Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is the Comprehensive Psychiatric assessment important?

A
  • Performing a holistic, comprehensive and accurate assessment is a core skill of the mental health nurse
  • The assessment process is dynamic and evolving in response to the client’s presentation, dependent on the venue and the ability of the clinician to engage the client.
  • Assessments can be classified as formal/structured or informal, incorporating specialist assessment tools.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of the comprehensive assessment?

A
  • Communicate, identify and clarify the client’s health issues?
  • Assess the client’s physical health status and exclude organic causes
  • Identify personal/family and social supports that can be utilized in collaborative care and treatment planning provides the client/carers the opportunity to express their distress/concern while engaging in the assessment process.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the outcome of the comprehensive assessment?

A

Upon completion of the comprehensive assessment a ‘provisional’ diagnosis can be established based on the data gathered with reference to the appropriate criteria set out in DSM-4-TR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the comprehensive assessment consist of?

A

Reason for referral; Current living arrangements; presenting problem; history of presenting problem; family history; personal history; education; occupational; relationships/sexual; children and parenting; forensic history; previous or current illness; personality; safety and risks; and substance use &/or misuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the reason for refusal in the comprehensive psychiatric assessment consist of?

A

Who referred the client and Why? Referrers can be self, family, friends, GP’s, private health professionals or authorities (police, courts, employers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the presenting problem part of the comprehensive psychiatric assessment consist of?

A

What are the events that led to the clients presentation? The subjective explanation, experiences and emotional factors will give the MHN opportunities to by completed MSE and screening tools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the History of Presenting Problem consist of in the comprehensive psychiatric assessment?

A

The duration and global impact of mental health issues will be explored and chronological order will be established. Previous history, interventions, and treatments will be examined and efficacy of these will be established. Past professional treatments will be explored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the family history consist of in the comprehensive psychiatric assessment?

A

Is there a family history of mental illness, suicide, substance and or ETCH abuse or medical conditions? Events of trauma such as war, long hospitalisations, divorce, infedelity, familial conflicts and estrangements are examples. Parental and sibling relationship factors need exploring also. Genograms should detail and highlight these factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does personal history consist of in the comprehensiveul psychiatric assessment?

A

Developmental - Were there any known delays in walking, talking, or socializing? Presence of seperation issues and earliest memories of the client. Did they attend pre-school? were there any developmental delays, especially for younger clients?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the education consist of in the comprehensive psychiatric assessment?

A

Primary and Secondary schooling. Highest academic achievement. Peer group, isolation and possibility of bullying. Ability to make and keep friendships, was there a history of bullying. Attendance and or behavioral issues. Suspensions, expulsions or failed subjects, frequent change of school.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the Occupational consist of in the comprehensive psyschiatric assessment?

A

What is the client’s current occupation and length of job? Blue or white collar Job? Recent changes of position or colleague and/or employer conflicts. Shift work and impact on wake/sleep cycles?Have there been multiple Job changes, if so Why?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the relationships/sexual component consist of in the comprehensive psychiatric assessment?

A

Is the client currently in a relationship? Are there past sexual abuses/s, rape/s, De-facto, marriage/s (open and closed), & brief sexual liaisons? Are safe sex practices used? Are there previous STI’s or associated conditions? What sexual orientation does the client have? Manic phase can have multiple sexual partners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is required when conducting an MSE?

A
  • Accuracy and clarity of the MSE depends on the interpersonal facets, attitude, experience, observational and interviewing skills of the nurse
  • When inconguruence exists, the nurse can descretley observe the client to validate their subjective Vs Objective presentation.
  • Interviews can conducted in a variety of settings. The preference is for areas that ensure optimal privacy and dignity.
  • Confidentiality should be maintained and where possible consent obtained by the client. Dependent on the risk issues and in accordance with relevant MHA protocols, necessary information can be given to given persons perceived to be at harm from the client.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the components of the MSE?

A

perception; Affect/Mood; Motor activity/behavior; Speech/Language; general appearance; Orientation; Thought Process/Content; Judgement; Intellectual Functioning; Memory; Insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Acronym for the MSE?

A

PAMSGOTJIMI

P- Perception
A- Affect/mood
M- Motor activity/behaviour
S- Speech/Language
G- General appearance
O- Orientation
T- Thought process/content
J- Judgement
I- Intellectual functioning
M- Memory
I - Insight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the general Appearance component of the MSE assess

A
  • Physical features to include are: gender, ethinicity, height, build, complexion
  • General physical condition and nutritional status
  • Posture
  • Gait
  • Mannerisms and/or Tics
  • Any physical deformities and abnormalities, including tatoos, scars and piercings
  • Grooming/Dress
  • Facial expression
  • Eyes - clear, bloodshot or ‘glazed’ N.B - dilated pupils are sometimes associated with drug intoxication, pupil constriction - narcotic addiction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the Motor Activity/Behaviour compluonent of the MSE assess?

A
  • Co-operative/Unco-operative with interview process
  • Sociable and easy to engage or guarded and suspicious, hyper vigilant
  • Consistent or unpredictable displays of behaviours
  • Spontaneous in their interactions and displaying initiative or passive with minimal responses
  • Eye contact (take culture into consideration)
  • Restless, pacing, psycho motor agitation or retardation, hand wringing, bizarre movements or motor or vocal tics
  • Anxious with associated tremor
  • Over familiar and inappropriate behaviour opposed to withdrawn
  • Hostile, threatening or intimidatory behaviour - intruding into personal space.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the speech component of the MSE assess?

A

The major components of speech are as follows

  • Rate - slow, rapid, fluent or normal
  • Volume - Loud, soft, incoherent, coherent or normal
  • Tone - Monotonous, clear, accent, normal
    The client may be articulate with a broad vocabulary or simplistic.

During an MSE observe the following:

  • Pressure of speech - fast, hard to interrupt and understand, difficult to interrupt and can be loud
  • Poverty of speech - Depressed
  • Mutism - Total absence of speech
  • Stuttering - Vocal tics
  • Slurred speech
  • Whispered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the Mood/Affect component of the MSE assess?

A

Mood describes the internal feeling or emotion, which often influences behaviour and the individuals perception of the world. The clients self report (subjective) of their mood is an essential part of the MSE

Affect refers to the external emotional response of the client. The interviewers (objective) determines what is the observed emotional response of the client

Both aspects provide clarity in diagnosing the client. This leads to the client displaying Congruent or incongruant mood and affect.

  • Describe and note whether the emotional response is appropriate given the subject being discussed.
  • some terms of mood include: euthymic, depressed, happy, sad, anxious, angry
  • Some terms of affect include: reactive, restricted, blunted, and flat. Other decriptive terms are: dysthymic, labile, inappropriate, elated, euphoric, perplexed and fatuous.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the Perception component of the MSE assess?

A

Hallucinations - are defined as false sensory perceptions in which the individual sees, hears, smells, senses, or tastes something that other people do not.

Hallucinations can occur in the absence of psychosis. They can occur when falling asleep - hypogogic. they can occur when awakening - hypopompic.

The different types of hallucinations are
Auditory - non verbal or verbal (most common type of perceptual disturbance)
Visual - sees images, objects or persons
Olfactory - smells non existant things
Gustatory - centred on the sense of taste
tactile - relates to touch or skin surface sensations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are other types of perceptual disturbances other than hallucinations?

A

Derealisation; depersonalisation; heightened perception; dulled perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does derealisation mean?

A

External world unfamiliar and the client may feel disconnected from surroundings. The surroundings can be seen as without colour or dreary. Things seem unfamiliar, dull or boring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Depersonalisation mean?

A

Self perception is distorted and unfamiliar. The client feels unreal or dysmorphic. Severe depersonalisation can manifest in the client believing they are dead. Like an out of body experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does heightened perception mean?

A

Present as being extremely vivid. sounds and sights can be amplified or exaggereated with great attention to detail. Thing become more vivid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does Dulled Perception mean?

A

Present as being flat, dark and drab. Sounds and sights can feel ‘dirty’ or tastes are blunted. Excludes lack of interest in things. common in depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the thought process/content component of the MSE assess?

A

Refers to the way in which an individual puts together ideas and is observed through the clients pattern of speach

Assessment of this domain follows 3 main categories.
rate of production; continuity of ideas; disturbance in language (jumbled thoughts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is assessed in the rate of production in the process/content domain of the MSE?

A

Rate of production

  • flight of ideas
  • poverty of ideas (so jumbled, can’t orientate)
  • slowed or hesitant thinking
  • vague/perplexed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is assessed in the continuity of ideas in the process/content domain of the MSE?

A
  • Tangetiality
  • Circumstantiality (going around in clircles before answering)
  • Loosening of associations (no direct links_
  • Thought blocking (Difficulty getting the thought out)
  • Poverty of thought
  • Thought insertion/thought withdrawal (Thought insertion - can put thoughts into others; Thought withdrawal - others can read their thoughts)
  • thought broadcasting
  • Formal thought disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is assessed in the disturbance in language in the process/content domain of the MSE?

A
  • Perseveration
  • Language disturbance - punning
  • Neologisms (made up words)
  • Clang associations
  • Word salad (jumbled up in a big mes)
  • Echolalia (repeats words or phrases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is assessed in the Perception component of the MSE?

A

Assessment centres on the following:

Delusions - are a false and firm belief held by the client despite objective evidence to challange the client and that is not accepted within cultural expectations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the most common type of delusions?

A

There are many forms of delusions and the main delusions associated with Schizophrenia are

  • Delusions of Persicusion
  • Delusional mood
  • Delusions of reference
  • Delusions of control, influence or passivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the levels of Consciousness?

A

Fully, Semi or unconscious. Overdose, substance intoxication or organic mental disorders can contribute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 areas of the memory?

A

3 areas of memory assessment are immediate, recent and remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is assessed in Orientation?

A

Orientation is assessed by current time, place and person. Impairment can indicate organic brain disease. Impairments are usually detected in this order and resolve in reverse order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is assessed in the orientation and memory component of the MSE?

A
  • Levels of consciousness (fully, semi or unconscious)
  • Memory (immediate, recent and remote)
  • Orientation is assessed by current time, place and person
  • Attention and concentration
  • Abstract thinking ( Linking ideas to develop a conceptual view. Meanings of proverbs are tested)
36
Q

What does the judgement component of the MSE assess?r ni

A

Involves the clients decision making processes

Is the client aware of the realistic consequences of their decisions and actions?
Explore whether the client has acted impulsively or in a deliberate manner.
Both past and current facets of judgement are assessed.
Assess and identify factors that alter judgement which can include, intoxication, drug and/or ETCH withdrawal, hypomania, psychosis and personality issues are good examples. How does the client adapt/cope to environmental changes?

37
Q

What does the insight component of the MSE assess?

A
  • Insight refers to the ability for the client to display an awareness of their illness or situation
  • Insight can be assessed for full, good, partial (variable), poor or nil (in sightless).
  • Clients can acknowledge the presence of issue but deny responsibility for the issue but deny responsibility for the situation, this is a common occurrence in the mentally ill, substance addictions and in the intellectually impaired.
  • Levels of insight can fluctuate or remain static in response to commencing and/or adhering to treatment provided
  • Through client education and therapeutic support, levels of insight can be improved enhancing adherence to treatment recommendations.
38
Q

What does the intellectual component of the MSE assess?

A
  • the assessor during an MSE would obtain data to ‘guesstimate’ or get a ‘ball park figure’ of the clients level of intelligence
  • An IQ test is NOT part of the assessment process
  • Should an irregularity be present during the assessment, then a referral for further testing by a psychologist is warranted.
39
Q

What are the barriers influencing the MSE?

A

Physical environment - ED’s, police cells, public areas, lack of space and privacy, distractions such as PA systems
Age - Jargon creates barriers. Teenagers have expressions foreign to older adults. Children can feel intimidated in the presence of adults.
Cognitive state or intellectual impairments - memory deficits, confusion, disorientation or complex questions can create inaccuracies, hence the need for further testing (MMSE)
- Culture and English barriers - some cultures have a gender imbalance or encourage behaviours that can distort the MSE validity eg. Japanese women avert their eyes during conversation. Some cultures do not acknowledge mental illness. With NESB Clients - interpreter services are recommended
Mood affecting substances - Ice, XTC, amphetamines are good examples
Co-morbid physical condition - these need to be screened medically eg. depression can result from a number of endocrine disorders.

40
Q

How is risk assessment relevant to MHC?

A

Risk is a major reason for the client to present to Mental health care services (MHS)

the acuity of that risk will influence but not necessarily determine follow up by MHS.

41
Q

What does the nurse need to consider when assessing risk?

A

When assessing risk, the nurse needs to consider

  • Likelihood of risk happening
  • Is the risk imminent or delayed
  • Should an event happen, what is the severity

Accuracy of the risk assessment is enhanced by collateral information from the family, carers or relevant persons.

42
Q

What needs to be taken into consideration when assessing risks and managing risks?

A
  • Risks can remain static/dynamic and fluctuate in frequency and/or intensity
  • Catalysts, such as ETOH, can be primary influences on risks as inhibitions are lowered. In context on mental health care, medication adherence is important in assessing risks
  • consideration for future events needs to occur as the clients only center on risks to self or others
  • Addressing risks is a multifaceted problem. Organizations and industrial bodies have developed methods of managing risks for staff. Training, policies, guidelines and screening tools have been established.
43
Q

Risk asses obsment framework

A

Suicide/self harm - previous attempts of suicide; previous deliberate self harm; family history of suicide; major psychotic illness/condition; history of impulsivity; drug and ETOH history; history of abuse; seperated/divorced/widowed.

Current issues: presence of suicidal/self harm ideas/intent/ or a plan; access to means; Evidence of finalizing behaviours: will, financial affairs, letters of goodbye; Mental state: hopelessness, helplessness, wothlessness, anxiety or agitation, psychosis, ambivalence, sudden affect changes; intoxication; family/carer concerns, lack of supervision; Recent relationship changes; anniversary of loss/major events; role changes - job, finances.

44
Q

Aggression/ Harm to others - past history

A
  • Previous threat or violent acts
  • Forensic/offending history and below 35 years
  • Drug and/or ETOH abuse history
  • Previous poor engagement or compliance with treatment
  • previous treatment of sexual assault
45
Q

Aggression/Harm to others - current issues

A
  • Expressing the intent to harm others (esp. more vulnerable targets) or property
  • Access to weapons (knoves, gun or other items)
  • Mental state: anger, rage, jealousy, humiliation, subjective perception of danger, anxiety or agitation, ambivalence, sudden affect changes
  • Command hallucinations and/or paranoid ideation
  • Intoxification
  • Expression of plan to commit offences
  • Accidental due to confusion, inattention or misinterpretation.
46
Q

Absoconding/wandering - Past History

A
  • Previous absences from ward/home/community facilities
  • Chronic decrease of mental health issues, including wandering
  • Itinerant or homelessness
47
Q

Absoconding/wandering - current issues

A
  • Concerns, preoccupations with being in a ward, showing intent to leave
  • client and/or family lack insight into need for mental health treatment of hospital
  • External responsibilities or commitments needing attention
  • Conditions such as delirium, dementia which affect cognition and insight.
48
Q

Vulnerability - Past history

A
  • History of self-care deficits or neglect
  • History of financial problems
  • History of unstable accomodation, itinerancy or homelessness
  • Cognitive impairment - inclusive of LD and ABI, medical conditions such as epilepsy
  • Previous sexual vulnerability or abuse
  • History of personal trauma
49
Q

Vulnerability - current issues

A
  • Poor nutrition/hygiene/hydration
  • Acute confusion
  • Current accommodation issues
  • No insight into mental disorder towards ability to perform ADL’s
  • Dis-inhibited/overtly sexual behaviour
  • Dissociative state
  • Absence of adequate supervision for client with this risk
50
Q

Non-adherance/Non-compliance - Past History

A
  • History of poor adherence/compliance
  • cognitive impairment - attention and concentration deficits most obvious
  • Lack of understanding about treatment
  • Negativity about the outcomes of treatment, chronicity of the condition
51
Q

Non Adherence/Non compliance - Current issues

A
  • Poor engagement with treatment or relationship with clinicians
  • presence of side effects
  • Impaired or no insight
  • Negative symptoms or mental illness
  • Issues with mental health status
52
Q

Substance abuse - past history

A
  • Social networks or peer group have strong links to substance abuse
  • Substance availability
  • Established patterns of substance use (daily Vs. bingeing)
  • Concurrent drug and ETOH usage
53
Q

Substance abuse - Current issues

A
  • Symptoms of drug withdrawal
  • Current degree of dependence, abuse, misuse
  • Reasons for use - avoidance, physical reliance, euphoria
  • Financial factors
54
Q

Fire risk - past history and current issues

A

Past history
- Previous incidents or offences of arson
Cognitive impairment

Current issues

  • Heavy smoker
  • Fascination with fire
55
Q

Falls risk - Past history and current issues

A

Past History

  • Falls in previous six months
  • Postural hypotension’
  • Poor mobility or gait disturbance

Current Issues

  • Sedation
  • Severley agitated/confused and resistive
  • Frail
56
Q

Medical conditions - Past history and Current issues

A

Past history

  • History of medical conditions, allergies, drug interaction or reaction
  • Age on onset
  • Recent childbirth status
  • History of swallowing problems (dysphagia)
  • concurrent drug and ETOH usage

Current Issues

  • current medical conditions, allergies, drug interactions or reactions
  • Typical anti-psychotic medications
  • Peri-natal period
  • Choking or swallowing difficulties.
57
Q

Other risks or issues

A
  • engagement in treatment
  • sense of safety whilst care is provided
  • Impulse control
  • coping mechanisms for stress management
  • Conflict resolution skills
  • resilience (this can vary)
  • Sense of purpose/responsibility
  • Connectedness
  • Personal beliefs/spirituality
  • General health
  • support services/frameworks accessible to the client
  • Support from family and carers. NB. This can regress, if the supports cannot access support for themselves.
  • Other, such as isolation.
58
Q

What is the definition of violence and aggression

A

Department of Health Victoria (2004) defines Violence and aggression as any incident where a person is abused, threatened or assaulted.

59
Q

What is the definition of a threat?

A

Threat is a statement or behaviour that causes a person to believe they are in danger, which may involve an actual or implied threat to safety, health or well being.

60
Q

What is thie definition of a physical attack?

A

Physical attack means the direct or indirect application of force by a person to the body of, or clothing or equipment worn by, another person, where that application creates a risk to health or safety

61
Q

is a threat relevant?

A

The intent or the ability to carry out the threat is relevant, the key issue is that the behaviour creates a risk to health and safety.

62
Q

What is violence?

A
  • Violence can be internal or self directed and/or can be external or projected towards another
  • Violence may be physical, verbal or non verbally displayed.
63
Q

What is an aggressive personality?

A

An aggressive personality describes patterns of behaviour where frustrations are expressed through displays of irritability, impulsivity, destructiveness and/or assaults - verbal, physical, emotional or sexual. The client would take measures to intimidate another to get their needs met.

64
Q

Assessment s of the aggresive client

A
  • The most accessible and effective therapeutic tool in the assessment of a client is you
  • The client needs to know who you are and what your role is
  • MHN’s have an array of verbal and non verbal skills that can defuse the situation. A calm and controlled response rather than trying to talk over the client is recommended
  • During a potentially volatile ,situation, the nurse aims to ensure the client is aware of their potential distress, that they are in a safe environment and that the nurse wants to understand and attempt to find a resolution with them.
  • Effective communication channels are improved by simple clear statements ad attitudes of being honest, interested in the clients welfare, with a genuine desire to find common ground.
  • Avoid personal judgements of the client or terms that are confusing to them. Additionally, separate the person from their behaviour
  • Orient the client to areas where you can be flexible and inflexible along with the reason why you need to refuse a request. Set limits to inappropriate behaviour.
  • Offer options for resolution allowing the client dignity to save face rather than encourage an embarrassing event for the client.
  • Minimize external stimulus such as lights, noises, activity or numerous staff trying to control the situation
  • Paraphrasing the clients comments “so you say that you don’t understand why you are in hospital, am I correct in what you have said” Facilitate shared understanding of the issue.
65
Q

How do you predict aggression in a client?

A

The most obvious predictor of future aggression is the clients past history of aggression.

Prevention of violence is paramount and reasonable efforts need to occur to prevent an escalation in potential physical aggression.

66
Q

What are mechanical restraints?

A
  • Mechanical restraint Section 81(1A) of the (Victorian) Mental health Act (1986) defines mechanincal restraints as:

The application of devices (including belts, harnesses, manacles, sheets and straps) on the person’s body to restrict his or her movement, but does not include the use of furniture (including beds with cot and chairs with tables fitted on their arms) that restrict the person’s capacity to get off the furniture.

67
Q

when is the use of mechanical restraints justified?

A

Any form of restraint can only result if risks are imminent and unable to be resolved in a less restrictive manner

68
Q

Under what circumstances can mechanical restraints be used?

A
  • Restraint may be used for the purpose of medical treatment of the person
  • Prevent imminent injury to themselves, others
  • Prevent persistant destruction of property

IN THE EVENT OF A PSYCHIATRIC EMERGENCY - MHA LEGISLATION

69
Q

What are the nursing and medical considerations for a client under mechanical restraints?

A
  • Clients mechanically restrained must be monitored by a RN at all times
  • Must be reviewed as clinically appropriate to the clients condition every 15 minutes
  • Be examined by a medical practitioner at intervals no longer than 4 hours
  • Provided with appropriate food/drink/clothing and toileting arrangements
70
Q

What is the role of the manager in a mechanically restrained client?

A
  • One nurse/manager controls the team at all times and is responsible to ensure that all members are aware of their role and each team member can continue with the role
  • A vital role of the manager is to remind the client that they are safe and in hospital. During events such as a restraint, the client can become dieorientated and traumatised by this process. It is crucial that the lead/manager is the only person communicating to the client during this occassion
71
Q

What must be done with the client post mechanical restraining?

A

Post the restraint the client MUST be offered debriefing to make sense of their traumatic experience and to reestablish the therapeutic relationship.

72
Q

What must happen with nursing staff post client mechanically being restrained?

A

Nursing staff are also affected by the restraint therefore access and utilization of debriefing/clinical supervision to supportively explore the situation needs to occur.

73
Q

when does mechanical restraints not used?

A

Emergency measures such as restraint and seclusion cannot be implemented in a punitive manner or to teach the client a lesson

74
Q

During mechanical restraint,if a medical incident occurs, which takes precedence?

A

If a client requires urgent medical attention, duty of care is the relevant catalyst to treatment

75
Q

In regards to Seclusion what does the Victorian MHA (1986 ) section 82 chief psychiatrist of Victoria state?

A

seclusion is an emergency intervention that may only be used if it is necessary to protect the health and safety of the person involved or the health and safety of others

76
Q

What is the defining seclusion under S 82(1) of the Victorian MHA (1986)?

A

seclusion is the sole confinement of a person at any hour of the day or night in a room of which the doors and windows are locked from the outside. It is the deliberate isolation of a patient under circumstances the person is not able to reverse. Any confinement of a person that meets this definition is seclusion, even if the patient agrees to or requests such confinements.

77
Q

When can a client be secluded?

A
  • Seclusion can only be instituted as a last resort and when all alternatives have been exhausted. It is a clinically based decision.
  • Seclusion is necessary to protect the person from immediate or imminent risk to his safety or to prevent the person from absconding.
78
Q

What must happen while a client is in seclusion?

A
  • The client in seclusion must be reviewed as clinically appropriate to clients condition every 15 minutes
  • Be examined by a medical practitioner at intervals no longer than 4 hours
  • Provided with appropriate food/drink/clothing/bedding and toileting arrangements.
79
Q

Who can authorise seclusion?

A

Only 3 people are authorised: Associate charge nurse, psych registrars and consultant psychiatrists.

80
Q

What is the opinion in regards to seclusion?

A

Mixed opinions on the practice and some clients have reported positive outcomes from being secluded

81
Q

What must happen for all staff and the client after a seclusion incident?

A

Essential for all members of staff and the client to be debriefed after the incident.

82
Q

What must the client be monitored for during and post seclusion?

A

Clients need to be monitored for evidence of post crisis depression during and after seclusion at intervals no less than 15 minutes apart.

83
Q

What emergency management medications orally are there?

A

Benzodiazepines - Diazepam, Clonazepam, Lorazepam, Oxazepam

Antipsychotics - Olanzapine (wafer form preferable)

84
Q

What emergency management medications intra muscular injections are there?

A

Olanzapine (IMI)

Zuclopenthixol Acuphase - Generally lasts for 3 days and has desired side effect of sedation.

85
Q

What are the most common sites for IMI?

A

Gluteus Maximus, thigh, deltoid. Gluteus is used most often as it is a big muscle.