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Infection control > Week 4 Part 1 > Flashcards

Week 4 Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who first described bacterial shapes and published micrograpia?

A

van Leeuwenhoek

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2
Q

what is the cell envelope primarily composed of?

A

phospholipids

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3
Q

what are the main functions of the cell envelope?

A
  1. transport of substances into and out of the cell
  2. energy production (electron transport chain)
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4
Q

plasmids may carry genes for activities such as what?

A
  1. antibiotic resistance
  2. production of toxins
  3. synthesis of enzymes
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5
Q

plasmids may be transferred from one bacterium to another and genes may be moved from plasmid to chromosome. These genes are called what?

A

transposable genetic elements or transposons

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6
Q

What are the 6 classifications of bacteria?

A
  1. cocci
  2. bacilli
  3. coccobacilli
  4. spiral bacteria
  5. vibrios
  6. spirochetes
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7
Q

bacteria have ___ names

A

binomial

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8
Q

what is the purpose of the gram stain?

A

makes bacteria visible under a microscope because they are transparent

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9
Q

what is the color of a gram positive bacteria?

A

blue/purple

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10
Q

what is the colour of a gram negative bacteria?

A

red

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11
Q

describe the cell wall of gram positive bacteria

A

many layers of peptidoglycan forming a thick rigid structure

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12
Q

describe the cell wall of a gram-negative bacteria

A

it contains only one or very few layers of peptidoglycan

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13
Q

the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria is composed of what?

A

lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids

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14
Q

bacteria that have what will not stain by gram?

A

a waxy wall

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15
Q

what are examples of bacteria that need to be stained by acid-fast

A

myobacteria, nocardia (cellulitis)

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16
Q

What is the cell wall of bacteria stained by acid-fast composed of?

A

different lipids (mycolic acid)

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17
Q

what is a capsule normally made of?

A

glycocalyx (a polysaccharide)

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18
Q

what are the 5 functions of a capsule?

A
  1. protects from desiccation (drying out)
  2. promotes concentration of nutrients outside of the cell
  3. adherence
  4. protection from the immune system
  5. protection from toxic materials in the environment
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19
Q

what are examples of microorganisms that have a capsule?

A

streptococcus pnrumoniae
nisseria meningitidies
hemophilus influenzae

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20
Q

when and why do some bacteria produce endospores?

A

in the dormant stage to protect from drying out

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21
Q

what are examples of spore-forming bacteria?

A

bacillus anthracis and chlostridium difficile

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22
Q

endospores can be ,, and _ by location

A

central, terminal, and lateral

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23
Q

what are the 3 components of the epidemiological triad?

A

the environment, agent, and reservoir

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24
Q

what are the 4 types of host-pathogen interactions?

A
  1. symbiotic
  2. commensal
  3. mutualism
  4. parasitic
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25
Q

describe symbiotic

A

both benefit. Antagonists or synergisitic relationship

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26
Q

describe commensal

A

two species coexist where one benefits with no harm to the otehr

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27
Q

describe mutualism

A

they both benefit

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28
Q

describe parasitic

A

one benefits usually to the detriment of the host

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29
Q

what are colonizing flora?

A

usually commesals or saprobes comprised of bacteria which normally live on or in the body

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30
Q

what is an example of an opportunistic pathgeon?

A

candida albicans

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31
Q

what is pathogenicity?

A

the ability of a species to cause disease

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32
Q

what is virulence?

A

the ability of a strain of a species to cause disease

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33
Q

what are some factors that influence virulence?

A

-survival in environment
-effective transmission
-evasion of host defenses
-resistance to antimicrobial agents
-production of toxins

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34
Q

what are the two types of immunity?

A

innate and adaptive

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35
Q

what ecological niche has myobacterium tuberculosis developed to survive in the environment during transit?

A

a lipid coating to protect itself against death from drying air

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36
Q

what ecological niche has pseudomonas developed?

A

using minimal quantities of nutrients from water to survive for months

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37
Q

describe the process of innate immunity at the cellular level

A

the macrophage phagocytosis the pathogen and signals cytokines who call up neutrophils and natural killer cells to destroy the intruder

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38
Q

what appears first to the site of injury?

A

neutrophils and eosinophils and THEN macrophages

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39
Q

what is the goal of inflammation?

A

to prevent infection from setting in
to prevent the spread of infection or repair damage
to mobilize effector cells (T and B lymphocytes)

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40
Q

what are the two mechanisms of adaptive immunity?

A

humoral and cellular

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41
Q

describe humoral immunity

A

antibody-mediated immunity. With assitance from helper T cells, B cells can produce antibodies against a specific antigen neutralizing them, or causing lysis or phagocytosis

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42
Q

describe cellular immunity

A

occurs inside infected cells and is mediated by T lymphocytes. helpers T cells release cytokines that help activated T cells bind to the infected cells which then undergo lysis

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43
Q

what are some examples of gram positive cocci?

A

staphlococcus spp
streptococcus spp
enterococcus spp

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44
Q

what 2 staph strains are a part of normal skin flora?

A

epidermidis and warneri

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45
Q

what staph are most commonly associated with human infections?

A

epidermidis, haemolyticus, saprophyticus, schleiferi, and lugdunesis

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46
Q

what group of staph is not a part of normal flora?

A

A

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47
Q

Group A strep serotypes or genotypes have been identified based on what

A

M-protein serotype or M-protein gene sequence

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48
Q

What are examples of group A strep infections?

A

-Impetigo
-Purpeal Fever
-Scaarlet fever
-Septecemia
-pneumonia
-necrotizing fascitis
-sore throat (pharyngitis)
-erysipelas

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49
Q

Group B strep infections are linked to what?

A

neonatal meningitis and BSI

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50
Q

what is the primary virulence factor of streptococcus pneumoniae

A

an antiphagocyctic capsule

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51
Q

vaccine is available for streptococcus pneumoniae and recommended for patients with what?

A

splenectomy

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52
Q

What is the incubation period for streptoccocus pneomoniae?

A

1-3 days

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53
Q

describe some characteristics of streptococcus pneumoniae

A

lancet-shaped, gram-positive, cata-lase-negative, a-hemolytic diplococci

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54
Q

True or false. 21-90% of children worldwide are carriers for streptococus pneumonae

A

true

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55
Q

How many species of enterococcus are there?

A

at least 18

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56
Q

what strains account for the most human enterococcal infections?

A

faecalis and faecium

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57
Q

True or false. enterococcus are a part of the normal flora of the GI tract?

A

True

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58
Q

What type of infections can enterococcus cause?

A

blood, UTI, absess

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59
Q

what is the incubation period for enteroccous?

A

it is unkown

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60
Q

true or false. Enterococcus is highly antibiotic resistant.

A

True (example VRE which requires dual therapy for invasive infections)

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61
Q

What are some characteristics of bacillus anthracis?

A

encapsulated, spore-forming, nonhemolytic, non-motile, gram-positive, and aerobic

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62
Q

true or false. toxins are responsible for the clinical manifestations and substantial morbidity of bacillus anthracis

A

True

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63
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of bacillus anthracis?

A

hemmorage, edema, necrosis

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64
Q

how is b. anthracis spread?

A

by contact with or inhalation of spores

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65
Q

what are the 3 types of anthrax?

A
  1. cutaneous
  2. inhalation
  3. gastrointestinal
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66
Q

what is the incubation period for cutaeous or gastrointestinal anthrax?

A

1 week or less

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67
Q

what is the incubation period for inhalation antheax

A

2 to 43 days due to spore forming characteristics

68
Q

What are some characteristics of bacillus cereus?

A

gram positive, rod-shaped, facultative anaerobe, motile, B-hemolytic, spore forming

69
Q

Where is bacillus cereus commonly found?

A

soil and food

70
Q

what does bacillus cereus cause?

A

toxin mediated food poison

71
Q

what is the incubation period for b. cereus?

A

0.5-6 hours for emetic and 6-15 hours diarrheal

72
Q

what are some characteristics of corynebacterium diptheriae?

A

non-motile, non-encapsulated, non-sporulating, gram-positive, rod-shaped

73
Q

what are the 4 biotypes of corynebacterium diptheriae?

A
  1. mitis
  2. intermedius
  3. gravis
  4. belfanti
74
Q

True or false. All biotypes of c. diptheriae are toxigenic.

A

false. they may be toxigenic or nontoxigenic

75
Q

what is the incubation period for c. diptheriae?

A

2-5 days

76
Q

how long after recovery can b. diptheriae organisms be shed?

A

up to 6 weeks

77
Q

is there a vaccine available for c. diptheriae?

A

Yes

78
Q

With what microorganism does dead tissue form a pseudo-membrane in the throat or nose?

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

79
Q

what are some characteristics of listeria monocytogenes?

A

faculatative anaerobe, non spore-forming, non branching, motile, gram-positive rod that multiplies intracellularly

80
Q

where is listeria commonly found?

A

ready to eat meats, deli cuts, unpasteurized dairy, ice cream, and fresh and frozen fruits and vegetables

81
Q

Why is listeria serious in the pregnant population?

A

transplacental transmission following maternal bacteremia

82
Q

what is the incubation period for listeria in the non-pregnant population?

A

1-14 days

83
Q

what is the incubation period for listeria in pregnant women?

A

2-4 weeks

84
Q

True or false. Listeria is a self-limiting disease

A

True

85
Q

severe listieria cases might present with what conditions?

A

encephalitis, meningitis, endocarditis in neonates and immunocomprimised patients

86
Q

Neisseria meningitis is a gram ___ ___ with ___ serogroups based on ____

A

negative; diploccocus; 13; capsular type

87
Q

is Neisseria meningitis aerobic or anaerboic?

A

it is aerobic but can survive under anaerobic conditions

88
Q

describe the seasonality of neisseria meningitidis

A

seasonal character 2 to 3 weeks following onset of influenza outbreaks, with peak cases in January, February, and March

89
Q

asymptomatic colonization of the upper respiratory tract common in older adolescents and young adults

A

Neisseria meningitidis

90
Q

how does transmission of neisseria meningitidis occur?

A

human to human interaction

91
Q

Is neisseria meningitidis sensitive to antibiotics?

A

Yes

92
Q

Describe some characteristics of enterobacteriaeceae?

A

gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped

93
Q

Salmonella is part of what family?

A

enterobacteriaeceae

94
Q

what diseases do enterobacteriaceae cause?

A

everything from UTIs to pneumoina

95
Q

what is the most common serotype of the enterohemorrhagic serotypes for E. Coli?

A

E. Coli 0157:H7 (STEC)

96
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of STEC?

A

diarrhea, hemorrhagic colitis, and hemolytic-uremic syndrome

97
Q

STEC typically begins with ___ and hemorrhagic colitis starts _ days later

A

non bloody diarrhea, 2-3

98
Q

what are the 5 different types of E. coli that make people sick?

A
  • shiga toxin-producing (STEC)
  • Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
  • Entertoxigenic (ETEC)
  • Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
  • Enteroaggregative (EAEC)
99
Q

Which type of E. coli is travellers diarrhea?

A

enterotoxigenic E. coli

100
Q

Diarrhea with fever is what type of E. coli?

A

enteroinvasive e.coli

101
Q

dysentery is caused with what type of E. coli?

A

enteroinvasive E. coli

102
Q

what type of salmonella is the most frequently identified case of enteric disease

A

salmonella bongori

103
Q

what is the reservoir for salmonella?

A

birds, repitiles, amphibians

104
Q

how is salmonella transmitted?

A

oral fecal

105
Q

describe some characteristics of Shigella

A

facultative aerobic, gram-negative bacilli in the enterobacteriaceae family

106
Q

how many shigella species are there?

A

4

107
Q

what are the 4 shigella species?

A

-boydii
-dysenteriae
-flexneri
-soneii

108
Q

how is shigella transmitted?

A

fecal oral

109
Q

what is the inoculum for infection for shigella?

A

it is as low as 10 m.o.

110
Q

what is the incubation for shigella?

A

1-3 days

111
Q

is shigella antibiotic resistant?

A

yes

112
Q

shigella is viable in water up to __ days and in food up to __ days

A

6; 30

113
Q

True or false. bloody diarrhea is a characteristic of shigella?

A

True

114
Q

What are some characteristics of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

aerobic, gram negative, nonfermenting bacillus commonly found in the environment

115
Q

What microorganism forms biofilms?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

116
Q

what can o. aeruginosa colonize?

A

GI, GU, and sometimes respiratory tract

117
Q

what are sources for psudomonas outbreak?

A

they are water loving, drains, respirators may be sources

118
Q

what is an example of an opportunistic pathogen?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

119
Q

which organism has a characteristic grape like fruity scent?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

120
Q

is pseudomonas antibiotic resistant?

A

Yes

121
Q

what is another water loving opportunistic pathogen?

A

acinetobacter baymanii stenotrophomonas maltophilia

122
Q

which patients may become colonized for burkholderia cepacia?

A

cystic fibrosis

123
Q

cystic fibrosis patients who become colonized with B. cepacia are at risk for what?

A

-pneumonias
-cepacia syndrome (sepsis with high mortality)

124
Q

True or false. Burkholderia cepacia is highly antibiotic resistant

A

True

125
Q

how is B. cepacia transmitted?

A

-contact between colonized and non-colonized patients
-outbreaks from point sources (nebulizers, respiratory therapy equipment, water sources)

126
Q

legionella pneumophilia multiples in water what temperature?

A

between 24 degree celcius - 42 degrees celcius

127
Q

what is the most common cause of respiratory disese?

A

legionella pneumophilia

128
Q

what are the two types of legionella pneumophilia?

A

-legionnaire’s disese (acute respiratory tract infections)
-pontatic disease (self-limited flu like illness)

129
Q

what is the incubation period for legionnaire’s disease?

A

2-10 days

130
Q

what is the incubation period for pontiac disese?

A

1-2 days

131
Q

can legionella be spread human to human?

A

No

132
Q

legionella pneumoniae usually infects those with what?

A

respiratory omprimise or renal disease

133
Q

outbreaks of legionella pneumoniae are linked to what?

A

cooling water towers, hot tubs, produce foggers

134
Q

describe some characteristics of vibrio organisms

A

facultative anerobes, motile gram-negative bacilli

135
Q

vibrio organisms are tolerant of what?

A

salt

136
Q

what vibrio causes septicemia and wound infections?

A

V. vulnificus

137
Q

the most common nontoxigenic vibrio species associated with diarrhea are?

A

choelrae and parahaemolytcus

138
Q

what is the incubation period for vibrios?

A

24 hours

139
Q

describe some characteristics of camplybacter jejuni

A

comma-shaped, motile, gram negative bacilli

140
Q

what does campylobacter jejuni cause?

A

gastroenteritis which can be drug resistant

141
Q

what species in the Campylobacter family most commonly are found in patients with diarrhea

A

jejuni and coli

142
Q

what is the reservoir for campylobacter?

A

poultry, unpasteurized milk, untreated water

143
Q

what is the incubation period for campylobacter jejuni?

A

2-5 days

144
Q

which gram-negative bacilli causes duodenal ulcers?

A

helicobacter pylori

145
Q

what is the source of helocobacter pylori?

A

soil

146
Q

what is an anaerobe?

A

it grows in the absence of oxygen

147
Q

what is an obligate anaerobe?

A

it can not survive in the presence of oxygen

148
Q

what is an aertolerant anaerobe?

A

it can survive but grows best in the absence of oxygen

149
Q

what is a facultative anaerobe?

A

it will grow equally well in the absence of presence of oxygen

150
Q

where do we find anaerobes?

A

-all mucus membranes
-skin
-large numbers in the bowel

151
Q

true or false. Anaerobes stink

A

true

152
Q

why is it important to know where we find anaerobes?

A

because if you take a specimen through a mucus membrane, you will grow anaerobes (this is why you must aspirate or get a tissue specimen)

153
Q

what is an example of anaerobic gram-positive bacilli?

A

the sporm-forming, toxin mediated Clostridium species

154
Q

what are the 4 spore-forming clostridium species?

A

-clostridium tetani (tetanus)
-clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene)
-clostridium botulinum (botulism)
- c. difficile

155
Q

describe some c. diff characteristics

A

-spore forming
-obligate anaerobic
-gram-positive bacillus
-some strain produce exotoxins A and B

156
Q

some toxin producing c. diff strains lead to what?

A

pseudomembranous colitis

157
Q

what is the treatment for c. diff?

A

vancomycin, stool transplant, metronidazole

158
Q

what percentage of adults are colonized with c. diff?

A

3 to 26%

159
Q

what is the tuberculosis incubation period?

A

2-10 days

160
Q

True or false. A positive TST indicates posible infection with M. tuberculosis

A

True

161
Q

How is a TST read?

A

Read as induration. >10mm in immunocomprimsied and >5mm is considered positive

162
Q

what are the two TB tests?

A

-TST
-intreferon gamma release assay (IGRA)

163
Q

what is latent TB defined as?

A

a person who has a positive TST or IGRA result but
-no physical findings of disease
-chest x-ray findings that are normal

164
Q

Active TB presents with what?

A

symptoms and an abnormal chest x-ray

165
Q

when can TB precautions be lifted?

A

when the person has had 2 weeks of effective therapy, is improving clinically, and has three consecutive sputum smears negative for AFB, collected 24 hours apart

Infection control (7 decks)

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