Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 - Psychiatry > Week 4 > Flashcards

Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What anatomical landmark on the back can be used to help guide insertion for a lumbar puncture or epidural?

A

The spinous process of the L4 vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What layers does a needle have to pass through when performing a lumbar puncture?

A

Skin

Superficial fascia

Supraspinous ligament

Interspinous ligament

Ligamentum flavum

Epidural space

Dura

Arachnoid

Subarachnoid space (site of CSF sampling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the extrinsic muscles of the back?

A

Trapezius

Latissimus dorsi

Levator scapulae

Rhomboid major and Rhomboid minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the back (collectively known as the erector spinae)?

A

Spinalis

Longissimus

Iliocostalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the features of a vertebra

A

Body

x2 pedicles

x2 laminae

Spinous process

x2 transverse processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the names of the laterally positioned sheets of pia mater that anchor the spinal cord to the arachnoid mater, located between the anterior and posterior roots?

A

Denticulate ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the name of the screening questionnaire used to screen for potential alcohol problems?

What are the 4 parts of it?

A

CAGE questionnaire

  1. have you ever felt the need to cut down on your drinking?

]2. have people annoyed you by criticising your drinking?

  1. have you ever felt guilty about drinking?
  2. have you ever felt like you needed a drink in the morning (eye opener) to steady your nerves or get rid of a hangover?

2 “yes” responses warrants further investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name of the full alcohol use disorders identification test?

What is the name of the subset of questions from this test that was developed for speedy use in emergency departments?

A

Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)

Quick version used in emergency departments - FAST screening tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would be the best treatment for this patient?

2 month history of paranoid delusions about neighbour using bluetooth device to poison the food in his fridge, auditory hallucination of his neighbour’s voice threatening to kill him, some formal thought disorder, no mood disturbance.

  • no past psychiatric history and no previous treatment for this episode
  • well-controlled type 2 DM, no acute physical illness
    1. Lithium Carbonate
    2. Risperidone
    3. Olanzapine
    4. Clozapine
    5. Mirtazapine
A
  1. Lithium carbonate is a mood stabiliser for BPD, not appropriate here
  2. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic and would be first line
  3. Olanzapine is another atypical but has a higher rate of weight gain
  4. Clozapine is a third line option used in treatment-resistant cases
  5. Mirtazapine is a MAOI used to treat depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the best description of this woman’s current mental state?

“I felt great a few weeks ago, couldn’t have been better, I’m still very restless but now feeling ill-at-ease. I’m worried that there’s something terrible wrong with me, cancer or a stroke, something like that. I can’t get the thoughts of dying a painful death out of my mind. At first I enjoyed being able to think so quickly, I had so many great ideas, now I’m still thinking fast but it’s all horrible thoughts. I can’t sit still, the nurses keep telling me to stop fidgetting and pacing about the ward but I can’t. Then I get annoyed with them and shout, which makes things worse.”

  1. Depression
  2. Mania without psychotic symptoms
  3. Hypomania
  4. Mixed affective state
  5. Cyclothymia
A
  1. Mixed affective state is symptoms of both mania/hypomania at the same time as depression, but neither predominate

She has been hospitalised, so cannot be Hypomania by definition

Cyclothymia is basically a much milder form of BPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When taking a patient history from someone with suspected Dementia, what important questions should you not forget to ask about?

A

Do you drive?

Do you have a source of money/income? - risk of being exploited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What test is used (in practice) to assess someone for Dementia?

A

Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MOCA) - in practice the Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam is used but isn’t free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common form of mental health problem in hospitalised patients over the age of 65?

A

Delirium - mean prevalence of 20% and lots of cases are missed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a patient with delirium, how might their consciousness be impaired?

A

Clouding

Drowsiness

Sopor (abnormally deep sleep)

Coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In a patient with delirium, how might their cognition be disturbed?

A

Disorientation of time but also sometimes of place and person

Impaired memory and attention

Impaired thinking

Perceptual disturbance, hallucinations and delusions (commonly visual)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In a patient with delirium, how might they experience psychomotor disturbance?

A

Hyperactive/hyperalert - agitation, disorientation, hallucinations and delusions

Hypoactive/hypoalert - confusion, sedation, misdiagnosed as depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a patient with delirium, how might their sleep-wake cycle be disturbed?

A

Insomnia

Sleep loss

Reversal of sleep cycle

Nocturnal worsening of symptoms - sundowning

Disturbing dreams and nightmares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Delirium is slow/rapid onset and has a steady and predictable/transient and fluctuating course

A

Rapid onset

transient and fluctuating course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What investigation is used to assess if a patient has likely Delirum? What are the 4 components of this test?

A

4AT

  1. alertness (normal/mild sleepiness/clearly abnormal)
  2. AMT4 - age, DoB, place, current year
  3. attention - “starting at December, work backwards”
  4. acute change or fluctuating course
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How should a patient with delirium be managed?

A
  1. Identify and treat the cause
  2. Manage the environment and provide support
  3. Prescribe - sedating drugs can worsen delirium. Alcohol withdrawal requires benzodiazepines, commonly Chlordiazepoxide or Diazepam. Otherwise, antipsychotics are standard treatment e.g. Haloperidol 1-10mg
  4. Review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How long does delirium last for?

A

Mean duration is 1-4 weeks, often longer in the elderly

Minority can become chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common neuropsychiatric complication of a stroke, seen in up to 1/3 of patients?

A

Post stroke depression

This is also seen post-MI, with 65% of patients developing depressive symptoms after heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does dementia compare to delirium and depression in terms of onset, duration, course, alertness, orientation, memory, thinking, perception, emotions and sleep?

A

Onset - insidious

Duration - months/years

Course - stable, progressive, step-wise

Alertness - normal

Orientation - normal, or impaired to place/time

Memory - recent and remote impaired

Thinking - slowed, reduced interest

Perception - hallucinations seen in 30-40%

Emotions - shallow, labile, irritable

Sleep - nocturnal wandering and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When taking a history from a patient with suspected dementia, it can be useful to take a corroborative history from a family member. What questions might you ask?

A

Functional abilities at home?

Help required to support them when at home?

Any significant cognitive, physical or emotional changes in recent weeks?

Rate and pattern of cognitive decline?

25
Q

According to SIGN guidelines on Dementia, what test should be used in individuals with suspected cognitive impairment to diagnose dementia?

How does SIGN say this initial cognitive testing can be improved?

A

SIGN states that the MMSE should be used, and to improve the initial assessment the Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam can also be used

26
Q

What is the MMSE?

What is the cut off?

A

Mini Mental State Examination

Scored out of 30, with any score greater than or equal to 24 being normal

Under 24 = cognitive impairment

Mild = 19-23

Moderate = 10-18

Severe = 9 or less

27
Q

What bedside tests can be used to determine someone’s cognitive function?

A

GPCOG

6-CIT (tests orientation, memory and corroborative history)

Clock drawing test (tests executive function, visuospatial ability, abstraction and correlates well with overall cognitive functioning)

28
Q

How is the Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Assessment (ACE) III scored?

A

Scored out of 100 with 5 domains

  • orientation and attention
  • memory
  • fluency
  • language
  • visuospatial functioning

Cut-off 88/100 = sensitivity 1.0 and specificity 0.96

Cut-off 82/100 = sensitivity 0.93 and specificity 1.0

29
Q

What test is used to differentiate between the different types of dementia?

A

Frontal Assessment Battery (FAB)

30
Q

What are the main symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease?

Which part of memory is first affected?

A

Memory loss, particularly short term

Dysphasia

Dyspraxia

Agnosia (difficulty recognising objects)

31
Q

What are the main symptoms in Vascular Dementia?

A

Dysphasia

Dyscalculia

Frontal lobe symptoms and affective symptoms (i.e. personality changes) are more common in Alzheimer’s

May have focal neurological signs

May have vascular risk factors

May have a stepwise decline

32
Q

What would a CT/MRI show in a patient with Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Normal, or possibly medial temporal lobe atrophy or temporoparietal atrophy

Variants - frontal (more visual and proprioception problems), posterior cortical atrophy (v. rare)

33
Q

What would a CT/MRI show in a patient with Vascular Dementia?

How about a SPECT scan?

A

CT/MRI - moderate-severe small vessel disease or multiple lacunar infarcts

SPECT - patchy reduction in tracer uptake throughout the brain

34
Q

What are main symptoms in Frontotemporal Dementia (Pick’s Disease)?

A

3 syndromes…

  • behavioural variant (most common), behaviour changes, executive dysfunction, disinhibition, impulsivity, loss of social skills, apathy, obsessions, change in diet
  • primary progressive aphasia - effortful non-fluent speech, speech sound/articulatory errors, lack of grammar and words
  • semantic dementia - impaired understanding of meaning of words, fluent but empty speech, difficulty retreiving names
35
Q

What is the best type of investigation for identifying frontotemporal dementia?

A

SPECT - shows frontotemporal reduction in tracer uptake

36
Q

What ar ethe main symptoms in Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Dementia - common early involvement of reduced attention, executive function and visuospatial skills

Two of the following…

  • visual hallucinations
  • fluctuating cognition (delirium-like)
  • REM sleep behaviour disorder
  • Parkinsonism
  • Positive DAT scan
37
Q

What % of patients with Parkinson’s Disease develop dementia after 15-20 years?

A

80%

38
Q

When would you use the following scans in a patient with suspected dementia?

  • CT
  • MRI
  • SPECT
  • DAT
A

CT - currently standard

MRI - if young, fast progression or other atypical features

SPECT - most useful for identifying frontotemporal dementia

DAT - if needing to clarify Parkinson’s Plus syndromes (group of conditions that cause symptoms like Parkinson’s as well as other symptoms)

39
Q

Which family of medications can be given in dementia?

Which would you give in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

In AD, donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

40
Q

Which family of medications can be given in dementia and how do they work?

Which would you give in Dementia with Lewy Bodies and Parkinsons Dementia?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors - slows cognitive decline, more effective in DLB/DPD than in Alzheimer’s, work by increasing amount of ACh in the synapse but don’t affect the underlying disease process

Rivastigmine, donepezil

41
Q

What are some of the side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?

Are they more effective in Alzheimer’s disease or DLB/DPD?

A

Side effects - GI (nausea and diarrhoea most common), headache, muscle cramps, bradycardias, worsen COPD/asthma

More effective in treating DLB/DPD

42
Q

When are cholinesterase inhibitors contraindicated?

A

Not with an active peptic ulcer or severe asthma/COPD

43
Q

What drug is specifically licensed for Alzheimer’s to slow cognitive decline?

What side effects might it cause?

A

Memantine - acts on NMDA receptors to prevent glutamate from binding

Start in moderate dementia

Largely well-tolerated, but may cause hypertension, sedation, dizziness, headache, constipation

44
Q

How is the issue of driving managed in patients with dementia?

Who gets to decide if the patient can drive while the investigations are ongoing?

A

Always need to discuss the issue of driving at diagnosis in patients with dementia

Must be reported to the DVLA, patient fills in a CG1 form

DVLA request a report from the doctor - doctor decides if the patient can still drive during investigation

The Rookwood Driving Battery is used (more specific version of the ACE)

45
Q

Other than cholinesterase inhibitors, what other medication should be considered in all patients with dementia?

A

Antidepressants +/- adjuncts

46
Q

What are the triad of impairments seen in autistic spectrum disorders?

A

1. Qualitative impairments in reciprocal social interaction

  • may find relationships difficult to establish
  • may not be motivated by the need for social approval
  • may show no interest in the needs of others
  • may show little awareness of the feelings of others

2. Language and impairment deficits

  • may have no speech
  • may have difficulty using pronouns, interpreting similies and metaphors
  • stress, pitch, rhythm and intonation of speech may be odd
  • may have difficulty interpreting non-verbal communication
  • may have a peculiar stiff-eyed gaze, or no eye contact at all

3. Thought and behaviour

  • restricted, repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behaviour, interests and activities
  • resistance to change
  • lack of social imagination/theory of mind
  • concrete and inflexible thinking
  • ritualistic behaviours ‘stereotypes’
47
Q

What comorbidities may be seen in someone with an autistic spectrum disorder?

A

Learning disabilities

Depression and social anxiety

OCD

ADHD

Dyspraxia

48
Q

Managing an individual with an ASD requires multiagency input. Which AHPs might be involved in their care?

A

SLT - language disorders/impairment

Psychology (educational/clinical)

Psychiatry - ADHD, complex or late presentations etc.

Occupational therapy - if dyspraxic or sensory defensiveness

Paediatrics - if globally delayed

Social work - if abusive or struggling families

49
Q

What assessment methods are there for detecting autism?

A

Screeners (Social Responsiveness Scale), used in people aged 4-18

Semi-structured interviews (3di - Developmental, Dimensional and Diagnostic Interview)

DISCO - Diagnostic Interview for Social and Communication Disorders

Standardised assessment tools (Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule, ADOS)

50
Q

According to the DSM-IV-TR, how many symptoms must be present for an ASD to be diagnosed?

A

At least 6 symptoms

Including at least 2 symptoms of qualitative impairment in social interaction, at least one symptom of qualitative impairment in communicaiton, and at least one symptom of restricted and repetitive behaviour

51
Q

What are the main pharmacological mechanisms of managing an ASD?

A

Principles - agree on the symptoms to target, monitor side effects and duration

Risperidone - used in the short term to manage significant aggression, tantrums or self-injury

Methylphenidate - treats symptoms of ADHD

Melatonin - endogenous hormone that is secreted by the pineal gland and may be considered in case of sleep problems

52
Q

What is the diagnostic triad of ADHD?

A

Inattention

Hyperactivity

Impulsivity

53
Q

What comorbidities may be seen alongside ADHD?

A

Social communication difficulties

Learning disabilities

Attachment difficulties

Mood and anxiety problems

Behavioural disorders

Substance abuse

54
Q

What is the rough prevalence of ADHD?

A

Somewhere between 4 and 6%

So its very common, but still underdiagnosed

55
Q

What questionnaires may be used to aid in diagnosing ADHD?

A

Screening questionnaires (SDQ - strength and difficulties questionnaire, part of the development and well-being assessment DAWBA family of mental health measures)

Structured diagnostic questionnaires (Conners Rating Scale, ADHD rating scale)

56
Q

ADHD can be treated with both Psychological and Pharmacological therapies.

What are the 1st and 2nd line Psychological treatments?

A

1st line - parent training (New Forest Parenting Programme), behavioural classroom management strategies

2nd line - social skills training, sleep and diet: elimination and supplements

57
Q

ADHD can be treated with both Psychological and Pharmacological therapies.

What are the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th line Pharmacological treatments?

A

1st line (stimulants) - methylphenidate (Ritalin), dexamfetamine, lisdexamfetamine

2nd line (SNRIs) - atomoxetine (noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor)

3rd line (alpha agonists) - clonidine, guanfacine

4th line - antidepressants, antihypertensives, antipsychotics

58
Q

How does methylphenidate (Ritalin) work?

Is medication effective in managing ADHD?

A

Improves the actions of catecholamines in the brain by blocking dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake

Medication is unusually effective (numbers needed to treat for methylphenidate, amfetamine and atomoxetine are only 4)

Year 3 - Psychiatry (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions