Week 2: Temperature Alteration, Nutrition, And Pre-Op Management Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Nutric score?

A
  • design to quantify risk for malnutrition and critically ill patients for adverse effects that may be modified by nutritional therapy
  • The higher the score the greater the likelihood they will require aggressive nutritional therapy
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2
Q

Who needs nutritional support?

A
  • those with inadequate bowel syndromes
  • those with severe prolonged hypercatabolic state
  • those requiring prolonged therapeutic bowel rest
  • those with severe protein calorie malnutrition with a treatable disease who have lost 25% of body weight
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3
Q

Before starting nutrition: lab work

A
  • BMP, magnesium, phosphorus, liver function, EKG (for those severely at risk for refeeding syndrome)
  • pre-albumin/plasma albumin: not much significance in the hospitalized patient, does not reflect nutrition status but more critical illness
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4
Q

Contraindications to enteral feedings - absolute

A
  • intestinal obstruction
    – ongoing splanchnic ischemia
    – small bowel fistulas that cannot be bypassed by the feeding tube
    – hemodynamic instability
    – *enteral nutrition may worsen ischemia due to hypo perfusion of the gut and lead to necrosis and bacterial overgrowth
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5
Q

Contraindications to enteral feedings – relative

A
  • Active G.I. hemorrhage
    – early stages of short bowel syndrome
    – severe malabsorption
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6
Q

How to tell if someone is malnourished?

A
  • usually labs will tell you, bodyweight, electrolytes, fluid
  • albumin/pre-albumin are not accurate here
  • hypokalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypoglycemia
  • need to correct abnormal plasma electrolytes before initiation of feeding
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7
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A
  • significant risk for fluid overload, CHF, EKG changes, confusion, muscle issues
    – low concentrations of predominately intracellular ions (phosphate, magnesium, and potassium) in addition to abnormalities in glucose metabolism, sodium levels, and water balance are associated with morbidity and mortality
  • plasma electrolytes and glucose should be measured before feeding and any deficiencies must be corrected during feeding
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8
Q

What to do when there is marked phosphatemia in refeeding syndrome after initiation of feeding?

A

Intake should be reduced to 500 kcal per day for 48 hours

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9
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A
  • restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight
  • intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat
  • or even persistent behavior that interferes with weight gain
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10
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A
  • recurrent episodes of binge eating
  • binge eating characterized by both of the following: eating in a discrete period of time and amount of food is definitely larger than what most individuals would eat and a lack of self-control over eating during the episode
  • recurrent compensatory behaviors in order to prevent gain, such as vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise
  • behaviors must occur at least once a week for three months
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11
Q

Signs and symptoms of anorexia and bulimia

A
  • depends on severity
    – abdominal pain (vague), electrolyte imbalance is, poor dentist in/tooth erosion, low bodyweight (anorexia), rapid weight loss, socially withdrawn, poor eye contact
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12
Q

Diagnostics of anorexia and bulimia

A

Electrolyte imbalance s (low potassium common), metabolic alkalosis (from severe vomiting), EKG (low-voltage, nonspecific T-wave changes)

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13
Q

Complications of anorexia and bulimia

A
  • The primary CNS area affected acutely in emergency departments, especially with weight loss, is the hypothalamus
  • hypothalamic dysfunction is reflected in problems with thermal regulation, sleep, autonomic cardioregulatory imbalance
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14
Q

Treatment for anorexia and bulimia

A
  • A nurturant-authoritative approach using biopsychosocial model
  • antidepressants, counseling, bio feedback
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15
Q

How to make a diagnosis of malnutrition?

A

A diagnosis of malnutrition is made if the patient has two or more of the following criteria:
- insufficient energy intake
– weight loss
– loss of muscle mass
– loss of subcutaneous fat
– localized or generalized fluid accumulation
– decreased functional status

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16
Q

Complications of enteral feedings

A
  • usually due to the solution
    – diarrhea is the most common complication, need to slow down the rate
    – nasal damage, aspiration, discomfort, clogging of tubes are others
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17
Q

Risk factors for delayed gastric emptying

A
  • gastroparesis
  • diabetes
    – gastric outlet obstruction
    – ileus (postop)
  • trauma
  • sepsis
    – medications affecting gastric motor function (ex: opioids)
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18
Q

Medications to improve gastric emptying

A
  • Prokinetic medications such as metoclopramide and erythromycin either alone or combined
  • they are safe to use when QTC intervals are monitored and used for up to seven days
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19
Q

How to determine route for parenteral nutrition support

A
  • less than two weeks use peripheral vein

- Greater than two weeks use central vein

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20
Q

When to initiate parenteral nutrition

A
  • initiate after seven days for well-nourished, stable adults patients who are unable to receive significant oral or enteral nutrition
  • initiate within 3 to 5 days in those who are nutritionally at risk and unlikely to achieve desired oral intake or enteral nutrition
  • initiate as soon as possible in feasible patients with baseline moderate or severe malnutrition in those in which oral intake or enteral nutrition or not possible/sufficient
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21
Q

Complications of parenteral nutrition support

A
  • catheter related: pneumothorax, central line associated bloodstream infection, thrombosis, embolism
    – metabolic: refeeding syndrome, glucose abnormalities (hyper/hypoglycemia), hyperlipidemia (hyperlipidemia), liver dysfunction, abnormalities of serum electrolytes and minerals, vitamin mineral deficiencies (ex: brittle bones)
  • circulatory: volume overload
  • gallbladder associated: cholelithiasis, gallbladder sludge
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22
Q

Basics of determining TPN requirements

A
  • water: 1500 mL for the first 20 kg bodyweight +20 mL for every kilogram over 20
  • Energy: estimate 25-30 kcal/kg/day to sustain weight
  • Protein: 1.2-1.5 g/kg/day; if in moderate to severe distress then 2.5 g/kg/day
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23
Q

Nitrogen balance

A
  • The means of assessing how a patient is responding to nutritional therapy
  • Intake = output: N equilibrium (no change in body protein, normal state of adult)
  • intake > output: positive N balance (increase in total body protein, normal status and growth (including pregnancy), and an adult recovering from a loss of protein in response to trauma or malnutrition
  • intake < output: negative N balance (net loss of body proteins, this is never normal, but reflects either a response to trauma or infection, or an intake that is inadequate to meet the needs or replace tissue proteins
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24
Q

Geriatric changes to temperature alteration: homeostenosis

A
  • decreased sensation of cold, shivering intensity, thermogenesis, vasoconstriction, sweating response, vasodilation, ability to raise cardiac output
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25
Q

Hyperthermia versus fever

A
Hyperthermia
- defect in temperature regulation
– can exceed 41°C (106°F)
- absent diurnal variation 
Fever
– normal thermal regulatory system
– commonly diurnal variation
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26
Q

Hyperthermia syndromes: heat exhaustion

A
  • symptoms: flu like with fever, usually less than 39°C, muscle cramps, nausea and vomiting, dizziness, malaise, irritability
  • NO Significant neuro impairment
  • volume depletion WITHOUT hemodynamic compromise
  • management: volume repletion, general supportive measures, cooling measures not necessary
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27
Q

Hyperthermia syndromes: heat stroke

A
  • life-threatening
    Symptoms: extreme elevation and temperature >/= 41°C, SEVERE neuro dysfunction (delirium, coma, seizures) anhidrosis common (inability to produce sweat)
  • severe volume depletion WITH hypotension
  • management: volume resuscitation, cooling to reduce temperature to 38°C, supportive care, NO role for antipyretics
  • try to get patients temperature down to 39°C within roughly 30 minutes
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28
Q

Drug induced hyperthermia: malignant hyperthermia

A
  • uncommon, inherited disorder
  • response to halogenated inhaled anesthetic agents
  • excessive release of calcium in skeletal muscles
  • symptoms: muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, depression of consciousness, rise in EtCO2, AKI, neuro changes (range from agitation to comatose), autonomic dysfunction (including BP changes and arrhythmias)
  • management: discontinue offending agent, dantrolene, prevention
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29
Q

Drug-induced hyperthermia: neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A
  • drugs implicated: antipsychotics (Haldol, risperidone), anti-emetics (Reglan, metoclopramide), CNS stimulants, others (lithium TCA overdose), dopaminergics (discontinuation of these drugs – levodopa, amantadine, bromocriptine)
  • associated with drugs that influence dopamine-mediated transmission
  • symptoms: GRADUAL onset, hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, AMS, autonomic instability
  • labs: CK/CPK (> 1,000), WBC can be 40,000 with a left shift on differential
  • management: discontinue/resume offending agent, volume resuscitation, dantrolene, bromocriptine
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30
Q

Drug induced hyperthermia: serotonin syndrome

A
  • drugs implicated: MAOI, SSRI, TCAs, amphetamines, MDMA, cocaine, LSD, meperidine, fentanyl, tramadol, dextromethorphan, lithium, buspirone, sumitriptan
  • usually due to a combination of agents
    – symptoms: AMS, hyperthermia, autonomic hyperactivity, neuromuscular abnormalities, muscle rigidity, hyperkinesis (muscle spasms), clonus, hyperreflexia
  • ABRUPT onset
  • management: discontinue offending agent, agitation support, severe SS: serotonin antagonists (cyproheptadine)
31
Q

Hypothermia

A
  • decrease in body temperature < 35°C (95°F)
  • environmental causes: most likely to occur in prolonged submergence in cold water, exposure to cold wind, and when physiologic response is impaired (alcohol, drugs, confusion, etc.)
32
Q

normal physiologic adaptation to cold

A
  • cutaneous vasoconstriction
  • Shivering
    – protection from cold is dependent on behavioral responses (warm clothes, seeking shelter, etc.)
33
Q

Hypothermia diagnostics

A
  • labs: ABG, BMP/CMP (hyperkalemia is common), coagulation studies (usually will have prolonged PTT and elevated INR)
  • EKG: j-waves (Osborn waves) are very common
34
Q

Hypothermia management

A

Rewarming
- External: remove wet clothes, cover with blankets (external interventions raise temperature 1-2C per hour and are adequate for mild hypothermia)
– Internal/invasive: increase temperature of inhaled gases, peritoneal lavage with heated fluids, extracorporal blood warming, heated IVF
Supportive care
Be aware of rewarming shock! - HTN, hypokalemia, myocardial depression, vasodilation

35
Q

Manifestations of progressive hypothermia

A

Mild: 32-35°C
- confusion, cold and pale skin, shivering, tachycardia
Moderate: 28-31.9°C
- lethargy, reduced or absent shivering, bradycardia, bradypnea
Severe: < 28°C
- obtundation or coma, no shivering, edema, dilated and fixed pupils, bradycardia, hypotension, oliguria
Fatal: < 25°C
- asystole/apnea

36
Q

What is a fever?

A
  • normal thermal regulatory system
    – commonly diurnal variation
    – body temperature >/=38.3°C
  • is an adaptive response, not necessarily a bad thing, protective (enhances immune function inhibits bacterial/viral replication)
37
Q

Benefits of a fever

A
  • Augments aspects of inflammatory response in promotes healing
    – diagnostic and prognostic indicator for the condition
    – augments antimicrobial activity
38
Q

Metabolic costs of fever

A
  • oxygen consumption increased by 13% for each degree of Celsius elevation
  • caloric requirements double
    – reduce mental acuity and can cause delirium
    – may produce seizures in cerebral edema
    – produces patient discomfort
39
Q

Practical clues to make the diagnosis of fever

A
  • fever d/t infection is usually diurnal
  • sustained fever with < 1 degree variation in 24 hours (gram negative bacteria, CNS damage, fictitious fever)
  • non-infectious fever rarely exceeds 38.8C
  • fever > 48 hours on ventilator, presume pneumonia
  • fever > 10-14 days post-institutional antimicrobials, presume fungal infection
  • malaria demonstrates characteristics spikes every 3-4 days
40
Q

Non-infectious causes of fever

A
  • SIRS
  • early post-op fever
  • PE/VTE
  • platelet transfusion
  • etoh/substance withdrawal
  • ## CVA/MI
41
Q

Non-infectious causes of fever

A
SIRS
– early postop fever
– PE/VTE
– platelet transfusion‘s
- EtOH/substance withdrawal
– CVA
– MI
– autoimmune disease
– pancreatitis
– ARDS
– fat emboli
– gout
– hematoma
- cirrhosis
– thrombophlebitis/phlebitis
- G.I. bleed
– neoplastic fever
– decubitus ulcer
– ischemic bowel
– thyrotoxicosis
– adrenal failure
42
Q

Non-infectious causes of postop fever

A

SIRS, dehydration, drug/allergic reaction, MI, PE, retroperitoneal hematoma, solid organ hematoma, intracranial hemorrhage/hematoma, thrombophlebitis, transfusion reaction, withdrawal, acute hepatic necrosis, adrenal insufficiency
- atelectasis is not a cause of postop fever

43
Q

Common drug associated fever offenders

A
- amphotericin (rigors)
– cephalosporins (myalgia)
– penicillin (leukocytosis)
– phenytoin (eosinophilia) 
– procainamide (rash)
- quinidine (hypotension)
44
Q

Management of postop fever

A
General 
- volume repletion with LR or NS
– pulmonary hygiene
Presumed infection?
- discontinue any line or drain as able
– empiric antibiotics, broad then narrow (choice depends on likely source)
45
Q

Management of fever not post-op

A

Infectious
- empiric antimicrobial therapy
- cover gram negative bacilli in ICU setting (meropenem, Zosyn, cefepime)
- cover S. Aureus if device related possibility (vanco)
- consider antifungal in certain populations
Supportive Care
- fans = okay
- cool sponge bath/cool shower = okay
- ice packs = not okay

46
Q

Fever of unknown origin

A
  • illness at least 3 weeks duration
  • fever > 38.3C
  • dx made after 3 outpatient visits or 3 days inpatient
  • dx of exclusion
  • etiologies top 3: infection, neoplasm, vascular disease
  • diagnostics: temperature log, THOROUGH H&P, labs, imaging, procedural
  • management: no antibiotics unless source known, refer (progressive weight loss, other constitutional signs, any immunocompromised patient, and when in doubt)
47
Q

Goal of the preoperative exam

A
  • identifying and mitigating risk, not “clearing the patient for surgery”
  • identify the patient’s medical problems
  • establish if the patient’s condition is medically optimized
    – recognize and treat potential complications
48
Q

When to get preoperative ECG

A
  • Active cardiovascular signs or symptoms
  • Based on age alone? – No

use of RCRI to assess risk with non-cardiac procedures
- recommended it on your going high risk procedure regardless
– recommended intermediate risk procedure and +1 risk factor identified
– not recommended if low risk procedure

49
Q

When to get preoperative chest x-ray

A
  • asymptomatic, otherwise healthy? – No
    – new/unstable cardiopulmonary signs? – Yes
  • abnormal findings on preop screening radiography is common: these findings are most often chronic and predictable, based on history and physical, and rarely alter management
50
Q

Went to get preoperative echo

A

Consider echo if they had an MI > six weeks ago, stable angina, heart failure with that recent echo, diabetic, any rhythm other than NSR, history of CVA

51
Q

When to get preoperative PFTs

A
  • not routinely recommended
    – consider: asthmatics requiring daily meds, COPD, long surgery, CABG or major CT surgery, major upper or lower abdominal surgery, 10+ pack year smoking history
  • only do PFTs when patient is at optimal lung health, never do them during an exacerbation
52
Q

Largest risk for surgery?

A

Progression/complication of presenting disease

53
Q

Risk of Major Adverse Cardiac Event (MACE)

A
  • low (<1%): includes cataracts, plastic surgery, most breast surgeries, superficial biopsies, etc.
  • elevated (> 1%)
54
Q

Risk factors: cardiac disease

A

Major

  • MI < six weeks ago, unstable angina, decompensated heart failure, significant dysrhythmia, severe valvular disease
  • after MI, elective surgery should be postponed for six months

Minor

  • ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE, KNOWN HF
  • known CAD, poorly controlled hypertension, abnormal ECG/non-NSR

(CAPS = independent risk factors for cardiac complications peri-op)

55
Q

Risk factors: pulmonary disease

A

COPD, asthmatics requiring daily meds

56
Q

Risk factors: other

A
  • HX OF CVA/TIA, RENAL INSUFFICIENCY/ FAILURE (creatinine >/= 2), DIABETES ON INSULIN, MAJOR/HIGH RISK SURGERY
  • geriatric age, low functional capacity, smoking 10+ pack year history, poor nutritional status, immune completely

(CAPS = independent risk factors for cardiac complications peri-op)

57
Q

Who is the highest risk for developing postop pulmonary complications (PPC)

A

COPD, age older than 60, ASA scored 2+, functional dependence, CHF, emergent procedures, prolonged procedures (abdomen, head, neck)

Pulmonary complications are number one after surgery, cardiac complications are number one going into surgery

58
Q

Assessing risk: functional capacity

A
  • METs = metabolic equivalents (energy expended)
  • each 1 MET = 12% improvement in survival
  • MET < 4 = significant risk ( MI, HF, arrhythmia regardless of surgical risk), > 5% complication rate
  • MET 4-10 = 1-5% complication rate
  • MET > 10 = < 1% complication rate
59
Q

Risk of endocarditis

A
  • YES for at risk procedures plus at risk populations
  • procedures: dental, skin/soft tissues, respiratory/oropharyngeal
  • population: prosthetic valves, history of endocarditis, congenital heart disease, cardiac transplant, valvular disease

NO prophylactic antibiotics needed for G.I., GU, ASD, MV prolapse, orthodontic procedures
- Choice antimicrobials: amoxicillin 2 grams one hour prior to procedure

60
Q

Assessing Risk: CAD

A
  • aspirin: continue unless risk of hemorrhage outweighs risk of clotting
  • dual antiplatelet therapy: coordinate with surgeon
  • beta blocker: no longer advised for all high-risk patients, continue perioperative if they’re already taking, continue in vascular operations and at high cardiac risk
  • PCI/CABG/revascularization: for elective cases 30+ days post-intervention for bare metal stent, differ elective cases six months post intervention for drug eluding stent
61
Q

Assessing risk: CHF

A

Assess and optimize fluid status
- consider BNP trending
- trending monitor electrolytes
Inotropic agents PRN throughout the perioperative phases
Pulmonary support
Severely decreased LV function is an independent contributor to Perry up outcome and a long-term risk factor for death and patients undergoing a high-risk non-cardiac procedure

62
Q

Assessing risk: dysrhythmias

A

Dysrhythmia found in preop setting should be investigated into underlying disease
High level conduction abnormalities such as complete AV block will increase risk
- May necessitate a temporary or permanent transvenous pacing
- caution with beta blockers
Stable history of a fib/flutter usually doesn’t require modification of medical management other than the anticoagulation plan

63
Q

Assessing Risk: anticoagulation

A
  • warfarin: low risk for thromboembolic events, stop five days preop, Resume when hemostasis permits, no bridging
  • warfarin: high risk thromboembolic events, stopfive days preop, bridge with heparin drip for LMWH 2 days after stopping warfarin
  • other oral anticoagulants: hold anywhere from 2 to 6 doses depending on agent and creatinine clearance
64
Q

Pre-op management: Anemia

A
  • asymptomatic, hemodynamically stable CAD: transfused hemoglobin 7-8 g/dL
  • symptomatic (CP, hypotension/CHF): transfuse to hemoglobin 8 g/dL
65
Q

Pre-op management: Diabetics not requiring insulin

A
  • diet controlled DM: avoid glucose solutions preop, monitor blood glucose regularly preop
  • oral agent controlled DM 2: hold short acting meds day of surgery, hold longer acting meds (metformin, sulfonylureas) one day preop, infuse glucose containing IVF, monitor blood glucose regularly, consider SSI or insulin drip, transition from drip/SSI to PO meds as intake resumes
66
Q

Pre-op management: Diabetics requiring insulin

A
  • these patients include DM 1, DM 2 managed with insulin, DM 2 managed with PO undergoing major procedures
  • Hold/reduce HS dose of short acting insulin
  • Long acting insulin is may be continued
  • Monitor blood glucose regularly
  • use facility/organizational protocols for insulin
67
Q

Preop management: renal disease, chronic renal failure not requiring dialysis

A
  • optimize preop: baseline BUN/creatinine
    – optimize fluids/electrolytes: consider loop diuretics if needed, transfuse as needed to optimize H&H
    – need for postop dialysis?
68
Q

Preop management: renal disease, chronic renal failure on dialysis

A
  • Consult renal
  • determine dialysis adequacy, preop needs, postop dialysis timing, and med requirements
  • dialysis within 24 hours of procedure pre-op
  • careful management of fluids/electrolytes/transfusions
69
Q

Preop management: liver disease

A
  • determine acuity of liver disease (Child-Pugh or MELD)
  • optimize fluids/electrolytes/coags (vitamin K, cryo, FFP may be needed and are first line)
  • ascites: diuretics and aggressive removal preop, low sodium diet preop, albumin repletion
  • encephalopathy: lactulose or rifaximin
  • pulmonary: pleurocentesis?
70
Q

Preop management: pulmonary

A
  • smoking cessation?: To truly reap benefit, they would have need to quit at least one month prior to surgery
  • antibiotics if purulent sputum production/clinically apparent infection
  • inspiratory muscle training plus good intensive patient education
  • confer with RT and pulmonary
    – bronchodilators are part of routine preop anesthesia management
71
Q

Preop management: pulmonary, asthma

A
  • optimize with systemic steroids if peak flow and FEV1 less than 80% predicted or previous best
  • previous steroid management within the last six months?: Need stress-dose coverage with Hydrocortizone 100 mg IV every eight hours, rapid taper after 24 hours
72
Q

Pre-op management: pulmonary, COPD

A
  • bronchodilators, smoking cessation, antibiotics, chest physiotherapy
  • persistent wheezes? Steroids peri-op
73
Q

Preop management: adrenal insufficiency

A
  • Lack the adrenal stress response to surgery
  • do not stop steroids for surgery
    – Hydrocortizone IV 50-100 mg q8h for 24-48 hours, taper around 24 hours postop then transition back to PO
  • Tailor depending on the stress/risk/type of surgery