) in the oogorium
cAMP
30
There are elevated levels of ______ _______ in the meiotic arrest that occurs in metaphase II
MAPK proteins
31
What is the theca externa stimulated by?
LH
32
What are the granulose cells stimulated by?
FSH
33
Describe follicular atresia
Demise of the ovarian follicle Can occur at any time granulose cells and oocytes undergo apoptosis thecal cells persist and repopulate the cellular storm of the ovary and retain their LH receptors
34
What do inhibins do?
Inhibit FSH production from the gonadotrophs
35
Positive feedback of estrogens, progestins, and activins on the HP axis is involved in the induction of the _____ surge
LH
36
As the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle begins, circulating levels of ______ and ______rapidly decrease
LH and FSH
37
Higher levels of estrogen present during the pre-ovulatory (follicular) phase of the menstrual cycle _____ BBT
lower
38
Higher levels of progesterone released by the corpus luteum after ovulation ______ BBT
raise
39
What is the diagnosis given the following? • Most common cause of infertility in females • Frequently manifests during adolescence • Exhibit various combinations of otherwise unexplained hyperandrogenism, anovulation, & a polycystic ovary • Ovarian dysfunction is characterized by abnormal ovarian steroidogenesis & folliculogenesis, clinically manifested by androgen excess & anovulation
Polycystic ovarian syndrome PCOS
40
In PCOS, there will be elevated ______ and ______ but low ______
LH and testosterone low FSH
41
If there are high levels of androgens what will be promoted in the developing follicles?
atresia
42
Enlarged polycistic ovaries are known to be associated with increased ______ levels
Androgen (DHEA)
43
_______ ________ is the most common cause of congenital hypogonadism 50% of the cases result from the complete absence of the second X chromosome
Turner syndrome
44
A patient comes into the clinic with internal and external genitalia characteristics of a female. The patient is 14 and has not started her period, has a webbed neck, short stature. Labs show and increased FSH level secondary to ovarian failure. What does the patient have?
Turner syndrome
45
In _______ _________ the germ cells do no develop and each gonad consists of connective tissue filled streak
primary hypogonadism
46
A 52 y/o female comes in complaining of irregular periods. Blood tests show a decrease in estrogen and inhibit, with high levels of LH and FSH. What is likely going on?
Menopause
47
What are some of the symptoms that can be associated with menopause?
``` Irregular periods Vaginal dryness hot flashes night sweats Sleep problems mood changes weight gain and slowed metabolism thinning hair loss of breast fullness ```
48
What 3 barriers must be breached in the egg in order for fertilization to occur?
Expanded cumulus zona pellucida plasma membrane of the oocyte
49
Which zone pellucid proteins are involved in the acrosome reaction?
ZP3
50
The _____ ______ helps to prevent polyspermy
cortical reaction
51
_____ prevents the involution of the corpus luteum, preventing menstruation and increasing the progesterone and estrogen levels as well as stimulating a growth factor
hCG
52
_____ _______ is implantation of the egg somewhere other than the fundus of the uterus
ectopic implantation
53
A 26 y/o female presents to the clinic c/o abdominal pain. She states that her period is late but is not sure if she is pregnant. She claims that she has had some light spotting associated with the pain. Upon her pregnancy test, the hCG levels are slightly lower than what would be expected of a normal pregnancy. What is likely going on?
Ectopic pregnancy
54
What is the most common site of an ectopic pregnancy?
Ampulla and isthmus
55
The ______ ______ cushions the fetus, permits fetal movements, and regulates the fetal body temperature
amniotic fluid
56
A 30 week pregnant lady comes in which abdominal pain, bloating, and a dyspnea. What is probably going on?
Hydramnios: increase amnotic fluid
57
In ________ there is insufficient amniotic fluid which can lead to renal genesis, pulmonary hypoplasia, or maternal HTN
Oligohydramnios
58
The _______ of the _____ ______ is commonly associated with chromosomal and fetal abnormalities. It is detected via ultrasound
absence of the umbilical artery
59
What is the umbilical cord made of?
Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
60
_____ _______ is when the placenta implants in lower uterine segment or cervix: Often leading to serious 3rd-trimester bleeding, Most common type of abnormal placentation (0.5%) 20% of all cases of bleeding are due to placenta previa
Placenta previa
61
What is placenta accrete?
partial or complete absence of the decidua → villous chorion adheres directly to myometrium Failure of placental separation at birth Can cause severe, possibly life-threatening postpartum bleeding
62
A ______ _______ is the replacement of normal villi by dilated or hydropic (edematous) translucent vesicles
hydratidiform mole
63
Describe a partial mole
A portion of the villi are edematous, capillaries can be seen in the villi fetal tissue is found normal ovum is fertilized with two eggs triploid or tetraploid
64
Describe a complete mole
Almost all the villi are enlarged no fetal tissue all of the DNA is paternal
65
An _____ ______ is a complete mole that penetrates the uterine wall
invasive mole
66
You are on clinical rotations and your attending tells you about a patient that is coming in. She says that the patient as high levels of hCG and is receiving chemotherapy as a treatment. She states that the patient is receiving chemotherapy secondary to a concern of uterine hemorrhage. She asks you "What does this patient have?" You say
an invasive mole
67
A _______ _________ is a highly invasive metastatic tumor that arises from trophoblastic cells hCG levels will rise without uterine enlargement
gestational choriocarcinoma

GIGU Clinical (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions