Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define locomotion

A

An individual’s capacity to move from one place to another (point A to B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define gait

A

The manner in which a person walks
(cadence, step length, stride length, speed and rhythm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define ambulation

A

the act, action, or an instance of moving about or walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the foundation of movement analysis?

A

Gait analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of gait analysis?

A

1) To assess deviation from normal or less efficient pattern
2) To identify dysfunction that could lead to (functional decline, an increased fall risk, ROM and/or strength loss)
3) Identify impairments that impact gait (Poor balance, Lack of endurance or energy expenditure, Altered motor control, Reduced safety)
4) Help diagnose movement dysfunction (mechanism of gait deviation, impact of impairment on function)
5) Establish if the gait deviations could be characteristic or diagnostic of a larger clinical picture (Parkinson’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List important steps when assessing gait/locomotion

A

1) Observes patient from all directions
2) Analyze gait/locomotion characteristics with and without use of assistive, adaptive, orthotic, prosthetic or protective devices
3) Check the effects of various terrain and environments
4) Identify deviations and their effect on gait/locomotion
5) Hypothesize and verify cause(s) of deviations through specific examination (e.g. MMT, ROM, muscle tone, flexibility, pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the divisions of the gait cycle?

A

Stance: constitutes approximately 60% of the gait cycle and is defined as the interval in which the reference foot is in contact with the ground

Swing: comprises approximately 40% of the gait cycle and occurs when the reference limb is not in contact with the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a Double limb support/stance?

A

when both limbs are in contact with the ground at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Single limb support/stance?

A

It arises between the two double limb stance periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the stance phase

A

1) initial contact: the moment in time when the outstretched limb first hits the ground (heel strike)
2) loading response: body weight is rapidly accepted onto the outstretched limb (foot flat)
3) Midstance: body weight progresses forward over a single stable limb usually when the leg is underneath the trunk
4) terminal stance: the heel rises from the ground, the leg achieves a “trailing limb” posture, and the trunk advances well in front of the reference foot. (Heel off)
5) Pre-swing: the last phase of stance. During pre-swing, body weight transfers from the trailing limb to the contralateral lead limb, which is experiencing initial contact and loading response. (Toe off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain swing phase

A

1) initial swing: lifting of the foot from the ground reflects the onset of the first phase of swing. (Acceleration)
2) midswing: the thigh continues to advance into flexion
3) terminal swing: further thigh flexion is curtailed; however, the knee continues to extend until it observationally appears neutral. (Deceleration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What phases are double/single limb?

A

1) Initial double limb stance: initial contact, loading response
2) Single limb stance: mid stance, terminal stance
3) Terminal double limb stance: pre swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Label the stances

A

1) initial contact
2) Loading response
3) mid stance
4) terminal stance
5) pre swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List some gait variables

A

1) Spatial, Temporal
2) Symmetry, Planes of movement
3) Assistive Device, Level of Assistance, Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe step length and step time

A

1) Step length: distance between the heel contact to the point of the heel contact of the other foot
2) Step time: time to complete one step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe stride length and stride time

A

1) Stride length: stride length is the distance between the point of contact of the heel and the next contact of the same heel
2) Stride time: time to complete one stride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe cadence and velocity

A

1) Cadence: number of cycles in a period of time (steps/min)
2) Velocity: Distance covered in a period of time (m/s), gait speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal toe out angle?

A

angle of the foot (5 – 13 deg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is closely linked to overall function?

A

Gait speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List assistive device considerations of effects on pt’s mobility and stability

A

1) Attention and neuromotor demands
2) Interference with limb movement during balance recovery
3) Metabolic demands
4) Change in center of gravity from S2 to more anterior-superior which results in postural changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the levels of the functional independence measure?

A

7 = Independent: safe & timely, no device
6 = Modified independence: device without supervision, more than reasonable time, or concern for safety
5 = Supervision or set up (also known as stand by assist – SBA)
4 = Minimal assistance (min A): patient performs 75% or more of effort
3 = Moderate assistance (mod A): 50 – 74% of effort
2 = Maximal assistance (max A): 25 – 49% of effort
1 = Total assistance: < 25% of effort or assist of 2 persons (also known as dependence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the various weight bearing statuses

A

1) Full weight bearing (FWB)
2) Partial weight bearing (PWB) – an established % of FWB
3) Touch down weight bearing (TDWB): Can put foot on the ground for balance but not put any weight on it
4) Toe-Touch weight bearing (TTWB): Toe can be on the ground (not commonly used)
5) Weight bearing as tolerated (WBAT): Up to the discretion of the patient
6) Non-weight bearing (NWB): Usually have foot elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define balance, static balance, and dynamic balance

A

1) Balance: all forces acting on the body are balanced (equilibrium). COM is within stability limits and boundaries of BOS
2) Static balance: maintaining the COM within a fixed BOS
3) Dynamic balance: maintaining the COM within a moving BOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain Reactive/Proactive

A

1) Reactive: postural control occurs in response to external forces acting on the body displacing the COM or moving the BOS (moveable platform)
2) Proactive: (anticipatory) postural control occurs in anticipation of internally generated, destabilizing forces imposed on the body’s own movements (catching a weighted ball).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What has been shown to be a greater predictor of falls than an actual hx of previous falls?

A

Fear of falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Loss of balance can lead to restriction of movement, which can cause?

A

1) Deconditioning and debilitation
2) increased risk of falls
3) secondary problems due to sedentary lifestyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does the body control balance?

A

Sensory information from these sources

1) Vision
2) Somatosensation (surface changes, BOS changes)
3) Vestibular (gravity, acceleration, linear and angular head and eye movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can you ask to determine which system is the body primarily relying on for balance in a given task?

A

Which system is now “inaccurate” and take it out
Ex: (eyes close = elimination of vision) (standing on a foam pad = elimination of somatosensory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the balance strategies?

A

1) ankle strategy: involves shifting the COM forward and back by moving the body (legs and trunk) as a relatively fixed pendulum about the ankle joints
2) hip strategy: involves shifts in the COM by flexing or extending at the hips
3) stepping strategy: realigns the BOS under the COM by using rapid steps or hops in the direction of the displacing force, for example, forward or backward steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List some environmental aspects that can affect balance

A

*surface instabilities (slippery, compliant, inclines, moving surfaces, height differentials, sudden tilts)
*body perturbations (sudden pushes, pulls, or stops)
*reduced surface area (narrow short path)
*obstacle contact (uneven surfaces or loose objects)
*resistance (snow, mud, water)
*aberrant visual input (darkness, distorted input)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Falls (inpatient setting)

A

1) 3.3 - 11.5 falls per 1000 pt days
2) 75% unwitnessed
3) 50% elimination related
4) many due to altered mental status from medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Falls (community setting)

A

1) Prevalence = 35%
2) 1 out of 5 falls results in injury (broken bones or TBI)
3) Occurs during normal daily activities
4) Underreported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to assess fall risk?

A

1) # of falls in past 6 months
2) Frequency
3) Events that precede or cause the fall
4) Medications and or change in medications?
5) Change in condition (dizzy, light-headed)
6) Change in eyesight correction?
7) # of losses of balance
8) Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define surface anatomy

A

External features of the body identified for understanding characteristics, conditions and internal structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define palpation

A

Use of touch for medical purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List the effects of palpation

A

1) non verbal communication
2) therapeutic effect of touch (reducing pain, anxiety, cortisol levels)
3) psychological implication (interpersonal connection)
4) risk of touch (cultural/personal preferences, age, sex/gender differences)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe the types of touch

A

1) Light Touch: Used to feel for superficial structures such as skin and subcutaneous fat.
oGentle, fingertips glide over the skin.
2) Moderate Pressure: Used for identifying muscles, tendons, and bony landmarks.
oFingers sink slightly deeper to assess underlying structures.
3) Deep Pressure: Used to assess deeper structures and tissues. Requires more force, using palms or thumbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the principles of palpation?

A

1) Slow and Deliberate Movements: Avoid rushing; accuracy improves with careful palpation.
2) Consistency: Be systematic in approach, moving from superficial to deeper layers.
3) Feedback information: Stay attuned to variations in tissue texture, resistance, and responsiveness.
4) Communication: Always communicate with the patient about discomfort or sensitivity during palpation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the aspects of skin palpation?

A

1) Thin layer, soft, and pliable
2) Moves freely over underlying structures
3) Tenderness
4) Texture
5) Temperature
6) Moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the factors of navigating tissue under the skin?

A

*Subcutaneous Fat: Feels soft and spongy; varies in thickness depending on body region and individual.
*Muscle: Firm, with some elasticity. Contracted muscles feel firmer, while relaxed muscles are softer.
*Tendons: Rope-like, firmer than muscles, usually feels like taut bands.
*Ligaments: Tough, less elastic, and feels like firm, dense bands.
*Bones: Solid, hard structures beneath muscles and tendons, easily palpable in superficial regions (e.g., elbow, shin).
*Nerves: Large nerves can feel like a thick movable string, like a guitar string
*Pulses: Rhythmic beat/pulse. Can feel strong or faint depending on location and depth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do you interpret what you feel?

A

*Fat: Soft and moves easily.
*Muscle: Feels firm when contracted, or with increased tension/tone; more pliable when relaxed.
*Tendon: Firm, cord-like structures, easily felt when tensed.
*Ligament: Tough, more rigid compared to tendons.
*Bone: Hard, unyielding, clearly felt especially over superficial areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the key palpation landmarks?

A

1) bony prominences
2) tendons and ligaments
3) muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

List palpation techniques

A

*One-Handed Palpation: Ideal for smaller, superficial structures.
*Two-Handed Palpation: Used for deeper, larger structures, providing stability and control.
*Cross-Fiber Palpation: Moving fingers perpendicular to muscle fibers to distinguish muscle and tendon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the clinical significance of palpation?

A

*Assessment: Identifying inflammation, swelling, or abnormal lumps.
*Therapeutic Guidance: Assisting in manual therapy and treatment modalities.
*Diagnostic Support: Pinpointing areas of pain, tension, or abnormality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define kinematics

A

Study of motion without regard to the forces creating that motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define Arthokinematics

A

Movement of joint surfaces in relation to each other

Components:
*Spin – rotary motion
*Roll – rotary motion
*Glide/Slide – translatory motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Explain the convex/concave rules

A

*Concave surface moving on a Convex surface will roll and glide in the same direction (of the angular motion)
*Convex surface moving on a Concave surface will roll and glide in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the grades of Arthrokinematics?

A

Grades 0-6

0: Ankylosed (immovable)
1: Considerable hypomobility
2: Slight hypomobility
3: Normal
4: Slight hypermobility
5: Considerable hypermobility
6: Unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe Osteokinematics

A

the gross movement of the shafts of bony segments (often refers to rotators motion at a joint, can happen in all planes of motion and their axes)

50
Q

Describe joint range of motion

A

ROM
1) Arc of motion in degrees between the beginning and the end of motion in a specific plane
2) Starting position is anatomical position or neutral
3) Usually, from 0 to 180 degrees

51
Q

What are the factors that can effect ROM?

A

Known factors:
*Age
*Gender
*Active vs Passive motion

Possible factors:
*BMI
*Occupational activities
*Recreational activities
*Testing procedures
*Type of instrument
*Experience of examiner
*Time of day

52
Q

List the types of ROM

A

1) PROM
2) AROM
3) AAROM

53
Q

Explain AROM

A

Arc of motion produced by the individual’s voluntary, unassisted muscle contraction.

(It tells us the pt’s willingness to move, coordination, muscle strength, and joint ROM. It also highlights any painful tissue muscle, tendon, ligaments…)

54
Q

Explain PROM

A

Arc of motion produced by the application of an external force by the examiner. It is normally slightly greater than AROM. Can be vastly different in the presence of pain or weakness.

(It tells us the integrity of joint surfaces and extensibility of joint capsule, ligaments, muscles, tendons, fascia, and skin)

55
Q

Explain AAROM

A

Arc of motion produced by the individual’s muscle contraction assisted by an external force.

56
Q

Describe end feel

A

1) Tissue structures that limit motion have a characteristic “feel” detectably by the examiner
2) When analyzing PROM use slight over pressure because there is additional stretch of tissues and reduced muscle bulk when muscle is relaxed
(It protects joint structures by allowing the absorption of external force)

57
Q

Explain the normal end feels

A

1) soft (soft tissue): Knee flexion (contact between soft tissue of posterior leg and posterior thigh)
2) Firm (muscular, capsular, ligamentous st): muscular would be when Hip flexion with the knee straight (passive tension of hamstring muscles)
3) Hard (bone on bone): Elbow extension (contact between the olecranon process of the ulna and the olecranon fossa of the humerus)

58
Q

Explain abnormal end feel

A

1) Empty: no feel because pain prevents end full ROM (acute inflammation, bursitis, fracture)
2) soft: Occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end-feel. Feels boggy. (Soft tissue edema, synovitis)
3) firm: Occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual or in a joint that normally has a soft or hard end-feel. (increases muscular tonus and capsular, muscular, ligamentous, or facial shortening)
4) Hard: Occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual or in a joint that normally has a soft or firm end-feel. A bony grating or bony block is felt. (osteoarthritis, fracture, loose bone fragments in joint)

59
Q

Describe hypomobility

A

Less than expected ROM (less than normal values)

Asymmetrical compared to other side

60
Q

What can limit PROM?

A

1) Abnormalities in joint surface
2) Passive shortening of:
*Joint capsules
*Ligaments
*Muscles/tendons
*Fascia
*Skin
*Or inflammation of the above structures

61
Q

What are capsular patterns of restricted motion?

A

1) Pathologies involving entire joint capsules may present predictable patterns of restricted passive motions (usually involves most or all motions of a joint)

2) Proportions of motion relative to another motion at that joint
*Joint effusion – distension of the joint capsule
*Relative capsular fibrosis – chronic low-grade capsular inflammation immobilization resolution of acute inflammation

62
Q

What are non capsular pattern of restricted motion?

A

1) Usually involves structures other than the entire joint capsule
Ex: *Internal joint derangement
*Adhesion of part of a joint capsule
*Ligament shortening
*Muscle strain
*Muscle contracture
2) Usually involve 1-2 joint motions

63
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the glenohumeral joint?

A

Greatest loss of lateral rotation, moderate loss of abduction, minimal loss of medial rotation

64
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the elbow complex?

A

Loss of flexion greater than loss of extension; rotations full and painless except in advanced cases

65
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the forearm?

A

Equal loss of supination and pronation, only occurring if elbow has marked restrictions of flexion and extension

66
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the wrist?

A

Equal loss of flexion and extension, slight loss of ulnar and radial deviation (Cyriax)
Equal loss of all motions (Kaltenborn)

67
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the carpometacarpal joint (digit 1)?

A

Loss of abduction (Cyriax); loss of abduction greater than extension (Kaltenborn)

68
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the carpometacarpal joint (digit 2-5)?

A

Equal loss of all motions

69
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the Metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints?

A

Equal loss of flexion and extension (Cyriax)

70
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the hip?

A

Greatest loss of medial rotation and flexion, some loss of abduction, slight loss of extension; little or no loss of adduction and lateral rotation (Cyriax)
Greatest loss of medial rotation, followed by less restriction of extension, abduction, flexion, and lateral rotation (Kaltenborn)

71
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the knee (tibiofemoral)?

A

Loss of flexion greater than extension

72
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the ankle (talocrural)?

A

Loss of plantarflexion greater than dorsiflexion

73
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the subtalar joint?

A

Loss of inversion (varus)

74
Q

What is the capsular pattern (Restricted motion) of the midtarsal joint?

A

Loss of inversion (adduction and medial rotation); other motions full

75
Q

Define hypermobility

A

Ability to move actively or passively beyond normal limits

Due to:
*Laxity of soft tissue structures
*Abnormal joint surfaces
*Frequently caused by trauma
*Possible hereditary connective tissue disorders

Ex: Hypomobility syndrome, Marfan syndrome, rheumatic disease, osteogenesis imperfecta

76
Q

Explain the Brighton Hypermobility Score

A

0-9 total sum of points. Point for R and point for L. Higher scores associated with poor proprioception and kinesthesia

Cutoff score is 4
May not be abnormal in children (65%> 4)

1) passively apples thumb to forearm
2) passively extend fifth MCP joint more than 90 degrees
3) Hyperextend elbow more than 10 degrees
4) hyperextend the knee more than 10 degrees
5) place palms on floor by flexing trunk with knees straight

77
Q

What is muscle length testing?

A

Maximal muscle length: greatest extensibility of muscle-tendon unit
*Measured indirectly – max PROM of joint(s) crossed by the muscle
*Determine whether hypo or hypermobility is caused by antagonist muscle or other structures

78
Q

What is muscle length testing categorized by?

A

Categorized by number of joints the muscle crosses

1)One-joint muscles
*No different than measuring joint PROM
*Use end-feel & palpation
2) 2-joint muscles
*Length usually not sufficient to allow full PROM at both joints
(Passive Insufficiency)
*To test, lengthen the muscle at both joints
*Position one joint at end range, measure PROM at the other
3) Multi-joint muscles

79
Q

What is the purpose of measuring motion/position?

A

*Determine the presence, absence, or change in impairment
*Establish a diagnosis
*Develop a prognosis, treatment goals, and plan of care
*Evaluate progress or lack of progress toward rehabilitative goals
*Modify treatment
*Motivate the individual
*Research the effectiveness of therapeutic techniques or regimens (for example, measuring outcomes following exercises, medications, and surgical procedures)
*Fabricate orthotics and adaptive equipment

80
Q

What is the patient’s body position intended to do?

A

*Place joint in starting position of 0°
*Permit complete ROM
*Assist stabilizing the proximal joint segment

81
Q

What are the guidelines to positioning?

A

1.Ensure that the patient is in a comfortable, safe, and stable position.
2.Place the joint being measured in a starting position of 0 degrees.
3.Permit complete and unobstructed motion of the joint.
4.Place the muscle in a lengthened position at all joints that the muscle crosses except for the one joint that will be measured for motion when testing for muscle length.
5.Provide stabilization for the proximal joint segment(s).

82
Q

What is stabilization?

A

Keep the patient’s body and proximal joint segment(s) from moving

*Goal is to isolate motion to the desired joint
*Avoids combined motions
*Positional Stabilization
*Manual Stabilization

83
Q

What are the instruments used for measurements?

A

1) goniometer
2) electrogoniometer
3) visual estimation
4) tape measures
5) rulers
6) motion analysis systems

84
Q

Define goniometry

A

The measurement of angles (created at human joints)

Goniometer – the measurement instrument
*Aligned along bones proximal and distal to the joint
*Determine joint position and total amount of motion

85
Q

Explain goniometer placement

A

1.Palpate bony (anatomical) landmarks - axis of motion of the joint.
2.Place fulcrum (center) of the goniometer over axis of motion
3.Position stationary arm- usually lies parallel to longitudinal axis of fixed proximal segment of the joint
4.Position mobile arm – usually lies parallel to longitudinal axis of the moving distal segment

86
Q

List the psychometric properties of measurements

A

1) Reliability: intrarate (same tool for measurement over multiple tests), interrater (different tool). Score of 1 is excellent, 0.55 fair, 0 unacceptable
2) Validity: Good to excellent validity for osteokinematics and muscle length
3) Standard error of measurement (SEM): 2.3-5 degrees

87
Q

How do you document these measurements?

A

List each motion 0 to however many degrees measured

88
Q

What are the precautions of measurements?

A

*Inflammation/Effusion
*Osteoporosis
*Hypermobility
*Paralysis
*Hematoma
*Hemophilia

89
Q

What are the contraindications of measurements?

A

1) Absolute: fracture, dislocation
2) relative: immediately post op, severe injury/rupture

90
Q

Describe muscle performance

A

Capacity of a muscle to “Do work”, i.e., perform a desired function.

91
Q

What are the 3 major factors that affect muscle performance?

A

1) Muscle Strength
*Measurable force exerted by a muscle to overcome a resistance (in one maximal effort)
*Strength requires the ability to voluntarily produce the force necessary to perform a function.
2) Muscle Power
*Strength x speed (force x velocity)
*Work (force x distance) produced per unit of time (seconds)
3) Muscle Endurance
*Ability to produce force repeatedly
*Generate force over a sufficient (sustained) period of time

92
Q

Describe muscle fatigue

A

Failure to generate required or expected force during sustained or repeated contractions

93
Q

What are the types of muscle contraction?

A

*Concentric – muscle shortening – change in joint angle
*Eccentric – muscle lengthening – change in joint angle
*Isometric – no change in muscle length – no change in joint angle

94
Q

What are the 3 factors that affect muscle strength?

A

*Physiological - muscle volume, pennation angle (fiber orientation), cross-sectional area, density/quality, and physiological adaptations to training (contractile proteins vs extracellular matrix and other “support structures”)
*Neurological – CNS and PNS signaling
*Mechanical – amount and direction of forces, axis of joint rotation, lever arm length, etc

95
Q

What are the factors that affect muscle performance?

A

*Length-tension characteristics
*Viscoelasticity
*Velocity
*Metabolic adequacy/capacity
*Neuromuscular control/efficiency

96
Q

What are the factors of impaired muscle performance?

A

*Weakness (paresis)
*Absence of strength (plegia)
*Loss of muscle bulk (atrophy)
*Exhaustion
*Overuse or Overwork weakness

97
Q

What do you look for during muscle performance testing?

A

*Force production capacity
*Endurance capacity
*Diagnostic interpretation
*Functional interpretation

98
Q

How is muscle performance testing used clinically?

A

*Direct clinical management
*Predicting functional outcomes (PT prognosis)
*Inform a diagnosis
*Establish functional STG & LTG

99
Q

List the methods of examining muscle performance?

A

*Manual muscle testing - MMT (muscle performance)
*Hand-held dynamometry (muscle performance, endurance, fatigue)
*Instrumented isokinetic dynamometers (muscle performance, endurance, fatigue, power)
*Resistance
*Muscle timing

100
Q

When is MMT valid? When is it flawed?

A

Valid in:
*“normal” persons who have voluntary control
*Those with weakness or paralysis due to motor unit disorders

Flawed in those with CNS disorders
*Procedures may vary

101
Q

What are some considerations when performing MMT?

A

Motion often is the result of more than one muscle
*Primary movers will be identified
*Accessory movers need to be considered and minimized their contribution via changes in the technique (Substitution)

102
Q

List MMT advantages

A

*No additional equipment
*Inexpensive
*Can be performed in most environments
*Effective Qualitative interpretation of mm performance
*Insight into “quality” of muscle contraction

103
Q

List MMT disadvantages

A

*Qualitative – may lead to interrater reliability issues
*Subjective interpretation
*Subjective response by patient

104
Q

What aspects to make ready prior to pt MMT (more applicable inpatient)?

A

*Environment
*Plinth or mat table
*Draping for comfort/modesty
*Positioning may need to deviate from standardized position for pt comfort

105
Q

What do we need to know when screening a pt?

A

*History and system review
*Active ROM and Passive Available ROM
*Pt’s ability to follow commands
*Pt’s willingness to provide maximum force
*Any pathologies that make MMT a contra-indication?

106
Q

What are the MMT tests?

A

(Consider gravity vector “against gravity” or “gravity reduced”)

*Break Test
*Joint ROM is screened  joint is positioned  pt performs isometric contraction
*Manual resistance applied in the line of pull of the desired muscle with the intent of changing the joint position
*“Hold, don’t let me move you”

*Make Test
*PT matches the pt’s resistance as the patient gradually increases force output
*“Slowly push (or pull) against me until you are pushing as hard as you can”

107
Q

How are one joint muscles typically tested?

A

In a shortened position

108
Q

How are two joint muscles typically tested?

A

At mid range

109
Q

What does PSIS stand for (MMT technique)?

A

*Position: grade depends on whether you test in gravity-reduced or anti-gravity position
*Stabilization: stabilize origin or proximal joint so only the muscle being tested moves the joint and/or only the test segment moves
*“Isolation”: instruct pt in the motion and provide resistance so motion occurs in the line of pull of the intended muscle
*Substitution: avoid testing effort caused by synergistic muscles or a mm you did not intend to test

110
Q

Describe how to rate “anti gravity” and “gravity reduced”?

A

Anti-gravity: Patient is positioned so that the segment moves vertically against Force of gravity.
*Grades 3-5

Gravity-reduced/minimized: Patient is positioned so segment moves horizontally (perpendicular to gravity vector). Gravity now only produces a friction force on the supporting surface
*Grades <3

111
Q

Why do we stabilize in MMT?

A

*Allow movement of the test segment only (prevent substitution).
*Stabilize the segment at origin attachment.

112
Q

Why do we isolate is MMT?

A

Intentional positioning, clear instructions, resistance, palpation

(Proper isolation positions synergists so that they cannot optimally work; often at end range with muscle fully shortened (active insufficiency))

113
Q

What is a substitution in MMT?

A

The movement is not produced by the targeted muscle.
*Occurs when:
*Segment is poorly stabilized
*Pt is poorly positioned or allowed to deviate out of position

114
Q

What is the MMT grading?

A

0-5 (can use +/-), for each R & L

5 Normal (N): completes full active ROM against gravity; holds test position against maximum resistance
4+ Good plus (G+)
4 Good (G): completes full active ROM against gravity; holds test position against moderate resistance
4- Good minus (G-)
3+ Fair plus (F+)
3 Fair (F): completes full active ROM against gravity; holds test position against no resistance
3- Fair minus (F-)
2+ Poor plus (P+)
2 Poor (P): completes full active ROM when gravity is minimized
2- Poor minus (P-)
1 Trace (T): can detect contractile activity visually or by palpation
0 Zero (0): no detectable muscle activity (visually or palpation)

115
Q

What are some subjective and objective factors of MMT?

A

Subjectivity
*More at higher MMT grades
*Resistance applied by PT
*Resistance tolerated by pt

Objectivity
*Greater at lower MMT grades
*Move through full available ROM?
*Against gravity
*Gravity reduced
*Hold position against gravity?
*Able to move at all?

116
Q

List the MMT procedure steps in order

A

1) Screen PROM
2) Screen AROM

(Full AROM against gravity & can hold?)

“Path 1”
If yes >3 then
3) apply resistance
4) grade

“Path 2”
If no <3 then
3) move to gravity reduced position
4) screen AROM

(Full AROM in gravity reduced)

If yes then
5) apply resistance
6) grade

If no then
5) grade or palpate for mm activity
6) grade

117
Q

What are the absolute and relative contraindications of MMT?

A

Absolute
*recent fracture
*severe pain
*Severe wound or extensive op site

Relative
*moderate pain
*hysteria
*lack of motivation
*unstable joint or joint surface erosion
*neurological muscle spasm
*Inability to follow commands (motor skills, cognition)

118
Q

What is a hand held dynamometer?

A

*Portable
*Measures force (Lbs, N, Kg)
*Require standardized or normalized positioning
*Patient
*Instrument
*Make-test procedures

119
Q

What is Jamar? What is a pinch meter?

A

Both for grip strength

Jamar: hold one hand and squeeze gripper

Pinch meter: 3-point chuck, lateral prehension, tip pinch

120
Q

What is an isokinetic dynamometer?

A

*Commonly seen manufacturers: Biodex, Cybex, Kin-Com, LIDO
*Stationary, electromechanical device
*Resists and measures patient’s torque (rotational force) through range
*Measure torque production of a set of muscle acting on a joint
*Can Test:
*Isometric
*Isokinetic
Isotonic
*$$$
*Typically used in research
*Tests Muscle groups together, not individual
*Measures torque, power, endurance, work, impulse, and others

121
Q

What tests measure the rate of perceived exertion?

A

0-10 (10 being extremely hard/fatigued)

Self-report of PERCEIVED difficulty
*Visual Analog Scales
*Numerical Rating Scales

Common Measures
*BORG scale
*OMNI Exertion scale
*OMNI-RES (resistence