Week 3 & 4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

glasgow coma score

A

Eye opening, verbal response, motor response; total score is 3-15
• Mild – 13-15 with negative CT/MRI findings
• Moderate – 9-12 or 13-15 with positive radiological findings (i.e. fracture)
• Severe – 3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1 mmHg PaCO2 increase CBF by ___

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1*C rise in temp increases CMRO2 (cerebral metabolic rate of O2) by ___

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

does concussion cause structural abnormality

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 signs of basilar skull fracture

A

Raccoon’s eye – frontal fossa
Hemotympanum (blood in ear) – middle fossa
Battle’s sign (behind ear) – posterior fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

subdural hematoma location

A
  • Between arachnoid and dura mater; torn bridging veins;

* Needs urgent intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

epidural hematoma location

A

focal injury of meningeal artery, often seen with skull fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

above what ICP do you start treatment for cerebral edema

A

20 mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CPP =

A

MAP - ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cushing triad

A

increased BP, decrease HR, decreased RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

uncal cerebral herniation
What is it
What does it cause

A

side of brain down into cerebellar area = CN3 palsy, contralateral motor deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

subfalcine cerebral herniation
What is it
What does it cause

A

to other hemisphere – problems with ACA causing contralateral leg paresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

transcalvarial cerebral herniation
What is it
What does it cause

A

outside, skull fracture

usually lethal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

diffuse axonal injury

A

result of traumatic shearing forces that occur when the head is rapidly accelerated or decelerated, as may occur in car accidents, falls, and assaults, often with loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

risk factors for atheroma

A

HTN
smoking
diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pathophysiology of small vessel disease

A

lipohyalinosis or microatheroma due to HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 types of stroke

A

cerebral infarction / ischemic

hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hypotensive watershed stroke

A

period of hypotension (i.e. due to cardiac arrest) can lead to ischemia in two areas: between the middle and posterior cerebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

intracranial venous thrombosis

A

blood clot in vein, from surgery, infection, tumor; results headaches, seizures, confusion, raised ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MCA stroke symptoms

A

arm and face weakness and sensory loss
language disorder if on dominant side
contralateral hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ACA stroke symptoms

A

leg predominant weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PCA stroke symptoms

A

vision - contralateral homonymous hemianopia
thalamic syndrome
locked in syndrome if basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lacunar stroke (5 symptoms)

A
pure motor hemiparesis
ataxic hemiparesis
clumsy hand
pure sensory
sensorimotor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pure motor hemiparesis

A

internal capsule lesion

face, arm and leg weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ataxic hemiparesis

A

motor hemiparesis with cerebellar ataxia on that side, could be lesion in posterior internal capsule, midbrain or pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dysarthria clumsy hand

A

dysarthria with tongue and face weakness with hand clumsiness on the same side, basilar pons lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pure sensory

A

hemisensory loss of superficial sensation, usually from thalamic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

contraindications for thrombolysis in stroke

A
onset > 4.5 hours
no motor deficit
PMH of epilepsy or ICH
recent LP, surgery or pregnancy
BP > 185/110
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the most common COD following stroke

A

ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

anterior circulation TIA

A

o Amaurosis fugax (fleeting blindness) – in one eye ‘like a shutter coming down’
o Aphasia, or other language problems such as dyslexia or dysgraphia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

posterior circulation TIA

A

o Homonymous visual field loss (same side of both eyes)
o Brainstem symptoms: vertigo, diplopia, dysphagia
o Bilateral weakness or sensory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage symptoms

A

o Sudden severe headache - ‘as if hit by a bat’
o Transient loss of consciousness and vomiting
o Neck stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage pathophysiology

A

rupture of an intracranial aneurysm into subarachnoid space that is usually full of CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Epidural hematoma shape on imaging

A

convex bulge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Subdural Hematoma on imagine

A

crescent shape that follows bumpy contours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

rule of pupil

A

if pupil is dilated –> means aneurysm rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most common etiology of hemorrhage is _____ and occurs in _______

A

HTN

deep cerebral nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pale infarct usually occurs due to _____

A

arterial occlusion

39
Q

hemorrhagic infarct usually occurs due to ____

A

venous occlusion

40
Q

hemorrhagic transformation of pale infarct occurs due to ____

A

reperfusion injury

41
Q

timing of neuronal ischemia

what occurs 12-48 hours?

A

eosinophilic swelling

red neurons

42
Q

timing of neuronal ischemia

what occurs 24-72 hours?

A

neutrophilic infiltate

43
Q

timing of neuronal ischemia

what occurs 3-5 days

A

macrophages infiltrate

44
Q

timing of neuronal ischemia

what occurs 1-2 weeks?

A

gliosis

45
Q

timing of neuronal ischemia

what occurs after 2 weeks?

A

glial scarring

46
Q

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

A

amyloid positive multiple lobar parenchymal hemorrhages in elderly patient

47
Q

object relations theory

A

we tend to re-enact these internalized relationships later in life, especially those relationship patterns that are conflicted or have repressed, unresolved painful feelings

48
Q

which brain structure controls inappropriate and impulse aggression from subcortical brain

A

frontal cortex

49
Q

what brain structure ides inhibitory control over the amygdala

A

prefrontal cortex

50
Q

which neurotransmitter facilitates aggression

A

dopamine

51
Q

which neurotransmitters inhibit aggression

A

serotonin and epinephrine

52
Q

negative cognitive triad

A
  • Negative self-concept
  • Negative view of the world
  • Negative view of the future
53
Q

syntonic

A

something is felt to be acceptable, harmonious, and consistent with one’s self-concept

54
Q

alloplastic

A

coping with conflict by trying to change environment and others instead of one’s self

55
Q

what diseases are in cluster A and what is the typical descriptor

A

paranoid
schizoid
schizotypal

odd or eccentric

56
Q

what diseases are in cluster B and what is the typical descriptor

A

antisocial
borderline
histrionic
narcissistic

dramatic, emotional, erratic

57
Q

what diseases are in cluster C and what is the typical descriptor

A

avoidant
dependent
OCPD

anxious or fearful

58
Q

examples of mature defense mechanisms (5)

A

Altruism, Humor, Sublimation, Suppression, Anticipation

59
Q

examples of immature defense mechanisms (4)

A

Acting Out, Somatization, Passive-Aggressive Behavior, Regression

60
Q

disruptive mood dysregulation criteria

A
  • 3 or more symptoms per week of temper/mood disorders
  • occur in at least 2 of 3 settings (i.e., home, school, with peers), and are present for at least 12 months (cannot go 3 or more consecutive months without the symptoms)
  • Age of onset <10 yrs, but dx should not be made for the first time <6 or >18
61
Q

major depressive disorder criteria

A

5 or more symptoms in 2 weeks
depressed mood, loss of interest, change in weight, sleep disturbance, loss of energy, worthless, guilt, suicide thoughts

62
Q

dysthymia criteria

A

persistent depressive disorder

depressed mood most of the time for 2 years

63
Q

adjustment disorder criteria

A

emotional/behavioral symptoms in response to stressor, within 3 months butnot more than 6 months after stressor

64
Q

bipolar 1 criteria

A

at least 1 manic episode of abnormally elevated or irritable mood, increase in goal-directed activity, last at least 1 week and includes 3 or more DIGFAST

65
Q

bipolar 2 criteria

A

at least 1 hypomanic episode and 1 MDD episode

hypomanic - shorter (4 days), not cause decrease in function

66
Q

cyclothymic disorder

A

chronic fluctuating mood disturbance that has occurred for at least 2 years

67
Q

biochemical etiologies of bipolar

A

increased dopamine
amygdala changes
family history

68
Q

predictors that mood swings may be bipolar

A

early age of onset
depression before age 25
parental bipolar before age 21
hypomania on antidepressants

69
Q

what should you think of elderly person with first time onset of bipolar

A

personality disorder

70
Q

lower motor neuron injury

A

flaccid paralysis, decreased reflexes, absent Babinski, atrophic with fasciculations

71
Q

upper motor neuron injury

A

spastic paralysis, increased reflexes, present Babinski, non-atrophic without fasciculations

72
Q

kennedy’s disease

A

X linked spinobulbar muscular atrophy

CAG repeat expansion in exon 1 of androgen receptor
Mid-life progressive weakness of limb and bulbar muscles with no UMN signs

73
Q

werdnig-hoffman disease

A

spinal muscular atrophy

Mutation in SMN1 gene on chromosome 5

LMN signs only (Type 0 – fatal in utero, Type 1 – severe, Type 2-4 mild)

74
Q

acute polyneuropathy

A
  • Stocking and glove distribution of sensory loss
  • Balance difficulties
  • Atrophy of intrinsic hand and foot muscles
75
Q

guillian barre

A

(acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy)

Motor ascending weakness, autonomic disturbance, decreased reflexes
Demyelinating with perivascular lymphocyte infiltrate
Preceding infection with campylobacter, CMV, EBV, mycoplasma

76
Q

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

A

Chronic, multiphasic illness, often with at least partial recovery between bouts
Steroids do work

77
Q

porphyria

A
  • Related to hemoglobin synthesis, HMBS enzyme
  • Motor (arm), autonomic and minimal sensory loss
  • Axonal degeneration
78
Q

diphtheria

A
  • Cranial nerve onset that is mixed motor and sensory

- Demyelinating disorder without inflammation; from c. diphtheria exotoxin

79
Q

myasthenia gravis antibodies

A

anti-Ach, anti-MuSK

80
Q

myasthenia gravis symptoms

A
  • Fatigue, bulbar weakness (dysarthria, dysphagia, ptosis), respiratory depression
  • Decrease in nerve response to stimulation over time
81
Q

lambert-eaton syndrome

A
  • Antibodies to the calcium channels, sometimes seen as a remote effect of cancer
  • Strength increased with effort; usually hip girdle weakness
82
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

A

Severe, childhood onset
X linked recessive mutation in dystrophin = absent dystrophin protein

  • Proximal muscle weakness before distal
  • Toe walking, falls, lumbar hyperlordosis, Gowers sign (uses arms to stand)
  • Atrophy, contractures, respiratory disorders
83
Q

Becker’s muscular dystrophy

A
  • Like Duchenne’s but more mild, longer life span
  • Still partially functioning dystrophin (10-40%)
  • Progressive muscle weakness starting in hips, pelvis and shoulders
84
Q

Myotonic muscular dystrophy symptoms

A

adult onset

  • Hatchett face, ptosis, thin, frontal blading
  • Distal weakness worse than proximal
  • Dysphagia, respiratory problems, myotonia
85
Q

Myotonic muscular dystrophy genetics

A

AD, type 1 CTG expansion I myotonin PK on Chr 19; type 2 CCTG repeat
“anticipation” due to CTG repeat in CNBP

86
Q

______ neuropathy shows a reduction in conduction velocity in electrophysiology

A

Demyelinating

87
Q

______ neuropathy shows a reduction in amplitude in electrophysiology

A

Axonal

88
Q

Parkinson’s disease symptoms

A

hypokinetic, resting tremor, bradykinesia, muscular rigidity (increased muscle tone), and postural instability (imbalance)

89
Q

Parkinson’s disease deposits

A

Lewy bodies

deposits of α-synuclein in substantia nigra of basal ganglia

90
Q

Huntington’s disease symptoms

A

hyperkinetic, rapid jerks and twitches, chorea, athetosis, dementia that can become very severe

91
Q

Huntington’s disease genetics

A

AD Huntington gene (Htt) with CAG expansion repeat

92
Q

Fronto-temporal dementia

A

Atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes, loss of insight, judgment and social skills
Behavioral changes, language disturbance, movement disorders
Tau inclusions, TDP-43 inclusions, FUS depositions, progranulin

93
Q

Lewy body disease

A

dementia and parkinsonian symptoms, hallucinations, delusions, depression, apathy, syncope, falls, Lewy bodies (a-synuclein) low dopamine transporter uptake in basal ganglia on PET scan

94
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease

A

Caused by prion, is a transmissible spongiform (lots of vacuoles) encephalopathy -> can cause dementia

Dementia, myoclonus, involuntary movements, psychosis, memory problems, speech loss