Week 4- Cardio EAQs

Question 1

The nurse identifies that a patient is in the initial stage of Raynaud’s disorder. Which assessment finding is consistent with the early stage of this condition?

Throbbing, tingling, and swelling of the limbs

Chronic ischemic pain and ulcers on both feet

Color changes of fingers from white to blue to red

Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and inflamed arteries

Answer 1

Color changes of fingers from white to blue to red

The vasospasm-induced color changes (from white to blue to red) of fingers, toes, ears, and nose are the usual characteristics of Raynaud’s disorder. Decreased perfusion leads to pallor (white), followed by cyanotic (bluish purple) digits that further turn red when blood flow is restored. In the later phases of the disease, the patient may complain about numbness and coldness along with throbbing, tingling, and swelling. Chronic ischemic pain and ulceration may indicate peripheral arterial disease, whereas hypertension, hyperglycemia, and inflamed arteries may indicate one or more cardiovascular disorders.

Question 2

A patient with hypertension receives a prescription for lisinopril. Which mechanism of action would the nurse expect from this medication?

Blocks α-adrenergic effects

Relaxes arterial and venous smooth muscle

Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Reduces sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system (CNS)

Answer 2

Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which reduces angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention. β-Adrenergic receptor blockers (β-blockers) block β1-adrenergic receptors and result in vasodilation and a decreased heart rate. Direct vasodilators relax arterial and venous smooth muscle. Central-acting α-adrenergic antagonists reduce sympathetic outflow from the CNS to produce vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and BP.

Question 3

As treatment for hypertensive crisis, a patient has received sodium nitroprusside for 3 days. For which reason would the nurse plan to monitor the patient’s thiocyanate levels?

The medication has a long half-life.

The medication is metabolized to cyanide and then thiocyanate.

An increased level indicates interactions with other drugs the patient is taking.

An increased level indicates adverse effects on target organs caused by the medication.

Answer 3

The medication is metabolized to cyanide and then thiocyanate.

Sodium nitroprusside causes arterial vasodilation and reduces systemic vascular resistance. This, in turn, decreases the BP. Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to cyanide and then to thiocyanate, which can reach lethal levels. Therefore thiocyanate levels should be monitored in patients receiving the drug for more than 3 days or at doses greater than or equal to 4 mcg/kg/min. The cause of concern and the need to assess the thiocyanate level do not relate to the medication’s half-life. An increased level does not indicate adverse effects on target organs. It does not indicate interactions with other medications.

Question 4

The nurse reviews the treatments for lower extremity peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which therapy involves percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) and cold therapy?

Stent

Cryoplasty

Atherectomy

Endothelial progenitor cell therapy

Answer 4

Cryoplasty

Cryoplasty involves percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and cold therapy that use a specialized balloon filled with liquid nitrous oxide. Expansion of gas causes cooling that prevents restenosis. A stent is an expandable metallic device that helps keep an artery open. Atherectomy is the process of removing obstructing plaque. Endothelial progenitor cell therapy is used to stimulate blood vessel growth.

Question 5

At which rate must blood flow in the brain be maintained for normal functioning?

200 to 400 mL/min

400 to 600 mL/min

650 to 750 mL/min

750 to 1000 mL/min

Answer 5

750 to 1000 mL/min

Blood flow must be maintained at 750 to 1000 mL/min (55 mL/100 g of brain tissue), or 20% of the cardiac output, for optimal brain functioning. Anything below that level, neurologic metabolism is altered.

Question 6

The nurse reviews the care options for patients with lower extremity peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which treatment is used to stimulate blood vessel growth?

Urokinase

Stem cell therapy

Plasminogen activator

Spinal cord stimulation

Answer 6

Stem cell therapy

Stem cell therapy is used to stimulate blood vessel growth, or angiogenesis. Urokinase is recommended to reduce complications associated with a thrombectomy. Plasminogen activator is used if surgical thrombectomy is not recommended. Spinal cord stimulation is helpful to control pain and prevent amputation.

Question 7

Which term is used to describe difficulty breathing when lying down?

Dyspnea

Orthopnea

Bradypnea

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

Answer 7

Orthopnea

Question 8

___________ is the term for abnormally slow breathing

Answer 8

Bradypnea

Question 9

Which lobe of the brain is affected if a patient has Broca aphasia?

Frontal lobe

Parietal lobe

Occipital lobe

Temporal lobe

Answer 9

Frontal lobe

Question 10

A patient is diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be prescribed?

Sildenafil

Bosentan

Cilostazol

Simvastatin

Answer 10

Simvastatin

Lipid management is essential in the patient with PAD. Statins such as simvastatin lower the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and triglyceride levels and are used to treat peripheral arterial disease. Sildenafil is used to treat Buerger disease. Bosentan is used as an endothelin receptor antagonist in patients with Raynaud’s phenomenon. Cilostazol is also used to treat Buerger disease.

Question 11

The nurse is preparing to measure the blood pressure (BP) of a patient who is lying down on a bed. Which technique should the nurse use?

Place the BP cuff on the forearm when measuring the BP.

Measure the BP in both arms and record the lowest reading.

Rest the patient’s arm on a pillow during the BP measurement.

Measure the BP twice in quick succession and average the readings.

Answer 11

Rest the patient’s arm on a pillow during the BP measurement.

Question 12

Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of stroke?

Asians

Mexicans

Caucasians

Blacks

Answer 12

Blacks

Blacks have twice the incidence of stroke and a higher death rate from stroke compared to any other ethnic group. This may be related in part to a higher incidence of hypertension, obesity, and diabetes. Asians, Mexicans, and Caucasians have a lower risk of stroke than do Blacks.

Question 13

Normal BP is

Answer 13

under 120/80

Question 14

Elevated BP is

Answer 14

120-129

Under 80

Question 15

HTN stage 1

Stage 2

Answer 15

Stage 1 - 130-139 / 80-89

Stage 2- Over 140/90

Question 16

Which assessment would the nurse teach a patient to report as part of the warning signs of stroke, using the mnemonic FAST?

Footdrop

Arm strength

Orientation

Facial drooping

Answer 16

Facial drooping

The FAST mnemonic, a quick and easy way to remember the signs of stroke according to the American Stroke Association, includes Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulties, and Time. Footdrop, arm strength, and orientation are not specific to the FAST mnemonic.

Question 17

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease?

Soak patient’s feet daily.

Place pillow under calves.

Apply compression stockings.

Apply wet-to-dry dressings on any foot ulcer.

Answer 17

Place pillow under calves.

Placing pillows under the patient’s calves will keep the heels off the bed and will reduce pressure that may cause ulceration. Other interventions include keeping the patient’s feet clean and dry; do not soak feet to prevent maceration. Footwear should be lightweight and roomy; do not use compression stockings. Cover ulcers with a dry, sterile dressing.

Question 18

Which rationale would explain why a patient is not responding well to clopidogrel therapy?

The patient eats low-sodium food.

The patient has peripheral artery disease.

The patient takes omeprazole medication.

The patient experiences aspirin intolerance.

Answer 18

The patient takes omeprazole medication.

Omeprazole interacts with clopidogrel and reduces the therapeutic action of clopidogrel by half. Therefore clopidogrel should not be administered with omeprazole. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet drug and is used to treat peripheral artery disease. Low-sodium food will help maintain blood pressure in peripheral artery disease. Clopidogrel is recommended for peripheral artery disease. Clopidogrel is recommended for the patient who has aspirin intolerance.

Question 19

Which finding is consistent with a left-hemispheric stroke?

Impaired judgment

Unilateral weakness of the left extremities

Unilateral weakness of the right extremities

Spatial-perceptual deficits

Answer 19

Unilateral weakness of the right extremities

Question 20

Which information will a transcranial doppler (TCD) ultrasonography provide?

It measures the velocity of blood flow in the cerebral arteries.

It identifies red blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid.

It visualizes cerebral blood vessels.

It measures brain oxygenation.

Answer 20

It measures the velocity of blood flow in the cerebral arteries.

Question 21

Which assessment finding is consistent with right-sided heart failure (HF)?

Jugular venous distention (JVD)

Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

Displacement of the point of maximal impulse (PMI)

Answer 21

Jugular venous distention (JVD)

Question 22

Which instruction is important for the nurse to provide to a patient about the management of stage 1 hypertension?

Restrict all caffeine.

Restrict sodium intake.

Increase protein intake.

Use calcium supplements.

Answer 22

Restrict sodium intake.

Question 22

For the patient receiving intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy, on which part of the electrocardiogram (ECG) would the nurse expect the balloon inflation?

P wave

Q wave

R wave

T wave

Answer 22

T wave

Question 23

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a female patient who was newly diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which instruction would be included?

Decrease the intake of omega-3 fatty acids.

Restrict sodium to less than or equal to 2300 mg/day.

Limit the intake of alcohol to no more than one drink per day.

Begin taking a calcium supplement to help lower blood pressure (BP).

Answer 23

Limit the intake of alcohol to no more than one drink per day.

Excessive alcohol intake is strongly associated with hypertension. Women and lighter-weight men should limit their intake to no more than one drink per day. Increased levels of dietary omega-3 fatty acids are associated with lower BP. People with hypertension should restrict sodium to less than or equal to 1500 mg/day. Calcium supplements are not recommended to lower BP.

Question 24

People with HTN should restrict sodium to less than or equal to _______ mg/day

Answer 24

1500

Question 25

For the patient experiencing cardiogenic shock after an acute myocardial infarction, which rationale would the nurse associate with use of intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy? Reduces coronary artery vessel perfusion Reduces pressure in the pulmonary artery Enhances the effectiveness of cardiac medications Provides time to perform an emergency angiogram

Answer 25

Provides time to perform an emergency angiogram

Question 26

To ensure the safety of the patient with an implanted ventricular assist device (VAD) being prepared for discharge, of which intervention would the nurse verify completion prior to the patient leaving the hospital? Home care referral initiated Diet and activity teaching completed Battery charger available in the home Oxygen condenser delivered to the home

Answer 26

Battery charger available in the home

Question 27

The nurse suspects that which drug being used to treat chronic heart failure is the cause of the male patient's enlarged breasts? Digoxin Captopril Carvedilol Spironolactone

Answer 27

Spironolactone

Question 27

Which physiologic change occurs when epinephrine and norepinephrine are released in response to decreased cardiac output in a patient with heart failure (HF)? Vasodilation Decreased heart rate Decreased blood pressure (BP) Increased oxygen demand

Answer 27

Increased oxygen demand

Question 28

A patient is diagnosed with primary hypertension and asks the nurse what caused the condition. Which response would the nurse give? "There is no identified cause." "A decrease in plasma renin levels." "Too much plaque in the blood vessels." "Kidney disease is the most common cause."

Answer 28

"There is no identified cause." Primary hypertension does not have an identifiable cause. There is not one exact cause of primary hypertension; there are several contributing factors. An increase, not a decrease, in plasma renin levels is a contributing factor in the development of primary hypertension. Hypertension speeds up the process of atherosclerosis in the peripheral blood vessels. Renal or kidney disease is a cause of secondary hypertension.

Question 29

The nurse reviews the assessment findings of a patient with atherosclerosis and notes an ankle-brachial index (ABI) of 0.8, decreased Doppler pressures, aspirin intolerance, and arterial stenosis. Which treatment would likely be prescribed for this patient? Nifedipine Clopidogrel Furosemide Doxycycline

Answer 29

Clopidogrel The patient’s symptoms suggest peripheral artery disease (PAD), which is treated with antiplatelet drugs. Because the patient has aspirin intolerance, clopidogrel would be beneficial. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to reduce the severity of a vasospastic attack. Furosemide is a diuretic and is used to treat hypertension. Doxycycline is used to treat aortic aneurysms.

Question 30

A patient reports a recent onset of pain in the calf when climbing stairs. The pain is relieved when the patient sits and rests for about 2 minutes. Which condition would the nurse suspect? Muscle cramping Venous insufficiency Intermittent claudication Sore muscles from overexertion

Answer 30

Intermittent claudication

Question 31

Which artery would be obstructed if a patient sustained a stroke and is experiencing cranial nerve deficits? Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery Anterior cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery

Answer 31

Vertebral artery

Question 32

Which respiratory rate would the nurse anticipate in a patient who is developing pulmonary edema? 6 to 8 breaths/min 10 to 14 breaths/min 16 to 20 breaths/min 32 to 36 breaths/min

Answer 32

32 to 36 breaths/min

Question 33

A patient who underwent percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) to treat lower leg peripheral artery disease is prescribed a low dose of aspirin daily. Which action is the desired effect of this medication? To prevent platelet agglutination To stimulate collateral circulation To decrease liver production of vitamin K To control pain resulting from the procedure

Answer 33

To prevent platelet agglutination

Question 34

A patient’s blood pressure (BP) reading is 142/91 mm Hg. How would the nurse classify the BP? Normal Prehypertension Hypertension, stage 1 Hypertension, stage 2

Answer 34

Hypertension, stage 2

Question 35

The nurse is teaching an older patient with hypertension about developing an exercise program. Which instructions would the nurse include? Perform balance exercises daily. Perform flexibility exercises twice each day. Perform muscle-strengthening activities twice a week. Perform high-intensity activity for 30 minutes on most days.

Answer 35

Perform muscle-strengthening activities twice a week.

Question 36

Which treatment may help prevent amputation in patients with critical limb ischemia? Nifedipine Pseudoephedrine Spinal cord stimulation Oxygen via nasal cannula

Answer 36

Spinal cord stimulation

Question 37

In which part of the body would the nurse expect to find edema in a patient with heart failure (HF) who spends the majority of the time lying in bed? Feet Face Sacrum Abdomen

Answer 37

Sacrum

Question 38

The nurse would monitor for which side effect in a patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor to treat chronic heart failure (HF)? Cough Anemia Hyperpigmentation Increased body temperature

Answer 38

Cough

Question 39

A male Hispanic patient is diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The patient’s health history includes smoking and depression. Which risk factor does this patient have for PAD? Gender Tobacco Ethnicity Comorbidity

Answer 39

Tobacco

Question 40

Which effect would be expected from a cardiac medication that is a positive chronotropic agent? Increased heart rate Increased stroke volume Increased cardiac output Increased myocardial contractility

Answer 40

Increased heart rate

Question 41

Which changes in vital signs indicate that a patient who has just stood up is experiencing postural hypotension? Increased systolic blood pressure (BP) and/or decreased heart rate (HR) Increased diastolic BP and/or decreased HR Decreased systolic BP, decreased diastolic BP, and/or increased HR Decreased systolic BP, increased diastolic BP, and no change in HR

Answer 41

Decreased systolic BP, decreased diastolic BP, and/or increased HR

Question 42

Which medication would likely be prescribed to a patient who has intermittent claudication? Ramipril Warfarin Simvastatin Pentoxifylline

Answer 42

Pentoxifylline

Question 43

Which type of drug therapy is used to treat volume overload in patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)? Diuretics Narcotics Vasodilators Positive inotropes

Answer 43

Diuretics

Question 44

Which compensatory mechanism of heart failure (HF) results in increased heart rate and ventricular contractility? Ventricular remodeling Dilation Hypertrophy Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activation

Answer 44

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activation

Question 45

Which diagnostic study is the most reliable to identify the source of a subarachnoid hemorrhage? Cardiac imaging Cerebral angiography Magnetic resonance angiography CT angiography

Answer 45

Cerebral angiography

Question 46

Which rationale supports gene and stem cell therapy for a patient who has critical limb ischemia? Reduces pain Increases perfusion Prevents maceration Promotes angiogenesis

Answer 46

Promotes angiogenesis

Question 46

Which information would the nurse teach to a patient who has a new prescription for doxazosin? "Monitor yourself for a fast heart rate, which is a common side effect." "Make position changes slowly, especially from lying down to standing." "The medication also improves breathing by decreasing chest congestion." "It is common for patients who take this medication to experience nausea."

Answer 46

"Make position changes slowly, especially from lying down to standing."

Question 46

Which medication should be used with caution in patients with diabetes because the drug may depress the tachycardia associated with hypoglycemia? Diltiazem Metoprolol Prednisone Hydromorphone

Answer 46

Metoprolol

Question 47

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect in a patient with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? Decreased attention span Breathlessness on exertion Awakening with a feeling of suffocation A nonproductive cough that is worse when lying down

Answer 47

Awakening with a feeling of suffocation

Question 48

A patient reports fingers and toes that change color from pallor to cyanosis to rubor when exposed to cold temperatures. The patient states that, after the color changes, the digits are throbbing, achy, and tingly. Which condition would the nurse suspect? Aortic aneurysm Raynaud’s phenomenon Post-thrombotic syndrome Superficial vein thrombosis

Answer 48

Raynaud’s phenomenon

Question 49

The nurse would monitor for which major side effect in a patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for treatment of chronic heart failure? Angioedema Hypokalemia Inability to swallow Symptomatic hypertension

Answer 49

Angioedema an allergic reaction involving edema of the face and airways.

Question 50

A patient with intermittent claudication experiences pain in the leg muscles while exercising that resolves within 10 minutes after stopping. Which substance building up in the leg is causing the ischemic pain? Lactic acid Triglycerides Homocysteine Blood viscosity

Answer 50

Lactic acid

Question 51

Which term would the nurse chart in the patient’s medical record if the patient is unable to recognize familiar objects after a stroke? Alexia Agnosia Aphasia Agraphia

Answer 51

Agnosia

Question 52

How quickly does cellular death occur if blood flow to the brain is interrupted? 30 seconds 2 minutes 5 minutes 30 minutes

Answer 52

5 minutes

Question 53

An increase in _________ is one of the causes of resistant hypertension

Answer 53

obesity

Question 54

For which condition is dopamine prescribed in a patient with heart failure (HF)? Hypotension Acute anxiety Peripheral edema Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

Answer 54

Hypotension

Question 55

Which type of stroke correlates with the clinical manifestations of a severe headache, hypertension, vomiting, dysarthria, and eye movement disturbances? Embolic stroke Thrombotic stroke Intracerebral hemorrhage Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer 55

Intracerebral hemorrhage Symptoms such as headaches, high blood pressure, vomiting, dysarthria, and eye movement disturbances indicate intracerebral hemorrhage. An embolic stroke is mostly related to heart conditions such as atrial fibrillation, myocardial infarction, and infective endocarditis. A thrombotic stroke has the clinical manifestation of decreased level of consciousness in the first 24 hours. Clinical manifestations such as stiff neck and cranial nerve deficits indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Question 56

Which clinical manifestation is associated with a stroke on the right side of the brain? Impulsiveness Impaired speech Slow performance Paralyzed right side

Answer 56

Impulsiveness A patient who sustains a stroke on the right side of the brain shows impulsiveness. Impaired speech, slow performance, and a paralyzed right side occur when a patient has had a stroke on the left side of the brain.

Question 57

The nurse is assessing a patient for orthostatic hypotension. First, the nurse measured the blood pressure (BP) and heart rate (HR) with the patient in the supine position. Which action would the nurse take next? Repeat BP and HR every 15 minutes in the supine position. Ask the patient to stand, and then measure the BP and HR within 15 minutes. Move the patient to a standing position and immediately measure the BP and HR. Move the patient to a sitting position and measure the BP and HR within 2 minutes.

Answer 57

Move the patient to a sitting position and measure the BP and HR within 2 minutes.

Question 58

Which condition would the nurse check for in the patient’s history before administering cilostazol? Heart failure Diabetes mellitus Buerger disease Intermittent claudication

Answer 58

Heart failure

Question 59

A patient who has been taking clonidine for 10 years tells the nurse, "I decided to quit taking the medication a few days ago." For which manifestation would the nurse monitor this patient? Tremors Lethargy Dysphasia Bradycardia

Answer 59

Tremors

Question 60

Which condition causes the symptoms of right-sided heart failure? Decreased preload Increased cardiac output Fluid congestion in the lungs Systemic venous congestion

Answer 60

Systemic venous congestion

Question 61

Right-sided heart failure (HF) occurs when the ________________ does not pump effectively.

Answer 61

right ventricle (RV)

Question 62

Which food would be included in the diet for a patient who had a stroke and has dysphagia? Milkshakes Chicken soup Mashed potatoes Pureed cooked rice

Answer 62

Mashed potatoes Patients who had a stroke and have dysphagia have difficulty chewing and swallowing. Thus the nurse would include mashed potatoes because the food is easy to swallow and provides enough texture. Milkshakes and all milk products should be avoided because they increase the viscosity of mucus, which leads to an increase in salivation. Chicken soup is a thin liquid that may be difficult to swallow and could trigger coughing or choking. Pureed cooked rice is bland to the taste and may stick to the palate, which poses a risk for aspiration.

Question 63

The nurse provides education to a group of women about preventing hypertension. Which information would the nurse include? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Lose weight. Limit nuts and seeds. Limit sodium and fat intake. Drink fat-free or low-fat milk. Perform moderate physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days.

Answer 63

Limit sodium and fat intake. Drink fat-free or low-fat milk. Perform moderate physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days.

Question 64

The nurse expects which assessment finding in a patient with chronic heart failure (HF)? Cough that is worse upon awakening Bradycardia Flushed skin Sleep apnea

Answer 64

Sleep apnea

Question 65

Snoring and daytime sleepiness can indicate sleep ________ , a common condition with chronic HF.

Answer 65

apnea

Question 66

Which behavior would be exhibited by a patient who has suffered a right-brain stroke? Very cautious Difficulty with words Impulsive and impatient Accomplishes tasks quickly

Answer 66

Impulsive and impatient

Question 67

Which noninvasive test is used to diagnose heart failure (HF)? Chest x-ray Echocardiogram Cardiac catheterization Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Answer 67

Echocardiogram

Question 68

The nurse would monitor for which condition in a patient with left-sided heart failure? Pedal edema Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Pulmonary congestion

Answer 68

Pulmonary congestion

Question 69

When the left ventricle (LV) fails, blood backs up into the left atrium (LA). This causes fluid accumulation in the _______

Answer 69

lungs

Question 70

A patient has been prescribed atenolol. Which condition would the nurse question the patient about before administering the drug? Asthma Dry cough Depression Diabetes

Answer 70

Diabetes Atenolol is a cardioselective β1-blocker that reduces blood pressure (BP) by blocking β-adrenergic effects. It should be used with caution in patients with diabetes because it depresses the tachycardia associated with hypoglycemia and may hinder diagnosing hypoglycemia. A history of asthma, dry cough, or depression does not affect the administration of the drug. Noncardioselective β-adrenergic receptor blockers (β-blockers) should not be used in patients with asthma because of the risk of bronchospasm, but this is not the case with atenolol because it is cardioselective. Angiotensin-converting enzymes may cause a dry cough.

Question 71

When feeding a patient with a stroke on the left side, in which position would the nurse place the patient? Right lateral position Low-Fowler position High-Fowler position Trendelenburg position

Answer 71

High-Fowler position

Question 72

Which rationale explains the use of ramipril in a patient with symptomatic peripheral artery disease (PAD)? Reduces hypertension Reduces vasospastic attack Slows growth rate of aneurysm Lowers low-density lipoproteins

Answer 72

Reduces hypertension

Question 73

Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It reduces hypertension by inhibiting the production of _______________

Answer 73

angiotensin II.

Question 74

Which condition may a patient have experienced if the patient was exhibiting symptoms of a stroke for 45 minutes before the symptoms resolved? Embolic brain stroke Acute brain infarction Transient ischemic attack Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer 74

Transient ischemic attack A transient ischemic attack is a transient episode of neurologic symptoms without acute brain infarction. Symptoms typically last less than 1 hour.

Question 75

The nurse correlates which condition with the assessment findings of a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who experiences blood-tinged sputum, a productive frothy cough, and tachycardia? Cerebral edema Peripheral edema Lymphatic edema Pulmonary edema

Answer 75

Pulmonary edema

Question 76

_____ can manifest as pulmonary edema, which is an acute, life-threatening condition

Answer 76

ADHF