Blue boxes Flashcards

1
Q

When the gut is traumatically penetrated or ruptured as the result of an infection, the gas, fecal matter, and bacteria enter the peritoneal cavity in which the abdomen is filled with pus, fluid, and other inflammatory immune cells and results in an infection. This is called __________ ___________

A

generalized peritonitis

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2
Q

What are some of the sx that a patient with generalized peritonitis may present with?

A

Abdominal pain
Abdominal rigidity
N/V/D
fever

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3
Q

________ ________ ________ is when the abdomen is drawn in when the chest expands and is typically secondary to abdominal rigidity

A

Paradoxical Abdominothoracic rhythm

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4
Q

A _________ is a surgical puncture of the peritoneal cavity for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity

A

paracentesis

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5
Q

________ _______ is performed in the event of renal failure. Soluble substances and excess water are removed from the system via transfer across the peritoneum with a dilute sterile solution that is introduced on one side and drained from the other, allows for the transfer of several molecules via concentration gradients

A

Peritoneal dialysis

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6
Q

What are some of the functions of the greater omentum?

A

It is often called the “policeman of the abdomen”

goes to the organ that is inflamed and forms adhesions, protecting the other viscera from it

Acts as a cushion for the organs and defends against injury

Forms insulation against the loss of body heat

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7
Q

In the abdomen, how are pathological fluids able to spread from one organ to another?

A

Via peritoneal recesses and the paracolic gutters

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8
Q

The ______ Artery must be ligated or clamped and then severed during a cholecystectomy

A

cystic artery

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9
Q

What causes esophageal varices?

A

Portal hypertension the blood is unable to pass through the liver via the hepatic portal vein which leads to a reversal of the flow in the esophageal tributary

The submucosal veins start to change secondary to the increase in blood flow causing the varices

These can rupture and cause you to choke on your blood yikes

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10
Q

Esophageal varicose are common in people with _______ ________

A

alcoholic cirrhosis

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11
Q

_______ or heartburn is secondary to regurgitation of food and acid into the esophagus

A

Pyrosis

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12
Q

What are some reasons in which the stomach may be displaced?

A

A pancreatic pseudocyst or an abscess in the omental bursa may push the stomach anteriorly

After pancreatitis, the posterior wall of the stomach will adhere to the posterior wall of the omental bursa that covers the pancreas

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13
Q

A ______ _______ is a protrusion of the part of the stomach into the mediastinum though the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

A

hiatal hernia

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14
Q

In this type of hiatal hernia, the cardia remains in its normal position but the pouch of the peritoneum (usually with part of the fundus of the stomach) extends through the esophageal hiatus anterior to the esophagus

no regurgitation of the gastric contents

A

para-esophageal hiatal hernia

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15
Q

In this type of hiatal hernia, there abdominal part of the esophagus, the cardia, and parts of the fundus of the stomach slide superiorly through the esophageal hiatus into the thorax, some regurgitation is possible

A

common sliding hiatal hernia

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16
Q

When the fingers are suddenly removed, extreme localized pain is usually felt, known as ______ ________

A

rebound tenderness

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17
Q

______ _______ are inflammatory erosions of the duodenal mucosa. Most occur in the posterior wall of the superior part of the duodenum within 3 cm of the ______

A

duodenal ulcers

pylorus

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18
Q

In the event of a duodenal ulcer, which organs are at risk of becoming inflamed?

A

liver, gallbladder, pancreas

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19
Q

What are the embryonic foregut derivatives?

A
esophagus 
stomach 
pancreas 
duodenum 
liver 
biliary ducts in the epigastric region
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20
Q

What are the embryonic midgut derivatives?

A
small intestine
bile duct
cecum
appendix
ascending colon
transverse colon
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21
Q

What are the hindgut derivatives

A

distal part of transverse colon
descending colon
sigmoid colon
rectum

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22
Q

In the event of a normal rotation of the midgut, the duodenum passes ______ to the SMA

A

posterior

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23
Q

In the event of a normal rotation of the midgut the transverse colon and mesocolon are transversely oriented, pass ______ to the SMA and divide the peritoneal cavity into supra and infracolic compartments

A

anterior

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24
Q

Occlusion of the _____ ______ by emboli, thrombus, or atherosclerotic occlusion results in ischemia of part of the intestine

A

vasa recta

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25
Q

_______ _______ is a remnant of the proximal part of the embryonic omphalo enteric duct, the diverticulum appears as a finger like pouch

A

Meckels (ileal) diverticulum

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26
Q

List and briefly describe the treatments that are used for colitis (Crohns disease)

A

Colectomy: removal of the terminal ileum, colon, and rectum are removed

Ileostomy: establishes a stroma, an artificial opening of the ileum through the anterolateral abdominal wall ( accompanied with a colostomy)

27
Q

The _____ is the most frequently injured organ in the abdomen

A

spleen

28
Q

Describe ERCP

A

A fiberoptic endoscope is passed through the mouth, esophagus, and stomach. The duodenum is entered and a cannula is inserted into the major duodenal papilla and advanced under fluoroscopic control into the duct of choice

29
Q

______ involving the pancreatic head accounts for most cases of extra hepatic obstruction of the biliary ducts

A

Cancer

30
Q

Most people with pancreatic cancer have _____ ________

A

ductular adenocarcinoma

31
Q

What is removed in a Whipple procedure?

A

part of the head of the pancreas, part of the duodenum, and the gallbladder

32
Q

______ ______ are more common on the right side because of the frequency of ruptured appendices and perforated duodenal ulcers

A

subphrenic abscess

33
Q

The most common source of an aberrant right hepatic artery is the ____

A

SMA

34
Q

Cancer cells may pass to the liver, especially from the ____ _____ because of the communications between the thoracic lymph nodes and the lymphatic vessels draining the bare area of the liver

A

right breast

35
Q

How is portal hypertension treated surgically?

A

Shunts are used( depends on the patients anatomy and scarring as to which vessels are used) to re-organize the blood flow to decreased HTN

36
Q

_______ are involuntary, spasmodic contractions of the diaphragm that results from the irritation or afferent or efferent nerve endings or medullary centers in the brainstem that control muscles of respiration

A

hiccups

37
Q

Where is pain from the diaphragm referred to?

A

shoulder region and the skin over the costal margins of the anterolateral abdominal wall

38
Q

If a patient is having pain in the posterior abdominal wall, specifically the iliopsoas muscle, what organs are you worried about because of their relationship with the iliopsoas muscle?

A

Kidneys, ureters, cecum, and appendix

39
Q

The _____ is in danger of being damaged in a hysterectomy because of its proximity to the uterine artery

A

ureter

40
Q

The ________ nerve is vulnerable during surgeries of the lateral abdominal wall and may cause painful spasms in the adductor muscles

A

obturator

41
Q

During a ______, part of the ductus deferens is ligated and excised through an incision on the superior part of the scrotum

A

vasectomy

42
Q

In benign prostate hypertrophy, the _____ lobule enlarges the most and obstructs the internal urethral orifice

A

middle

43
Q

In a hysterectomy, describe the ligation of the uterine artery

A

Performed distal to the vaginal artery and vaginal branches to enable maximal blood flow to the superior end of the vagina

44
Q

An ______ _______ is when an anesthetic block is administered with a catheter into the epidural space between the L3 and L4 vertebral level. The anesthesia bathes the spinal nerve roots, including the pain fibers from the uterine cervix and superior vagina and afferent fibers from the pudendal nerve

A

epidural block

45
Q

______ _______ is when an anesthetic agent is introduced to the dura and arachnoid mater with a needle into the subarachnoid space at L3-L4 to produce a complete anesthesia inferior the waist level

A

Spinal anesthesia

46
Q

A ______ ______ ______ provides local anesthesia over the S2-S4 dermatomes and the inferior quarter of the vagina

A

pudendal nerve block

47
Q

A ________ is the prolapse of the lower anterior vaginal wall that involves the urethra

A

urethrocele

48
Q

A _______ is the prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall involving the bladder

A

cystocele

49
Q

A ______ is the prolapse of the uterus, cervix, or upper vagina

A

uretovaginal prolapse

50
Q

A ______ is the prolapse of the lower posterior vaginal wall involving the rectum

A

rectocele

51
Q

An ______ is the prolapse of the upper posterior vaginal wall involving the rectovaginal pouch

A

enterocoele

52
Q

What are the 4 degrees of prolapse?

A
  1. prolapse of the organ halfway to the hymen
  2. prolapse of the organ to the hymen
  3. prolapse of the organ past the hymen
  4. maximum descent of the organ
53
Q

Fractures of the pelvic girdle, especially those that result from eh separation of the pubic symphysis and the puboprostatic ligaments, often cause a rupture of the _______ _______ of the ________

A

intermediate part of the urethra

54
Q

What is the common site of urethral rupture in males?

A

Rupture of the spongy urethra and extravasation of the urine in the bulb of the penis

55
Q

If a person is in a severe state of starvation, what is likely to occur and why?

A

Rectal prolapse secondary to the reserves of fat that are presence in the ischial-anal canal disappears and the rectum prolapses

56
Q

Internal hemorrhoids are associated with which blood vessels?

A

Internal rectus venous plexus

57
Q

External hemorrhoids are associate with which blood vessels?

A

External rectus venous plexus

58
Q

_________ ________ is common with stretching of the pudendal nerve

A

anorectal incontinence

59
Q

In the urethral catheterization of a male, which portion of the urethral is unprotected?

A

The intermediate part of the urethra that is unprotected; there is also an angle due to the penis

60
Q

________ is a common congenital anomaly. The external urethra orifice is on the ventral aspect of the glans penis

A

Hypospadias

61
Q

What is the embryological issue that occurred with hypospadias?

A

The urogenital folds did not close

62
Q

Define bartholinitis.

A

The inflammation of the greater vestibular bartholin glands

63
Q

To abolish the sensation from the anterior part of the peritoneum, an _________ _______ ______ is performed

A

ilii-inguinal nerve block

64
Q

________ is defined as involuntary muscle spasms that occur when vaginal penetration is attempted

A

vaginismus