Week 4- Cardio EAQs Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse identifies that a patient is in the initial stage of Raynaud’s disorder. Which assessment finding is consistent with the early stage of this condition?

Throbbing, tingling, and swelling of the limbs

Chronic ischemic pain and ulcers on both feet

Color changes of fingers from white to blue to red

Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and inflamed arteries

A

Color changes of fingers from white to blue to red

The vasospasm-induced color changes (from white to blue to red) of fingers, toes, ears, and nose are the usual characteristics of Raynaud’s disorder. Decreased perfusion leads to pallor (white), followed by cyanotic (bluish purple) digits that further turn red when blood flow is restored. In the later phases of the disease, the patient may complain about numbness and coldness along with throbbing, tingling, and swelling. Chronic ischemic pain and ulceration may indicate peripheral arterial disease, whereas hypertension, hyperglycemia, and inflamed arteries may indicate one or more cardiovascular disorders.

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2
Q

A patient with hypertension receives a prescription for lisinopril. Which mechanism of action would the nurse expect from this medication?

Blocks α-adrenergic effects

Relaxes arterial and venous smooth muscle

Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Reduces sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system (CNS)

A

Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which reduces angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention. β-Adrenergic receptor blockers (β-blockers) block β1-adrenergic receptors and result in vasodilation and a decreased heart rate. Direct vasodilators relax arterial and venous smooth muscle. Central-acting α-adrenergic antagonists reduce sympathetic outflow from the CNS to produce vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and BP.

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3
Q

As treatment for hypertensive crisis, a patient has received sodium nitroprusside for 3 days. For which reason would the nurse plan to monitor the patient’s thiocyanate levels?

The medication has a long half-life.

The medication is metabolized to cyanide and then thiocyanate.

An increased level indicates interactions with other drugs the patient is taking.

An increased level indicates adverse effects on target organs caused by the medication.

A

The medication is metabolized to cyanide and then thiocyanate.

Sodium nitroprusside causes arterial vasodilation and reduces systemic vascular resistance. This, in turn, decreases the BP. Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to cyanide and then to thiocyanate, which can reach lethal levels. Therefore thiocyanate levels should be monitored in patients receiving the drug for more than 3 days or at doses greater than or equal to 4 mcg/kg/min. The cause of concern and the need to assess the thiocyanate level do not relate to the medication’s half-life. An increased level does not indicate adverse effects on target organs. It does not indicate interactions with other medications.

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4
Q

The nurse reviews the treatments for lower extremity peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which therapy involves percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) and cold therapy?

Stent

Cryoplasty

Atherectomy

Endothelial progenitor cell therapy

A

Cryoplasty

Cryoplasty involves percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and cold therapy that use a specialized balloon filled with liquid nitrous oxide. Expansion of gas causes cooling that prevents restenosis. A stent is an expandable metallic device that helps keep an artery open. Atherectomy is the process of removing obstructing plaque. Endothelial progenitor cell therapy is used to stimulate blood vessel growth.

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5
Q

At which rate must blood flow in the brain be maintained for normal functioning?

200 to 400 mL/min

400 to 600 mL/min

650 to 750 mL/min

750 to 1000 mL/min

A

750 to 1000 mL/min

Blood flow must be maintained at 750 to 1000 mL/min (55 mL/100 g of brain tissue), or 20% of the cardiac output, for optimal brain functioning. Anything below that level, neurologic metabolism is altered.

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6
Q

The nurse reviews the care options for patients with lower extremity peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which treatment is used to stimulate blood vessel growth?

Urokinase

Stem cell therapy

Plasminogen activator

Spinal cord stimulation

A

Stem cell therapy

Stem cell therapy is used to stimulate blood vessel growth, or angiogenesis. Urokinase is recommended to reduce complications associated with a thrombectomy. Plasminogen activator is used if surgical thrombectomy is not recommended. Spinal cord stimulation is helpful to control pain and prevent amputation.

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7
Q

Which term is used to describe difficulty breathing when lying down?

Dyspnea

Orthopnea

Bradypnea

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

A

Orthopnea

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8
Q

___________ is the term for abnormally slow breathing

A

Bradypnea

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9
Q

Which lobe of the brain is affected if a patient has Broca aphasia?

Frontal lobe

Parietal lobe

Occipital lobe

Temporal lobe

A

Frontal lobe

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10
Q

A patient is diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be prescribed?

Sildenafil

Bosentan

Cilostazol

Simvastatin

A

Simvastatin

Lipid management is essential in the patient with PAD. Statins such as simvastatin lower the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and triglyceride levels and are used to treat peripheral arterial disease. Sildenafil is used to treat Buerger disease. Bosentan is used as an endothelin receptor antagonist in patients with Raynaud’s phenomenon. Cilostazol is also used to treat Buerger disease.

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11
Q

The nurse is preparing to measure the blood pressure (BP) of a patient who is lying down on a bed. Which technique should the nurse use?

Place the BP cuff on the forearm when measuring the BP.

Measure the BP in both arms and record the lowest reading.

Rest the patient’s arm on a pillow during the BP measurement.

Measure the BP twice in quick succession and average the readings.

A

Rest the patient’s arm on a pillow during the BP measurement.

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12
Q

Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of stroke?

Asians

Mexicans

Caucasians

Blacks

A

Blacks

Blacks have twice the incidence of stroke and a higher death rate from stroke compared to any other ethnic group. This may be related in part to a higher incidence of hypertension, obesity, and diabetes. Asians, Mexicans, and Caucasians have a lower risk of stroke than do Blacks.

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13
Q

Normal BP is

A

under 120/80

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14
Q

Elevated BP is

A

120-129

Under 80

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15
Q

HTN stage 1

Stage 2

A

Stage 1 - 130-139 / 80-89

Stage 2- Over 140/90

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16
Q

Which assessment would the nurse teach a patient to report as part of the warning signs of stroke, using the mnemonic FAST?

Footdrop

Arm strength

Orientation

Facial drooping

A

Facial drooping

The FAST mnemonic, a quick and easy way to remember the signs of stroke according to the American Stroke Association, includes Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulties, and Time. Footdrop, arm strength, and orientation are not specific to the FAST mnemonic.

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17
Q

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease?

Soak patient’s feet daily.

Place pillow under calves.

Apply compression stockings.

Apply wet-to-dry dressings on any foot ulcer.

A

Place pillow under calves.

Placing pillows under the patient’s calves will keep the heels off the bed and will reduce pressure that may cause ulceration. Other interventions include keeping the patient’s feet clean and dry; do not soak feet to prevent maceration. Footwear should be lightweight and roomy; do not use compression stockings. Cover ulcers with a dry, sterile dressing.

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18
Q

Which rationale would explain why a patient is not responding well to clopidogrel therapy?

The patient eats low-sodium food.

The patient has peripheral artery disease.

The patient takes omeprazole medication.

The patient experiences aspirin intolerance.

A

The patient takes omeprazole medication.

Omeprazole interacts with clopidogrel and reduces the therapeutic action of clopidogrel by half. Therefore clopidogrel should not be administered with omeprazole. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet drug and is used to treat peripheral artery disease. Low-sodium food will help maintain blood pressure in peripheral artery disease. Clopidogrel is recommended for peripheral artery disease. Clopidogrel is recommended for the patient who has aspirin intolerance.

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19
Q

Which finding is consistent with a left-hemispheric stroke?

Impaired judgment

Unilateral weakness of the left extremities

Unilateral weakness of the right extremities

Spatial-perceptual deficits

A

Unilateral weakness of the right extremities

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20
Q

Which information will a transcranial doppler (TCD) ultrasonography provide?

It measures the velocity of blood flow in the cerebral arteries.

It identifies red blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid.

It visualizes cerebral blood vessels.

It measures brain oxygenation.

A

It measures the velocity of blood flow in the cerebral arteries.

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21
Q

Which assessment finding is consistent with right-sided heart failure (HF)?

Jugular venous distention (JVD)

Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

Displacement of the point of maximal impulse (PMI)

A

Jugular venous distention (JVD)

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22
Q

Which instruction is important for the nurse to provide to a patient about the management of stage 1 hypertension?

Restrict all caffeine.

Restrict sodium intake.

Increase protein intake.

Use calcium supplements.

A

Restrict sodium intake.

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22
Q

For the patient receiving intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy, on which part of the electrocardiogram (ECG) would the nurse expect the balloon inflation?

P wave

Q wave

R wave

T wave

A

T wave

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23
Q

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a female patient who was newly diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which instruction would be included?

Decrease the intake of omega-3 fatty acids.

Restrict sodium to less than or equal to 2300 mg/day.

Limit the intake of alcohol to no more than one drink per day.

Begin taking a calcium supplement to help lower blood pressure (BP).

A

Limit the intake of alcohol to no more than one drink per day.

Excessive alcohol intake is strongly associated with hypertension. Women and lighter-weight men should limit their intake to no more than one drink per day. Increased levels of dietary omega-3 fatty acids are associated with lower BP. People with hypertension should restrict sodium to less than or equal to 1500 mg/day. Calcium supplements are not recommended to lower BP.

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24
Q

People with HTN should restrict sodium to less than or equal to _______ mg/day

A

1500

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25
Q

For the patient experiencing cardiogenic shock after an acute myocardial infarction, which rationale would the nurse associate with use of intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy?

Reduces coronary artery vessel perfusion

Reduces pressure in the pulmonary artery

Enhances the effectiveness of cardiac medications

Provides time to perform an emergency angiogram

A

Provides time to perform an emergency angiogram

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26
Q

To ensure the safety of the patient with an implanted ventricular assist device (VAD) being prepared for discharge, of which intervention would the nurse verify completion prior to the patient leaving the hospital?

Home care referral initiated

Diet and activity teaching completed

Battery charger available in the home

Oxygen condenser delivered to the home

A

Battery charger available in the home

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27
Q

The nurse suspects that which drug being used to treat chronic heart failure is the cause of the male patient’s enlarged breasts?

Digoxin

Captopril

Carvedilol

Spironolactone

A

Spironolactone

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27
Q

Which physiologic change occurs when epinephrine and norepinephrine are released in response to decreased cardiac output in a patient with heart failure (HF)?

Vasodilation

Decreased heart rate

Decreased blood pressure (BP)

Increased oxygen demand

A

Increased oxygen demand

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28
Q

A patient is diagnosed with primary hypertension and asks the nurse what caused the condition. Which response would the nurse give?

“There is no identified cause.”

“A decrease in plasma renin levels.”

“Too much plaque in the blood vessels.”

“Kidney disease is the most common cause.”

A

“There is no identified cause.”

Primary hypertension does not have an identifiable cause. There is not one exact cause of primary hypertension; there are several contributing factors. An increase, not a decrease, in plasma renin levels is a contributing factor in the development of primary hypertension. Hypertension speeds up the process of atherosclerosis in the peripheral blood vessels. Renal or kidney disease is a cause of secondary hypertension.

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29
Q

The nurse reviews the assessment findings of a patient with atherosclerosis and notes an ankle-brachial index (ABI) of 0.8, decreased Doppler pressures, aspirin intolerance, and arterial stenosis. Which treatment would likely be prescribed for this patient?

Nifedipine

Clopidogrel

Furosemide

Doxycycline

A

Clopidogrel

The patient’s symptoms suggest peripheral artery disease (PAD), which is treated with antiplatelet drugs. Because the patient has aspirin intolerance, clopidogrel would be beneficial. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to reduce the severity of a vasospastic attack. Furosemide is a diuretic and is used to treat hypertension. Doxycycline is used to treat aortic aneurysms.

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30
Q

A patient reports a recent onset of pain in the calf when climbing stairs. The pain is relieved when the patient sits and rests for about 2 minutes. Which condition would the nurse suspect?

Muscle cramping

Venous insufficiency

Intermittent claudication

Sore muscles from overexertion

A

Intermittent claudication

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31
Q

Which artery would be obstructed if a patient sustained a stroke and is experiencing cranial nerve deficits?

Vertebral artery

Middle cerebral artery

Anterior cerebral artery

Posterior cerebral artery

A

Vertebral artery

32
Q

Which respiratory rate would the nurse anticipate in a patient who is developing pulmonary edema?

6 to 8 breaths/min

10 to 14 breaths/min

16 to 20 breaths/min

32 to 36 breaths/min

A

32 to 36 breaths/min

33
Q

A patient who underwent percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) to treat lower leg peripheral artery disease is prescribed a low dose of aspirin daily. Which action is the desired effect of this medication?

To prevent platelet agglutination

To stimulate collateral circulation

To decrease liver production of vitamin K

To control pain resulting from the procedure

A

To prevent platelet agglutination

34
Q

A patient’s blood pressure (BP) reading is 142/91 mm Hg. How would the nurse classify the BP?

Normal

Prehypertension

Hypertension, stage 1

Hypertension, stage 2

A

Hypertension, stage 2

35
Q

The nurse is teaching an older patient with hypertension about developing an exercise program. Which instructions would the nurse include?

Perform balance exercises daily.

Perform flexibility exercises twice each day.

Perform muscle-strengthening activities twice a week.

Perform high-intensity activity for 30 minutes on most days.

A

Perform muscle-strengthening activities twice a week.

36
Q

Which treatment may help prevent amputation in patients with critical limb ischemia?

Nifedipine

Pseudoephedrine

Spinal cord stimulation

Oxygen via nasal cannula

A

Spinal cord stimulation

37
Q

In which part of the body would the nurse expect to find edema in a patient with heart failure (HF) who spends the majority of the time lying in bed?

Feet

Face

Sacrum

Abdomen

A

Sacrum

38
Q

The nurse would monitor for which side effect in a patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor to treat chronic heart failure (HF)?

Cough

Anemia

Hyperpigmentation

Increased body temperature

A

Cough

39
Q

A male Hispanic patient is diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The patient’s health history includes smoking and depression. Which risk factor does this patient have for PAD?

Gender

Tobacco

Ethnicity

Comorbidity

A

Tobacco

40
Q

Which effect would be expected from a cardiac medication that is a positive chronotropic agent?

Increased heart rate

Increased stroke volume

Increased cardiac output

Increased myocardial contractility

A

Increased heart rate

41
Q

Which changes in vital signs indicate that a patient who has just stood up is experiencing postural hypotension?

Increased systolic blood pressure (BP) and/or decreased heart rate (HR)

Increased diastolic BP and/or decreased HR

Decreased systolic BP, decreased diastolic BP, and/or increased HR

Decreased systolic BP, increased diastolic BP, and no change in HR

A

Decreased systolic BP, decreased diastolic BP, and/or increased HR

42
Q

Which medication would likely be prescribed to a patient who has intermittent claudication?

Ramipril

Warfarin

Simvastatin

Pentoxifylline

A

Pentoxifylline

43
Q

Which type of drug therapy is used to treat volume overload in patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)?

Diuretics

Narcotics

Vasodilators

Positive inotropes

A

Diuretics

44
Q

Which compensatory mechanism of heart failure (HF) results in increased heart rate and ventricular contractility?

Ventricular remodeling

Dilation

Hypertrophy

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activation

A

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activation

45
Q

Which diagnostic study is the most reliable to identify the source of a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Cardiac imaging

Cerebral angiography

Magnetic resonance angiography

CT angiography

A

Cerebral angiography

46
Q

Which rationale supports gene and stem cell therapy for a patient who has critical limb ischemia?

Reduces pain

Increases perfusion

Prevents maceration

Promotes angiogenesis

A

Promotes angiogenesis

46
Q

Which information would the nurse teach to a patient who has a new prescription for doxazosin?

“Monitor yourself for a fast heart rate, which is a common side effect.”

“Make position changes slowly, especially from lying down to standing.”

“The medication also improves breathing by decreasing chest congestion.”

“It is common for patients who take this medication to experience nausea.”

A

“Make position changes slowly, especially from lying down to standing.”

46
Q

Which medication should be used with caution in patients with diabetes because the drug may depress the tachycardia associated with hypoglycemia?

Diltiazem

Metoprolol

Prednisone

Hydromorphone

A

Metoprolol

47
Q

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect in a patient with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?

Decreased attention span

Breathlessness on exertion

Awakening with a feeling of suffocation

A nonproductive cough that is worse when lying down

A

Awakening with a feeling of suffocation

48
Q

A patient reports fingers and toes that change color from pallor to cyanosis to rubor when exposed to cold temperatures. The patient states that, after the color changes, the digits are throbbing, achy, and tingly. Which condition would the nurse suspect?

Aortic aneurysm

Raynaud’s phenomenon

Post-thrombotic syndrome

Superficial vein thrombosis

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

49
Q

The nurse would monitor for which major side effect in a patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for treatment of chronic heart failure?

Angioedema

Hypokalemia

Inability to swallow

Symptomatic hypertension

A

Angioedema

an allergic reaction involving edema of the face and airways.

50
Q

A patient with intermittent claudication experiences pain in the leg muscles while exercising that resolves within 10 minutes after stopping. Which substance building up in the leg is causing the ischemic pain?

Lactic acid

Triglycerides

Homocysteine

Blood viscosity

A

Lactic acid

51
Q

Which term would the nurse chart in the patient’s medical record if the patient is unable to recognize familiar objects after a stroke?

Alexia

Agnosia

Aphasia

Agraphia

A

Agnosia

52
Q

How quickly does cellular death occur if blood flow to the brain is interrupted?

30 seconds

2 minutes

5 minutes

30 minutes

A

5 minutes

53
Q

An increase in _________ is one of the causes of resistant hypertension

A

obesity

54
Q

For which condition is dopamine prescribed in a patient with heart failure (HF)?

Hypotension

Acute anxiety

Peripheral edema

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

A

Hypotension

55
Q

Which type of stroke correlates with the clinical manifestations of a severe headache, hypertension, vomiting, dysarthria, and eye movement disturbances?

Embolic stroke

Thrombotic stroke

Intracerebral hemorrhage

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Intracerebral hemorrhage

Symptoms such as headaches, high blood pressure, vomiting, dysarthria, and eye movement disturbances indicate intracerebral hemorrhage. An embolic stroke is mostly related to heart conditions such as atrial fibrillation, myocardial infarction, and infective endocarditis. A thrombotic stroke has the clinical manifestation of decreased level of consciousness in the first 24 hours. Clinical manifestations such as stiff neck and cranial nerve deficits indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

56
Q

Which clinical manifestation is associated with a stroke on the right side of the brain?

Impulsiveness

Impaired speech

Slow performance

Paralyzed right side

A

Impulsiveness

A patient who sustains a stroke on the right side of the brain shows impulsiveness.

Impaired speech, slow performance, and a paralyzed right side occur when a patient has had a stroke on the left side of the brain.

57
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient for orthostatic hypotension. First, the nurse measured the blood pressure (BP) and heart rate (HR) with the patient in the supine position. Which action would the nurse take next?

Repeat BP and HR every 15 minutes in the supine position.

Ask the patient to stand, and then measure the BP and HR within 15 minutes.

Move the patient to a standing position and immediately measure the BP and HR.

Move the patient to a sitting position and measure the BP and HR within 2 minutes.

A

Move the patient to a sitting position and measure the BP and HR within 2 minutes.

58
Q

Which condition would the nurse check for in the patient’s history before administering cilostazol?

Heart failure

Diabetes mellitus

Buerger disease

Intermittent claudication

A

Heart failure

59
Q

A patient who has been taking clonidine for 10 years tells the nurse, “I decided to quit taking the medication a few days ago.” For which manifestation would the nurse monitor this patient?

Tremors

Lethargy

Dysphasia

Bradycardia

A

Tremors

60
Q

Which condition causes the symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

Decreased preload

Increased cardiac output

Fluid congestion in the lungs

Systemic venous congestion

A

Systemic venous congestion

61
Q

Right-sided heart failure (HF) occurs when the ________________ does not pump effectively.

A

right ventricle (RV)

62
Q

Which food would be included in the diet for a patient who had a stroke and has dysphagia?

Milkshakes

Chicken soup

Mashed potatoes

Pureed cooked rice

A

Mashed potatoes

Patients who had a stroke and have dysphagia have difficulty chewing and swallowing. Thus the nurse would include mashed potatoes because the food is easy to swallow and provides enough texture. Milkshakes and all milk products should be avoided because they increase the viscosity of mucus, which leads to an increase in salivation. Chicken soup is a thin liquid that may be difficult to swallow and could trigger coughing or choking. Pureed cooked rice is bland to the taste and may stick to the palate, which poses a risk for aspiration.

63
Q

The nurse provides education to a group of women about preventing hypertension. Which information would the nurse include? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Lose weight.

Limit nuts and seeds.

Limit sodium and fat intake.

Drink fat-free or low-fat milk.

Perform moderate physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days.

A

Limit sodium and fat intake.

Drink fat-free or low-fat milk.

Perform moderate physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days.

64
Q

The nurse expects which assessment finding in a patient with chronic heart failure (HF)?

Cough that is worse upon awakening

Bradycardia

Flushed skin

Sleep apnea

A

Sleep apnea

65
Q

Snoring and daytime sleepiness can indicate sleep ________ , a common condition with chronic HF.

A

apnea

66
Q

Which behavior would be exhibited by a patient who has suffered a right-brain stroke?

Very cautious

Difficulty with words

Impulsive and impatient

Accomplishes tasks quickly

A

Impulsive and impatient

67
Q

Which noninvasive test is used to diagnose heart failure (HF)?

Chest x-ray

Echocardiogram

Cardiac catheterization

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

A

Echocardiogram

68
Q

The nurse would monitor for which condition in a patient with left-sided heart failure?

Pedal edema

Hepatomegaly

Splenomegaly

Pulmonary congestion

A

Pulmonary congestion

69
Q

When the left ventricle (LV) fails, blood backs up into the left atrium (LA). This causes fluid accumulation in the _______

A

lungs

70
Q

A patient has been prescribed atenolol. Which condition would the nurse question the patient about before administering the drug?

Asthma

Dry cough

Depression

Diabetes

A

Diabetes

Atenolol is a cardioselective β1-blocker that reduces blood pressure (BP) by blocking β-adrenergic effects. It should be used with caution in patients with diabetes because it depresses the tachycardia associated with hypoglycemia and may hinder diagnosing hypoglycemia. A history of asthma, dry cough, or depression does not affect the administration of the drug. Noncardioselective β-adrenergic receptor blockers (β-blockers) should not be used in patients with asthma because of the risk of bronchospasm, but this is not the case with atenolol because it is cardioselective. Angiotensin-converting enzymes may cause a dry cough.

71
Q

When feeding a patient with a stroke on the left side, in which position would the nurse place the patient?

Right lateral position

Low-Fowler position

High-Fowler position

Trendelenburg position

A

High-Fowler position

72
Q

Which rationale explains the use of ramipril in a patient with symptomatic peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

Reduces hypertension

Reduces vasospastic attack

Slows growth rate of aneurysm

Lowers low-density lipoproteins

A

Reduces hypertension

73
Q

Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It reduces hypertension by inhibiting the production of _______________

A

angiotensin II.

74
Q

Which condition may a patient have experienced if the patient was exhibiting symptoms of a stroke for 45 minutes before the symptoms resolved?

Embolic brain stroke

Acute brain infarction

Transient ischemic attack

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Transient ischemic attack

A transient ischemic attack is a transient episode of neurologic symptoms without acute brain infarction. Symptoms typically last less than 1 hour.

75
Q

The nurse correlates which condition with the assessment findings of a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who experiences blood-tinged sputum, a productive frothy cough, and tachycardia?

Cerebral edema

Peripheral edema

Lymphatic edema

Pulmonary edema

A

Pulmonary edema

76
Q

_____ can manifest as pulmonary edema, which is an acute, life-threatening condition

A

ADHF