Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Midwifery Knowledge 3 > Week 5-7 > Flashcards

Week 5-7 Flashcards

1
Q

Define: ALSWH

A

Australian Longitudinal Study on Women’s Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain: Australian longitudinal Study on Women’s Health

A

Is assesses women’s physical and mental health as well as psychosocial aspects of health (socio-demographic factors etc) and their use of health services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the value of the ALSWH

A
  • It has provided invaluable data about the health of women across the lifespan
  • informed federal and state government policies across a wide range of issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who funded the ALSWH

A

Australian Government- Department of Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 5 policy goals of the 2010 National Women’s Health Policy (designed to address women’s social determinants)

A
  1. Highlight the significance of gender as a key determinant of womens health and wellbeing
  2. Acknowledge that women’s health needs differ according to their life stage
  3. Prioritise the needs of women with the highest risk of poor health
  4. Ensure the health system is responsive to all women, with a clear focus on illness prevention and health promotion
  5. Support effective and collaborative research, data collection, monitoring, evaluating and knowledge transfer to advance the evidence base of WH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 Evidence-based priority health issues

A
  1. Prevention of chronic diseases through the control of risk factors (Cardiovascular disease, diabetes and cancer, obesity, nutrition, physical inactivity, alcohol and tobacco consumption)
  2. Mental health and wellbeing (Targeting anxiety, depression and suicide)
  3. Sexual and reproductive health; (Access to information and services relating to sexual health, reproductive health, safe sex practices, screening and maternal health. Health of mothers prior to conception, during pregnancy and in the post-natal period)
  4. Healthy ageing (Musculo-skeletal conditions, disability and dementia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of information is gathered during a postnatal assessment

A

 Gravida/parity
 Time and type of birth
 Anaesthesia or medications
 Psychological and social status
 Medical history, medications, allergy
 Risk factors for post partum haemorrhage
 Maternal status
◦ Vital signs, uterine involution, lochial loss, wound condition,
perineal pain, breast and nipple integrity
◦ Blood group and rhesus; rubella status; hepatitis and HIV status; group B streptococcus status; haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the approximate reduction in fundal height following birth

A

1cm/day until approx 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain: Afterpains

A

Is the involution of the uterus

  • felt as afterpains for 4-7days
  • pain is strongest in the 12-24hrs post birth
  • may be associated with breastfeeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain: Ischaemia

A

Process that causes the destruction of the myometrial cells, therefore reducing their size (not number)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does the uterine lining begin regeneration

A

It begins around 10days postnatal and completed by 2-3weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain: Perineum and vaginal physical changes postnatally

A
  • Vaginal rugae reappear by 3-4 weeks

- there is increased vascularisation of the vagina and perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the types of perineal tear’s

A

1st degree- injury to perineal skin
2nd degree- injury to perineum involving muscles
3rd degree- injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex
3a)- less than 50% of external anal sphincter (EAS) torn
3b)- more than 50% of EAS torn
3c)- both EAS and internal anal sphincter torn
4th degree- injury to perineum, anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS), and epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain: Postpartum blood loss

A 
Bleeding lasts 3-6weeks
Lochia Rubra (1-4days)- bright red
Lochia Serosa (4-10days)- pinkish/brown
Lochia Alba (10days-6wks)- clear/whitish
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a secondary PPH

A

Is excessive bleeding from the first 24hrs after birth to 6-12weeks postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs of a PPH

A
  • Excessive bleeding after 24hrs post birth to 6-12wks
  • deterioration of vital signs
  • offensive lochia
  • abdominal cramping
  • uterine tenderness
  • pyrexia (temp >37.5)
  • enlarged uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List symptoms: postpartum infection

A
  • Fever >38 degrees C
  • Tender uterus, sub-involuted
  • chills
  • abdominal pain
  • foul smelling lochia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain: Bladder and bowel physical recovery

A

BLADDER

  • dilation of urinary tract returns to normal by 6wks
  • women should void by 6hrs post birth

BOWEL

  • can occur within 24hrs
  • usually takes 2-3days to occur following birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Deep Vein thrombosis risk increases with what 3 factors postnatally

A
  • stasis of blood flow
  • hypercoagulation
  • decreased mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What signs may indicate DVT

A
  • unilateral calf pain, redness or swelling
  • shortness of breath
  • chest pains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of Anti D

A

Prevention of haemolytic disease of the newborn in the subsequent pregnancies
- given to Rh Negative women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anti D

Explain: Coombs test

A

Tests for maternal antibodies in the cord blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anti D

Explain: Kleihauer test

A

Tests for the detection of fetal cells in maternal blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the signs of these life threatening conditions in the postnatal period: PPH, Infection, Pre-eclampsia/Eclampsia, Thromboembolism

A

PPH- sudden profuse blood loss, faint, dizzyness, tachycardia
Infection- fever, shivers, abdominal pain, offensive vaginal loss
Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia- headaches w/ visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting
Thromboembolism- unilateral calf pain, redness, swelling, chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is sexual and reproductive health affected by

A
  • socio-economic factors
  • cultural and political factors
  • access to appropriate services
  • representations of females in the media
  • risk factors (drugs and alcohol use)
  • psychosocial factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List contraceptive methods available in Australia

A
  • Natural family planning
  • Barrier methods
  • Hormonal methods - oral, injectable, implants, vaginal,
  • Intrauterine devices, both hormone based and non hormone devices
  • Permanent sterilisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of factors do women consider then choosing a contraceptive method

A
  • Reliability
  • Reversibility
  • Side effects
  • Aesthetics
  • Access
  • Affordability
  • Lactation impact
  • Privacy
  • Lifestyle
  • Disability
  • Age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Contraception methods

Explain: Lactational Amenorrhoea Method

A

Is exclusively BF for first 6 months. Needs to meet 3 criteria:

  • BF day/night providing all nutritional needs of infant
  • Amenorrhoeic (hasn’t had her period)
  • baby is less than 6months old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Contraceptive methods

Explain: Fertility awareness method

A

It uses recognition of changes in the woman’s body at various stages in the menstrual cycle

  • difficult to commence until menses have returned
  • used when religious/cultural beliefs exclude contraception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does fertility typically return after giving birth

A

Usually occurs from 6wks postnatal- however can sometimes occur earlier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is classified as the neonatal period

A

Newborn infant from birth until 28days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Newborn Sensory Development

Explain: Vision

A
  • Focus at distance of 15-20 cm
  • Prefer human faces and black/white patterns
  • End of first week can follow a moving object briefly
  • End of second week can tell the difference between faces
  • Mimic facial expressions by 12 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Newborn Sensory Development

Explain: Hearing

A
  • Turn towards loud sounds
  • Comforted by low pitched crooning
  • SWISH program
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain: SWISH

A

Is a hearing program designed to identify if a newborn has a hearing problem early on that needs to be investigated and referred on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Newborn Sensory Development

Explain: Smell, Taste and touch

A

Smell
- Prefer smell of mother and
human milk
Taste
- Show a preference for sweet
tastes
Touch
- Enjoy skin to skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Newborn Development

Explain: thermoregulation

A

Newborns thermoregulatory mechanisms are underdeveloped, so are susceptible to heat loss in first few days
- Due to large surface area, less subcutaneous fat, thin dermis, decreased ability to shiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Newborn Development

What are the 4 ways newborns lose heat

A

Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Newborn Development

Explain: the 4 ways newborns lose heat

A
  • Convection: the flow of heat from the body surface to cooler surrounding air
  • Conduction: the transfer of body heat to a cooler solid object in contact with the baby
  • Radiation: the transfer of heat to a cooler object not in contact with the baby
  • Evaporation: loss of heat through conversion of a liquid to a vapour
39
Q

List ways to reduce heat loss in newborns

A
  • skin to skin
  • drying baby
  • wrapping
  • avoiding exposure to draughts, a/c
40
Q

Why are newborns given Vit K

A

To provide the infant with vit K within the body which is needed for clotting, as newborns do not synthesise this in their body until milk feeding is established

41
Q

What is the Vitamin K prophylaxis dose

A

1x 1mg intramuscular injection

42
Q

Newborn Development

Explain: Glucose regulation

A
  • in utero: glucose levels are 60-70% of maternal levels
  • 3rd trimester: body starts storing glycogen & depositing brown fat
  • Birth: transient period of hypoglycaemia in first 2-6hrs, then a slow steady rise in the next 24hrs
43
Q

Newborn Development

List signs of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A 
Jitteriness
Cyanosis
Apnoea
Weak cry
Lethargy
Lack of muscle tone
Refusal to feed
44
Q

Newborn Development

Explain: Physiological Jaundice

A
  • does NOT appear in first day of life
  • fades by the end of the week
  • serum bilirubin levels never exceed 200-215 μmol/l
45
Q

Newborn Development

If a baby is mildly jaundice what other factors need to be present to indicate action must be taken

A
  • excessively sleepy
  • reluctant to feed
  • small number of wet nappies
  • pale stools or orange urine
46
Q

Newborn Development and Nutrition

What are the nutritional requirement for infants that are exclusively in the first 12 months of life

A

Birth- 6months: breastmilk (no need for water or suppliments)
6months- 12months: breastmilk and solids

47
Q

Newborn Development and Nutrition

If formula feeding, what type of formula’s are recommended

A

Cow’s milk-based formula until 12 months

48
Q

Newborn Development and Nutrition

What weight loss % for a newborn is considered normal following birth

A

10% in the first week of life

49
Q

Newborn Development and Nutrition

When is a newborn’s birth weight usually regained after the typical 10% weight loss

A

Usually regained by day 10-14 of life

50
Q

Newborn Development and Nutrition

What are the factors that influence newborn growth

A
  • genetics
  • environment
  • nutrition
  • biological causes
  • health and wellbeing
51
Q

List parental behaviours that facilitate bonding and attachment between infant

A
  • Looks gazes:takes in the physical characteristics of the infant;eye contact
  • Hovers: maintains proximity; directs attention to infant
  • Identifies infant as a unique individual
  • Claims infant as a family member; names infant
  • Touches: progresses from fingertips to fingers to palms to encompassing contact
  • Smiles at infant
  • Talks to, coos or sings to infant
  • Expresses pride in infant
  • Relates infants behaviour to familiar events
52
Q

List parental behaviours that inhibit or counteract bonding with the infant

A
  • Turns away from infant; ignores infants presence
  • Avoids infant; does not seek proximity; refuses to hold infant when given the opportunity
  • Identifies infant with someone parent dislikes; fails to discern any of the infants unique features
  • Maintains bland countenance or frowns at infant
  • Wakes infant when infant is sleeping; handles roughly; hurries feeding by moving nipple continuously
  • Expresses disappointment; displeasure in infant
  • Does not incorporate infant into life
  • Makes no effort to interpret infants action or needs
53
Q

What is the most common difficulty women have when BF that leads to cessation

A

Nipple pain and trauma

54
Q

Can previously thawed breastmilk be refrozen

A

No

55
Q

When is a pacifier recommended if at all

A

Only recommended from 4weeks old (when BF established) if at all.
- Pacifiers are not needed

56
Q

Define: Gelactogog

A

are homeopathic/herbal etc medication that helps increase milk supply

57
Q

Besides attachment, what are factors can cause nipple pain

A

candida infection, herpes simplex infection, Raynaud’s phenomenon, bacterial infections

58
Q

What Act stops women being discriminated against for BF

A

Federal sex discrimination act 1984

59
Q

What’s the criteria for storing EBM

A

refrigerate after expressing in sealable containers, 6-8hrs room temp, 24hrs fridge

60
Q

What is the sign of Urates in an infants urine

A

picky orange stains inside the baby’s nappy

61
Q

What is physiological jaundice caused by

A

is caused by increased bilirubin production from red blood cell breakdown and decreased bilirubin clearance due to immature liver function.
- It usually appears on day 2 or 3, reaches a peak on about day 4 and fades during the second week.

62
Q

Explain: Pathological jaundice

A

Appears before 24hrs of age

- Evidence of haemolysis

63
Q

What is Kernicterus or Bilirubin encephalopathy

A

It is an uncommon but serious problem caused when bilirubin crosses the blood brain barrier.

64
Q

List factors that can assist in preventing jaundice

A
  • ABO and Rh blood type testing of mothers in pregnancy & Group and Coombs tests should be performed on cord blood for newborns of Rh –ve mothers
  • Careful attention should be paid to feeding and hydration in the first few days of life. Dehydration major contributing factor to newborn jaundice
     Watch for signs of dehydration including:
     weight loss of greater than 10%,
     decreased skin turgor
     flat/sunken fontanelle
     dry/parched mucous membranes
     tachycardia, irritability, lethargy
     decreased voiding or stools.
65
Q

What are the management strategies for jaundice

A
  • Determined by aetiology: Treat the cause
  • Ensure adequate hydration: Breastfeeding support and regular frequent feeding
  • Assess for dehydration: If signs of dehydration hydrate baby with frequent breastfeeding, EBM or supplement with formula if required
  • Assessment of weight if poor feeder
  • Phototherapy
  • Exchange transfusion
66
Q

Explain: phototherapy

A

Is exposure of jaundiced skin to light photoisomerise the bilirubin molecule into forms which can be excreted directly into the bile or urine, without having to be conjugated

67
Q

Who discovered the first vaccine against small pox

A

Edward Jenner in 1796

68
Q

Define: Vaccination

A

means having a vaccine

69
Q

Define: Immunisation

A

means both receiivng a vaccine and become immune to a disease as a result of being vaccinated

70
Q

Why do we need immunisation

A

to stop the spread of disease

  • helps establish herd immunity (a sufficient number of people are vaccinated to halt the spread of bacteria and viruses that cause disease)
  • 90% immunisation rate for most diseases helps prevent the disease spreading
  • 95% immunisation rate for highly infectious diseases to prevent spread
71
Q

When did routine immunisation for infants come in

A

Routine immunisation of infants in Australian began in the 1950’s

72
Q

What do vaccines usually contain

A

Vaccines contain small doses of either:

  • a live but weakened virus;
  • a killed bacteria or virus, or small parts of bacteria; or
  • a modified toxin produced by bacteria.
73
Q

How do vaccines work

A

When a person is vaccinated, their body produces an immune response to the vaccine in the same way that it would after being infected by a disease – but without the person suffering symptoms of the disease. When a person comes into contact with that disease in the future, their immune system will respond fast enough to prevent the person developing the disease, or serious complications of the disease

74
Q

At what gestation do pregnant women receive the Bootrix vaccination

A

around 28 weeks gestation

75
Q

Explain: Immunoglobulins

A

are antibodies that are made by the body’s immune system to fight against infection and disease. They are normally produced by a certain type of white blood cell called a B-lymphocyte

76
Q

Hep B vaccination

What are the 4 routes of transmission of Hep B

A
  • Infected mother to neonate at birth (vertical transmission)
  • Infected blood or body fluids
    • Sexual contact
      Horizontal transmission eg child to child through open sores
77
Q

When did the Hep B immunisation program begin

A

in the 1980’s

78
Q

What is the recommended Hep B vaccination schedule for neonates

A
  • Monovalent Hepatitis B vaccine should be offered within 24 hours of birth (can be up to 7 days).
  • Standard 3 dose Hep B schedule should then be followed at 2, 4, and 6 months (catch up of the birth dose is not necessary).
79
Q

What is the recommended Hep B vaccination schedule for neonates whose mother is Hep B positive

A
  • HBIG Hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth, plus
  • Monovalent Hepatitis B vaccine concurrently or within 24 hours of birth
  • The doses should be administered IMI one in each thigh
  • Thereafter the infant should have the standard 3 dose Hep B schedule of 2, 4 and 6 months.
80
Q

Are preterm infants able to receive vaccinations

A

If medically stable and there are no contraindications to vaccination, preterm infants should be vaccinated according to the recommended schedule at the usual chronological age, without correction for prematurity

81
Q

Contraception

Explain: Copper IUD

A

A copper intrauterine device (IUD) is a small plastic device which has copper wire wrapped around its stem.
(5yr and 10yr types)

  • The IUD is placed inside the uterus (womb) by a doctor, to prevent pregnancy.
  • The IUD has a fine nylon string attached to it.
  • When the IUD is in place, the string comes out through the cervix (the neck of the uterus) into the top end of the vagina
82
Q

Contraception- Copper IUD

Explain: how it works and how effective it is

A
  • The copper IUD affects the sperm and stops sperm from fertilising the egg and affects the transport of the egg in the fallopian tubes.
  • It also changes the lining of the womb, making it less suitable for a pregnancy
  • The copper IUD is at least 99% effective
83
Q

Contraception- Copper IUD

Explain: Side-effects

A
  • copper IUD has no hormonal side effects

- You may have period-like cramps and bleeding or spotting in the first few days after the IUD is inserted

84
Q

Contraception- Copper IUD

Explain: who can and can’t use it

A

CAN

  • most women
  • those who cannot use hormonal means,
  • have completed their families,
  • spacing pregnancies and who are BF

CAN’T

  • Pregnant
  • current pelvic infection
  • abnormal vagina bleeding
  • at long term risk of STI’s
85
Q

Contraception- Copper IUD

Explain: Positives and Negatives

A

POSITIVES

  • effective
  • can stay in place 5 or 10 yrs
  • inexpensive over time
  • does not contain hormones
  • immediately reversible, returning to fertility as per usual

NEGATIVES

  • Can be difficult to insert (nil children born or previous C/S)
  • periods may be heavier and longer, sometime more painful
  • small risk of a pelvic infection at insertion
  • rarely: iud can pass into uterine wall
  • can fall out
  • risk of ectopic pregnancy
86
Q

How can midwives facilitate healthy mother-infant bonding

A

• providing focused midwifery labour care to limit the
need for invasive procedures and analgesia during
pregnancy, labour and birth
• encouraging participation/ support of significant
other(s) during labour and birth
• promoting skin-to-skin contact at time of birth
• routinely transitioning the well baby with other family
members
• initiating early and frequent breastfeeding, within the
first hour
• providing appropriate ongoing breastfeeding support
• avoiding or postponing any non-essential routine
procedures, such as weighing, vitamin K injection,
bathing
• promoting avoidance or postponement of any elective
procedures, such as tubal ligation sterilisation, during
the immediate postpartum period
• facilitating and supporting maternal capacities and
appropriate emotions, responses, instincts and
motivations to facilitate parenting

87
Q

Explain: Habituation

A

is the process whereby there is an initial response to a visual or auditory stimulus such as a loud noise, followed by diminishing response with repetition until the response disappears.
- Being able to ignore a noisy environment is a newborn defence mechanism

88
Q

After the first 24 hrs how wet nappies and bowel movements should the newborn be having

A

approximately 6-8 wet nappies and regular bowel motions usually 2-3, every 24hrs

89
Q

When is the NST usually done

A

between 48-72 hours old

90
Q

What is the NST for

A

it screens baby’s for metabolic diseases

  • amino acid disorders
  • fatty acid disorders
  • other disorders
91
Q

Contraception

Explain: Lactational amenorrhoea method

A

is the use of exclusive or near-exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months postpartum as a contraception method.

  • 98% protection
  • infant must be fed day & night providing 90% of nutritional needs
92
Q

Contraception- Barrier methods

Explain: Condoms

A

a thin latex sheath that surrounds the penis.

  • 98%-99% effective if used correctly
  • protects against pregnancy and STI
  • safe to use postpartum and while BF
  • water-based lubricants can be used
93
Q

Contraception- Barrier methods

Explain: Female condoms

A

similar to a standard condom. Polyurethane sheath that is inserted into the vagin prior to sex where a firm ring hold its shape near the cervix and the out ring hangs outside the vagina ready to receive the penis.

  • can protect against some STI’s
  • can be used postpartum and while BF
  • 79-95% effective
94
Q

Contraception- Hormonal

Explain: The Pill

A

combination of synthetic oestrogen and progestogen in a pill that must be taken at the same time every day.

  • it suppresses ovulation and changes the cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering the vagina.
  • does have side-effects
  • not always effective if not taken correctly
  • cannot be taken when BF

Midwifery Knowledge 3 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions