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Week 1 & 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

agnosia

A

impaired ability to recognize/perceive objects
Associative – cannot access memory or meaning
Apperceptive – cannot perceive objects

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2
Q

apraxia

A

cannot perform skilled, purposeful tasks
Constructional – cannot build or draw
Ideation – cannot conceive how to do sequential actions
Ideomotor – cannot convert idea to task (mimic)

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3
Q

aphasia

A

language disability
Alexia – impaired reading
Agraphia – impaired writing

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4
Q

orbitofrontal syndrome

A

disinhibition (incontinence, hugging, touching, laughing) due to prefrontal cortex lesion

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5
Q

hemispatial neglect

A

parietal lobe lesion causing hemiparesis and hemisensory deficit
denial of contralateral side

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6
Q

4 things that Gerstmann’s syndrome results in

A

finger agnosia, left-right confusion, agraphia and acalculia

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7
Q

auditory association complex

A

comprehension of spoken word

• Wernicke’s area on dominant side

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8
Q

arcuate fasciculus

A

tract that connects PAC and AAC

• Corrects error during speech repetition

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9
Q

Sensory (Wernicke’s, receptive) aphasia

A
  • Difficulty understanding spoken words, but understand motion
  • Have fluent speech (full words and sentences) even if jargon
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10
Q

Motor (Broca’s, expressive) aphasia

A
  • Normal comprehension of speech but cannot articulate

* Halted speech pattern, lack of full sentences and linking words

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11
Q

conduction aphasia

A

fluent speech and good comprehension with poor repetition

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12
Q

Kluver Bucy syndrome

A

bilateral amygdala lesion causing inappropriate sexual behaviors and mouthing of objects along with emotion instability (docility, anger)

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13
Q

grey matter feature

A

neuron cell bodies

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14
Q

white matter feature

A

myelinated axons

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15
Q

spinal cord sensory area develops from ____

A

Alar plate in posterior half

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16
Q

spinal cord motor area develops from ____

A

Basal plate in anterior half

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17
Q

cells derived from neural crest (4)

A
  • Sensory neurons in peripheral nerves
  • Schwann cells
  • Postganglionic autonomic nerves
  • Enteric nerves
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18
Q

cells derived from neural tube (4)

A
  • CNS glia – astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells
  • Upper and lower motor neurons
  • Preganglionic autonomic neurons
  • Interneurons
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19
Q

anencephaly

A

absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp due to failure of rostral neuropore to close

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20
Q

encephalocele

A

sac-like protrusions of the brain and membranes through openings in the skull due to failure of rostral neuropore to close

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21
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

no herniation of intraspinal contents; often small hair tuft at defect site due to failure of caudal neuropore to close

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22
Q

meningocele

A

herniated sac contains CSF, meninges due to failure of caudal neuropore to close

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23
Q

myelomeningocele

A

herniated sac contains CSF, meninges, and cord due to failure of caudal neuropore to close

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24
Q

what is elevated in neural tube defects

A

α-fetoproteins

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25
Q

oculomotor palsy

A

affected eye will look down and out

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26
Q

trochlear palsy

A

head tilt away from lesioned side to minimize misalignment and double vision (diplopia)

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27
Q

lower motor neuron lesion of facial nerve

A

paralysis of entire face on lesioned side

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28
Q

upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve

A

paralysis of lower face only because UMN projects bilaterally

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29
Q

vagus nerve lesion

A

palate will not rise and uvula will deviate away from lesioned side when saying “ah”

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30
Q

hypoglossal nerve lesion

A

tongue will deviate towards side of injury

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31
Q

anterior cerebral artery supplies which homunculus regions

A

genitals, feet, legs and trunk

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32
Q

middle cerebral artery supplies which homunculus regions

A

arms, hands, face and tongue

also Wernicke’s and Broca’s

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33
Q

what supplies the spinal arteries

A

segmental arteries

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34
Q

anterior spinal artery is motor or sensory

A

motor

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35
Q

posterior spinal artery is motor or sensory

A

sensory

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36
Q

what integrates input and output, and has many voltage gated Na channels?

A

axon initial segment

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37
Q

dendritic spines

A

sites of excitatory synapses going into the cell
actin based
shapes controls the transmission strength

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38
Q

purkinje cells of the cerebellum send _____ signals

A

inhibitory

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39
Q

astrocytes are stained with _____

A

GFAP

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40
Q

microglia are stained with _____

A

Iba-1

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41
Q

glitter cells

A

microglia that acts as post infection marker

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42
Q

normal CSF when compared to serum

A

low protein
low glucose
minimal cells
more acidic

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43
Q

flow of CSF from ventricles to cord

A

Lateral ventricles -> foramen of Monroe -> third ventricle -> mesencephalic aqueduct -> fourth ventricle -> spinal cord

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44
Q

normal intracranial pressure

A

7-15 mmHg

laying down

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45
Q

communicating hydrocephalus

A

no obstruction

  • without normal pressure = obstructed reabsorption i.e. subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • with normal pressure = meningitis
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46
Q

non-communicating hydrocephalus

A

obstructed flow due to malformations or tumor

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47
Q

bacterial meningitis CSF signs

A

neutrophils, high protein, low glucose

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48
Q

viral meningitis CSF signs

A

lymphocytes, slightly increase protein, normal glucose

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49
Q 
sensory 
ascend or descend
anterior or posterior
lobe
gyrus
A

ascending
posterior
parietal lobe
postcentral gyrus

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50
Q 
motor
ascend or descend
anterior or posterior
lobe
gyrus
A

descending
anterior
frontal lobe
precentral gyrus

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51
Q

2 sensory tracts

A

posterior column/medial lemniscus system

spinothalamic tract/anterolateral system

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52
Q

where does the medial lemniscus system decussate

A

2nd order neurons in the medulla
means spinal cord lesion will have ipsilateral sx
brain lesion will have contralateral sx

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53
Q

where does the spinothalamic tract decussate

A

2nd order neurons in the ANTERIOR white commissure in spinal cord
will cause contralateral analgesia

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54
Q

what does the medial lemniscus system sense

A

discriminative touch, vibration, proprioception

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55
Q

what does the spinothalamic tract sense

A

pain, temperature, non-discriminative touch

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56
Q

2 motor tracts

A

corticospinal tract

corticonuclear tract

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57
Q

what does the corticospinal tract do

A

fine movements of body, trunk and limbs

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58
Q

what does the corticonuclear tract do

A

movements of face

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59
Q

where does the corticospinal tract decussate

A

pyramids of medulla

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60
Q

where does the corticonuclear tract synapse

A

cranial nerve nuclei in brainstem

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61
Q

upper motor nerve lesion will cause

A

impairs inhibitory control
- Spasticity, hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis
• Brain lesion –> contralateral
• Spinal lesion –> ipsilateral

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62
Q

lower motor nerve lesion will cause

A

no triggering of contraction
- Hyporeflexia, hypotonicity, flaccid paralysis
• Ipsilateral deficits and atrophy

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63
Q

excitatory pathway of the motor loop

A

direct pathway

thalamus via D1 receptors

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64
Q

inhibitory pathway of the motor loop

A

indirect pathway

basal nuclei via D2 receptors

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65
Q

dopamine is released by

A

substantia nigra pars compacta

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66
Q

vestibulospinal tract

A

brainstem-spinal tract that corrects postural instability based on sensory input from the vestibular system

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67
Q

reticulospinal tract

A

brainstem-spinal tract that anticipates imbalance and makes postural changes that precede ongoing limb movements

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68
Q

tectospinal tract

A

brainstem-spinal tract that orients auditory and visual stimuli

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69
Q

paramedian brainstem lesions cause _____

A 
MOTOR 
due to basilar or anterior spinal artery lesions
1. corticospinal tract
2. motor cranial nerves (3, 4, 6, 7, 12)
“paresis is paramedian”
“median is motor”
“ocular palsy is paramedian”
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70
Q

lateral brainstem lesions cause ______

A 
SENSORY
due to circumferential artery lesions
1. anterolateral system
2. vestibulocochlear nuclei
“lateral lesion analgesia”
“lateral lesion affects listening”
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71
Q

ipsilateral brainstem lesions cause _____

A

trochlear nuclei damage, CONTRALATERAL defect

“controchlateral”

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72
Q

weber syndrome aka medial midbrain lesion

A

Posterior cerebral artery
Contralateral motor
CN 3 palsy

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73
Q

locked in syndrome aka medial midbrain lesion

A

Basilar artery

• Quadriplegia but awake (reticular formation spared bc circumferential artery ok)

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74
Q

foville syndrome aka medial pons lesion

A

Basilar artery
Contra lateral motor
CN6 palsy

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75
Q

dejerine syndrome aka medial medulla lesion

A

anterior spinal artery (from vertebral artery)
contralateral spastic hemiplegia
Contralateral sensory loss (only medial sensory issues)
CN12 palsy

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76
Q

Lateral midbrain syndrome

A

lateral midbrain lesion
Posterior cerebral artery
Medial lemniscus, spinothalamic tract: contralateral sensory loss

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77
Q

lateral pontine syndrome

A

AICA
contralateral hemianalgesia of the body
ipsilateral CN5 and CN7 palsy

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78
Q

wallenburg syndrome aka lateral medulla lesion

A

very infamous boards stroke syndrome
PICA
Spinothalamic contralateral loss of pain and temp sensation on body
Spinal trigeminal, CN 5: ipsilateral loss of pain and temp sensation on face
Vagus nucleus: uvula, hoarse voice, dysphagia
Spinocerebellar: ipsilateral vertigo, stumble or fall to side of injury

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79
Q

3 functional modules of the cerebellum

A

pontocerebellar
vestibulocerebellar
spinocerebellar

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80
Q

pontocerebellar module

A

aids planning, initiating, timing of dexterous movements; posterior lobe of cerebellum

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81
Q

vestibulocerebellar module

A

posture, balance, coordinated eye movements; flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum

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82
Q

spinocerebellar module

A

adapts motor coordination to changing circumstances; anterior lobe of cerebellum

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83
Q

form of stroke characterized by ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia

A

superior alternating hemiplegia

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84
Q

awake quadriplegia

A

locked in syndrome from bilateral crus cerebri ischemia

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85
Q

form of stroke characterized by ipsilateral abducens nerve palsy and contralateral spastic hemiplegia

A

middle alternating hemiplegia

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86
Q

form of stroke characterized by contralateral spastic hemiplegia, contralateral sensory loss and ipsilateral CN12 palsy

A

dejerine syndrome (inferior alternating hemiplegia, medial medullary syndrome)

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87
Q

form of stroke characterized by contralateral sensory loss

A

lateral midbrain syndrome

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88
Q

form of stroke characterized by contralateral loss of pain and temp on body, ipsilateral loss of pain and temp on face, hoarseness and stumbling

A

wallenburg syndrome (lateral medullary syndrome)

89
Q

ipsilateral motor deficit including oscillating intention tremor, dysmetria, hypotonia, and rebound phenomenon

A

posterior lobe syndrome

90
Q

bilateral motor deficit including truncal ataxia, loss of tandem gait, positive romberg sign, nystagmus and trmeor

A

flocculonodular lobe syndrome

91
Q

ipsilateral motor deficit including clumsy gait, side-to-side motion, and positive shin to heel test

A

anterior lobe syndrome

92
Q

Gerstmann’s syndrome is a lesion to _________

A

left parietal lobe

93
Q

Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus

A

circadian rhythms

94
Q

Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus

A

vasopression

95
Q

Paraventicular nucleus of hypothalamus

A

CRF and ANS

Oxytocin

96
Q

Anterior nucleus of hypothalamus

A

reproductive, sexual development, sexual drive

97
Q

Pre-optic nucleus of hypothalamus

A

thermoregulation, sexual activity, cooling off

98
Q

Lateral nucleus of hypothalamus

A

feeding
promotes eating behavior via ghrelin
• Damage here – anorexia and failure to thrive
• Certain drugs can do this too via ↓DA i.e. methamphetamine

99
Q

Medial nucleus of hypothalamus

A

satiety (leptin)
leptin, CART/POMC and +MC4R and -AgRP/NPY
• Damage to leptin receptors can result in obesity and hyperphagia
• If tumor disrupts medial nuclei = overeating

100
Q

Posterior nucleus of hypothalamus

A

heat generation, shivering

101
Q

What creates fever?

A

SNS is stimulated to increase set point via PGE2 from organum vasculosum lamina terminalis to hypothalamus

102
Q

General role of thalamus

A

relay station

sensory, memory, arousal, visual, motor

103
Q

Ventral anterior/ventral lateral (VA/VL) of thalamus

A

motor circuit

anterior = action

104
Q

Ventral posterolateral (VPL)

A

somatosensory (postcentral gyrus) of body
• Receives from medial lemniscus, spinothalamic spinal tract
• VPL= Vibration, Pain, Proprioception, Light touch

105
Q

Ventral posteromedial (VPM)

A

somatosensory (postcentral gyrus) of face
• Receives from medial lemniscus, spinothalamic trigeminal tract
• VPM = make up on face

106
Q

Medial geniculate (MGN)

A 
auditory cortex (superior temporal gyri)
•	Receives from inferior colliculus 
•	MGN = listen to music
107
Q

Lateral geniculate (LGN)

A 
visual cortex (occipital lobe)
•	Receives from optic tract
•	LGN = see the light
108
Q

posterior to the cranial nerve, everything is ______

A

opposite
• Midline lesion = lateral VFD
• Left lesion = right VFD
• Superior lesion = inferior VFD

109
Q

lesion in optic chiasm causes

A

bitemporal hemianopia

110
Q

Saccade eye movement

A

a quick, simultaneous movement of both eyes between two or more phases of fixation in the same direction

111
Q

smooth pursuit eye movement

A

eyes move smoothly instead of in jumps
track moving target
mediated by cerebellum

112
Q

vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

eye movements that oppose head movements to stabilize image on retina
Doll Sign

113
Q

how does one gaze to the left

A
  • Right frontal eye field (FEF) signals the left paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) to make the left eye look left
  • The left PPRF signals the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) to make the right eye look left
114
Q

afferent action and nerve of pupillary light reflex

A

CN 2 projects bilaterally = direct and consensual activation

115
Q

efferent action and nerve of pupillary light reflex

A

CN 3 projects ipsilaterally = R and L pupillary sphincter can constrict independently

116
Q

Marcus Gunn defect

A

relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) - problem sensing
Lesioned eye will constrict when light is shown in healthy eye (because efferent CN3 is intact
When light is shown in lesioned eye, neither will constrict, because light cannot be sensed (afferent CN 2)

117
Q

angular acceleration organ

A

cristae ampullares in semicircular duct

118
Q

linear acceleration organ

A

maculae in vestibule

119
Q

afferent nerves of balance

A
  • Cochlear branch of CN8

* Vestibular nuclei

120
Q

efferent nerves of balance for head stabilization

A
  • Medial vestibulospinal tract

- Bilateral spinal cord

121
Q

efferent nerves of balance for posture

A
  • Lateral vestibulospinal tract

- Ipsilateral spinal cord

122
Q

efferent nerves of balance for conjugate eye movements

A
  • Contralateral PPRF
  • Abducens nuclei
  • Medial longitudinal fasciculus
  • Oculomotor nucleus
123
Q

direction of vestibular nystagmus is always ______ the orientation of the affected semicircular duct

A

OPPOSITE

124
Q

direction of vestibular nystagmus is always opposite the orientation of the affected ________________

A

semicircular duct

125
Q

superior canal injury causes ___________ directed nystagmus

A

inferiorly

126
Q

stumbling in vertigo occurs towards or away from affected side

A

towards

127
Q

____ orients eyes, head and body to sounds

A

inferior colliculus

128
Q

_________ relays ipsilateral input to other nuclei

A

cochlear nucleus

129
Q

__________ compares right and left ears to localize sounds

A

superior olivary complex

130
Q

Central deafness

A

central pathway defect

  • Deafness (bilateral), aphasia, agnosia
  • Cortical deafness – perceived deafness, may still react to sounds
131
Q

Sensorineural deafness

A

inner ear dysfunction

  • Spiral organ or CN 8 lesion
  • Begins with high pitch loss
132
Q

Conductive deafness

A

outer ear dysfunction

  • Cerumen impaction, otosclerosis, otitis media
  • Begins with low pitch loss
133
Q 
weber test
what is it and what are the findings in:
normal
conduction deafness
sensorineural deafness
A

tuning fork pressed on top of skull in midline

  • Normal: sound heard equally
  • Conduction: sound louder in affected ear
  • Sensorineural: sound louder in unaffected ear
134
Q 
rinne test
what is it and what are the findings in:
normal
conduction deafness
sensorineural deafness
A

tuning fork held to mastoid process and in front of meatus

  • Normal: air conduction hearing lasts longer than bone conduction
  • Conduction: bone lasts longer than air
  • Sensorineural: air lasts longer than bone (like normal) but quieter
135
Q

Blood supply of lateral midbrain

A

PCA

136
Q

Blood supply of medial midbrain

A

PCA

137
Q

Blood supply of lateral pons

A

AICA

138
Q

Blood supply of medial pons

A

Basilar

139
Q

Blood supply of lateral medulla

A

PICA

140
Q

______ cortex = deliberate retrieval of semantic facts
______ lobe = integrative or spatial memory
_______ = stores tasks and physical skills
_________ = plays role episodic and pattern recognition memory

A

frontal - semantic
parietal - spatial
cerebellum - skills
hippocampus - pattern

141
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

A
  • Most common in alcoholics and/or thiamine deficiency
  • Usually occur together – “Korsakoff” occurs later and associated with mammillary body damage and amnesia
  • “Confabulation” is common (fill in memory gaps with ‘stories’)
142
Q

Right sided weakness
Left eye down and out

What is lesion and where is infarct

A

Weber’s (left medial midbrain)

PCA

143
Q 
Can’t finger to nose on left 
Loss of pain and temp on face
Left eyelid droop
Loss of pain and temp right leg
Hoarse voice 
Raised right palate

What is lesion and where is infarct

A

Left lateral medulla
Wallenburgs
PICA

144
Q

Right deafness
Loss right finger to nose
No corneal reflex
Right face numbness

What is lesion and where is infarct

A

Right lateral pons

145
Q

declarative memory

A

explicit like episodic (events) and semantic (facts)

146
Q

4 changes in acute neuronal injury

A
  • Shrinkage of cell body
  • Loss of basophilic Nissl substance
  • Increasing cytoplasmic acidophilia due to increased density of damaged mitochondria
  • Condensation of nuclear chromatin and nuclear pyknosis
147
Q

an increase in ____ is associated with forgetting

A

GABA

148
Q

long term potentiation

A

consolidates short-term into long-term memory via repeated stimulation, glutamate, Ca and CREB

149
Q

mammillothalamic tract projects to________ for ________

A

cingulate gyrus

memory

150
Q

______ cortex = deliberate retrieval of semantic facts
______ lobe integrative or spatial memory
_______ stores tasks & physical skills
_________ plays role episodic & pattern recognition memory

A

frontal - semantic
parietal - spatial
cerebellum - skills
hippocampus - pattern

151
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

A
  • Most common in alcoholics and/or thiamine deficiency
  • Usually occur together – “Korsakoff” occurs later & associated with mammillary body damage & amnesia
  • “Confabulation” is common (fill in memory gaps with ‘stories’)
152
Q

_______________ is the reward center in septal nuclei area

A

nucleus accumbens

153
Q

pathway of the mesocorticolimbic dopamine system

A

ventral tegmental area (VTA) -> nucleus accumbens -> pre-frontal cortex

154
Q

Basal Nucleus of Meynert is associated with _____ and rich in ____ receptors

A

memory

Ach

155
Q

“red neurons” appear in ________

A

acute neuronal injury

156
Q

4 changes in acute neuronal injury

A
  • Shrinkage of cell body
  • Loss of basophilic Nissl substance
  • Increasing cytoplasmic acidophilia due to increased density of damaged mitochondria
  • Condensation of nuclear chromatin and nuclear pyknosis
157
Q

neurons in certain parts of the brain that are especially vulnerable to hypoxic damage are:

A
  • Pyramidal neurons in the CA1 field of the hippocampus
  • Pyramidal neurons in layers 3 and 5 of the neocortex
  • Purkinje cells in the cerebellum
158
Q

chromatolysis (4 things and result)

A

disintegration of Nissl bodies, movement of nucleus to periphery, increase in nucleolus, nucleus and cell body size
Neuron could regenerate or undergo apoptosis

159
Q

Lewy bodies in substantia nigra (_____) and in cortex (_____)

A

Parkinson’s

Lewy body dementia

160
Q

______ in substantia nigra (Parkinson’s)

A

Lewy bodies

161
Q

Pick body in ____ and _____ cortex in Pick’s disease

A

frontal and temporal

162
Q

HSV brain inclusions

A

Cowdry bodies

eosinophillic in nuclei

163
Q

CMV brain inclusions

A

Owl’s eye

dark pink inclusions in enlarged neurons

164
Q

Rabies brain inclusions

A

Negri bodies

165
Q

______________ is most important indicator of CNS injury

A

gliosis

166
Q

Rosenthal fibers

A

cytoplasmic inclusions in astrocytes and consist of Intermediate filament (GFAP), crystallin and ubiquitin in response to injury

167
Q

microglial nodules are hallmark of _______

A

viral infection

168
Q

foam cells occur in _____ and do _____

A

tissue damage

phagocytose

169
Q

hallmark of Alzheimer’s

A

aggregates of amyloid plaques and tauopathy of neurofibrillary tangles

170
Q

enzymes in Aβ biosynthesis

A

γ-secretase and β-secretase

171
Q

enzymes in Aβ degradation

A

α-secretase, IDE, Neprilysin, Plasmin

172
Q

stroke is an example of _____ (type of molecular injury)

A

excitotoxicity (due to glutamate accumulation)

173
Q

can nerves regenerate in CNS

A

not usually because end up being surrounded by glial scar and cannot form through that (also MAG and NOGO)

174
Q

can nerves regenerate in PNS

A

yes, Schwann cells proliferate and stretch across damaged area, after a few months, can have complete regeneration (or neuroma if not)

175
Q

in wallerian degeneration, proximal axons _______ and the distal portion _____

A

Proximal - retreat to last node of Ranvier

Distal - degeneration of axon and myelin

176
Q

progressive autoimmune disorder against myelin sheath

A

multiple sclerosis

177
Q

autoimmune disease of PNS triggered by infection with antibodies against gangliosides

A

guillan-barre

178
Q

transependymal edema in brain

A

occurs with increased pressure within ventricles

FLAIR is the most sensitive MRI sequence for detection
CSF in the parenchyma around the ventricles, especially laterally

179
Q

Major functions
dorsal/posterior horn -
ventral/anterior horn -
lateral horn -

A

dorsal/posterior horn - sensory
ventral/anterior horn - somatic motor
lateral horn - autonomic

180
Q

in CT scans ___ will appear dark

A

tissue, edema, necrosis

181
Q

in CT scans ___ will appear bright

A

bone, fresh blood

182
Q

CSF is ___________ in T1 MRI

A

dark

183
Q

CSF is ___________ in T2 MRI

A

bright

184
Q

subdural hematoma

A

Bleeding between arachnoid mater and dura Follows the contour of the brain; crescent shape

185
Q

epidural hematoma

A

Bleeding between dura mater and skull

Bulges out into the brain space

186
Q

intracellular edema in brain

A

cytotoxic, inadequate functioning of Na/K pump

Grey white matter junction is not visible

187
Q

Brown Sequard syndrome (hemisection)

A

Ipsilateral motor loss, tactile loss, proprioception loss, anesthesia
contralateral pain and temp loss

188
Q

transependymal edema in brain

A

occurs with increased pressure within ventricles
FLAIR is the most sensitive MRI sequence for detection
CSF in the parenchyma around the ventricles, especially laterally

189
Q

ALS

A

paresis, spasticity, atrophy, weakness, dysphagia

no sensory symptoms!

190
Q

syringomyelia

A

central canal development abnormality
cape like bilateral sensory loss
presents as burns or cuts on hand that were not felt

191
Q

reticulospinal tract

A

affects α and γ motor neurons, connect with reticular formation and autonomics

192
Q

tectospinal tract

A

reflex movements in response to light, sounds or sudden movements
also pupillary dilation

193
Q

rubrospinal tract

A

muscle tone

194
Q

hydromyelia

A

canal of fluid in spinal cord that is lined with ependymal cells

195
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A
  • Bilateral flaccid paralysis (corticospinal), bilateral loss of sensation (spinothalamic; pain, temp and touch), incoordination (spinocerebellar), respiratory paralysis, bilateral Horner’s, incontinence
  • Dorsal column (medial lemniscus; vibration and proprioception) undamaged
196
Q

central cord syndrome

A
  • Bilateral lower motor neuron damage (flaccid paralysis, areflexia), bilateral loss of spinothalamic (pain, temp, light touch)
  • Sacral sparing (more in arms than legs)
197
Q

Brown Sequard syndrome (hemisection)

A

Ipsilateral motor loss, tactile loss, proprioception loss, anesthesia
contralateral pain and temp loss

198
Q

poliomyelitis

A

Acute viral infection Degeneration of anterior horn and cranial nerve
Symmetric flaccid paralysis, atrophy, hypotonia, hyporeflexia

199
Q

ALS

A

paresis, spasticity, atrophy, weakness, dysphagia

200
Q

syringomyelia

A

central canal development abnormality

cape like bilateral sensory loss

201
Q

tabes dorsalis

A 
3* syphilis
sensory ataxia (+ Romberg’s test), absent deep tendon reflex, Charcot joints, Argyll pupil
202
Q

cauda equina syndrome

A

gradual onset, unilateral saddle-shaped sensory area, severe spontaneous radicular pain (along a dermatome), low back pain, incontinence, muscle atrophy, loss of L3 and S1 reflexes

203
Q

friedreich’s ataxia

A

trinucleotide repeat disorder (GAA) from AR mutation of FRADA
kyphoscoliosis, ataxia and falling (spinocerebellar), paralysis (corticospinal), vibration and proprioception (medial lemniscus), speech, hearing, vision (CN 8, 10, 12)
COD - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

204
Q

hydromyelia

A

canal of fluid in spinal cord that is lined with ependymal cells

205
Q

polymicrogyria

A

too many gyri

grey matter heterotopias

206
Q

type 2 chiari

A

caudal herniation of vermis, brainstem and fourth ventricle

- Associated with myelomeningocele (open spina bifida), agenesis of corpus callosum

207
Q

type 3 chiari

A

rare; low occipital and high cervical encephalocele with herniation of brainstem, occipital lobe and fourth ventricle

208
Q

type 4 chiari

A

aplasia of cerebellum

209
Q

Diastematomyelia/Diplomyelia

A

Bifid spinal cord, common in Asians, tuft of hair, tethered spinal cord
Type 1 – separate dural sleeves
Type 2 – same dural sleeve

210
Q

lipomeningocele

A

defect in the bone causing fat to be connected to spinal cord, tethering it

211
Q

holoprosencephaly

3 types

A
  • Alobar – monoventricle/no separation
  • Semilobar – partially developed occipital and temporal horns
  • Lobar – almost complete separation/interhemispheric fissure and falx present/ fused frontal lobes
212
Q

septo-optic dysplasia

A

agenesis of the septum pellucidum, optic nerve or chiasm hypoplasia (vision problems)

213
Q

dandy walker complex

A

dilated 4th ventricle/ enlarged posterior fossa/ upward displacement of lateral sinuses, tentorium, vermian aplasia or hypoplasia

214
Q

lissencephaly

A

smooth brain
type 1 - layered
type 4 - disorganized

215
Q

polymicrogyria

A

too many gyri

grey matter heterotopias

216
Q

brown sequard syndrome has Horner’s if

A

injury is above T2 level

217
Q

Enhancement on gadolinium infusion suggests breakdown of the ________, seen in _______ edema.

A

blood-brain barrier

vasogenic

218
Q

red neurons show up ______ hours post injury

A

12-24

219
Q

ependymitis

A

inflammation of columnar cells that line ventricles due to infection like CMV, Varicella or Mumps

Neuro Psych (4 decks)

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