Week 2 - Structure and Function Flashcards

1
Q

What did advances in brain imaging allow for?

A

Noninvasive recordings of brain activity in normal, unimpaired humans.

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2
Q

Describe the method type, invasiveness, and brain property used for EEG/ERP?

A

method type: recording
invasiveness: non-invasive
Brain property used: electrical

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3
Q

Describe the method type, invasiveness, and brain property used for Single-cell recording.

A

method type: recording
invasiveness: invasive
Brain property used: electrical

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4
Q

Describe the method type, invasiveness, and brain property used for TMS.

A

method type: stimulation
invasiveness: non-invasive
Brain property used: electromagnetic

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5
Q

Describe the method type, invasiveness, and brain property used for MEG.

A

method type: recording
invasiveness: non-invasive
Brain property used: magnetic

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6
Q

Describe the method type, invasiveness, and brain property used for PET.

A

method type: recording
invasiveness: invasive
Brain property used: hemodynamic

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7
Q

Describe the method type, invasiveness, and brain property used for fMRI.

A

method type: recording
invasiveness: non-invasive
Brain property used: hemodynamic

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8
Q

What species have the largest brain?

A

whales

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9
Q

what species has the largest brain to body ratio?

A

Ants and treeshrew

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10
Q

What species has the most folds in the brain?

A

dolphins

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11
Q

What species has the most neurons?

A

Elephants

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12
Q

Humans have the highest number of neurons in
the __________ _________?

A

cerebral cortex

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13
Q

Humans have more ____________ relative to brain size.

A

white matter (axonal
connections)

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14
Q

The ________________ is
disproportionately large in humans, relative to
brain size.

A

prefrontal cortex (PFC)

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15
Q

The fundamental units of the nervous system.

A

Neurons

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16
Q

The human brain contains approximately what number of neurons?

A

86 billion

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17
Q

What can change the number of neurons and connections overtime?

A

learning, experience, and neuroplasticity

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18
Q

Who proposed the neuron doctrine?

A

Ramon y Cajal

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19
Q

_________ receive, integrate, and transmit
information in the brain

A

Neurons

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20
Q

information is transmitted within neurons via
_______________

A

action potentials

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21
Q

What are the 2 main cell types in the nervous system?

A

neurons and glial

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22
Q

Contains the nucleus,
which acts as the cell’s control center, integrating incoming signals and generating the output signal.

A

Cell Body (soma)

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23
Q

Branching fibers with protrusions (spines) that receive synaptic input.

A

Dendrites (input)

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24
Q

Tube-like nerve fiber that
transmits signals to other neurons.

A

Axon

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25
Q

Allow an axon to transmit signals to multiple
neurons.

A

Axon collaterals (output)

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26
Q

Small branches at the end of the axon where communication occurs.

A

Terminals (boutons)

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27
Q

3 types of neurons

A

sensory, interneuron/relay, motor

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28
Q

carry sensory info to the brain (from the receptors to the CNS)

A

sensory neurons

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29
Q

transmit between sensory and motor neurons (located in the CNS)

A

interneurons/ relay neurons

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30
Q

transmit to muscles and glands (From CNS to effector)

A

motor neurons

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31
Q

The nervous system that made up of the brain and spine

A

CNS (central nervous system)

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32
Q

Projection neurons, primarily excitatory.
Notable for their long apical
dendrite.

A

Pyramid cells

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33
Q

Interneurons—
axons don’t leave the cortex.
Can be excitatory or inhibitory,
but often inhibitory.

A

Stellate cells

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34
Q

cells that support and insulate neurons.

A

Glial cells

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35
Q

speeds up signaling, regulate
extracellular chemicals, and enable neurons to modify connections

A

Glial cells

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36
Q

Where are there equal numbers of glial cells and neurons?

A

In the CNS

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37
Q

Guide neuron migration during embryonic development.

A

Radial glial cells

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38
Q

What are the two main functions of myelin?

A
  1. Insulates axons from each other, preventing signal interference.
  2. Speeds up conduction, enabling efficient long-distance communication.
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39
Q

If a disease causes demyelination, what are some symptoms?

A

motor impairments, sensory deficits, cognitive dysfunction, vision problems, fatigue

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40
Q

Neurons receive input from
other neurons through the
_________.

A

dendrites

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41
Q

If the inputs are strong enough, what does the neuron do?

A

an electrical pulse is sent down the axon via electrical transduction.

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42
Q

An electrical pulse that is sent down the axon via electrical transduction.

A

action potential

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43
Q

Why are action potentials needed?

A

Because distance between dendrite and axon terminals too long for passive current conductance.

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44
Q

Synaptic transmission of
information from axon
terminal to next neuron is
usually through what?

A

chemical transduction at the synapse

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45
Q

What are the steps of neuronal signaling?

A
  1. Neurons receive input from other neurons through dendrites.
  2. neuron fires an action potential down the axon via electrical transduction.
  3. Synaptic transmission from the axon to other neuron through chemical transduction at the synapse
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46
Q

a brief reversal of the
resting membrane potential

A

action potential

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47
Q

the difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a neuron

A

Membrane potential

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48
Q

At rest, the inside of the neuron is more
___________ than the outside.

A

negative

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49
Q

Typical neuron’s resting potential is ________.

A

-70mV

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50
Q

a bilayer of fatty lipid molecules

A

Neuronal membrane

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51
Q

What does the neuronal membrane prevent from crossing?

A

ions, except at ion channels and pumps

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52
Q

an atom with positive or
negative charge

A

ion

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53
Q

Resting membrane potential results from what?

A

asymmetrical ion distribution

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54
Q

What ions are outside of the neuron during resting membrane potential?

A

Na⁺, Ca²⁺, and Cl⁻ outside the
neuron

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55
Q

What ions are inside of the neuron during resting membrane potential?

A

K⁺ inside the neuron

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56
Q

Resting potential of -70mV arises from an what?

A

unequal distribution of ions inside vs. Outside the neuron (extracellular space)

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57
Q

specialized structures with a pore that can
open, close or inactivate.

A

ion channels

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58
Q

What are the two ways ions flow across channels?

A
  1. Diffusion (concentration gradients)
  2. Electrical gradients
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59
Q

Define diffusion of ions

A

ions move ions
from high -> low concentration to reach
equilibrium

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60
Q

Define electrical gradients for ions

A

ions are attracted by
opposite charges and repelled by like charges.

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61
Q

At rest, what happens to ion channels?

A

Sodium (Na⁺) channels are closed, while
Potassium (K⁺) crosses very slowly

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62
Q

consume energy (ATP) to move ions against concentration gradients

A

ion pumps

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63
Q

Critical for preserving the resting membrane potential

A

Na⁺/K⁺ pump

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64
Q

How many K⁺ ions and Na⁺ ions does a Na/K pump move? Also, specify which neurons are going inside/outside.

A

Moves 2 K⁺ inside for every 3 Na⁺ moved outside

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65
Q

ANa⁺/K⁺ pump maintains higher K⁺ concentration
__________ and higher Na⁺ concentration
____________.

A

Inside, outside

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66
Q

How to maintain resting membrane potential?

A
  • More Na⁺, Ca²⁺, and Cl⁻ outside the neuron
  • More K⁺ inside the neuron
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67
Q

a brief change in the polarity of the electrical charge across the membrane

A

action potential

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68
Q

Signaling from another neuron or a
stimulus can do what?

A

initiate an action potential.

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69
Q

What must happen for an action to have the potential to occur?

A

Depolarization must exceed the threshold of excitation (typically ~15 mV above resting potential).

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70
Q

Neurons either fire completely or not at
all:

A

all-or-nothing” principle

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71
Q

a model of action
potential generation

A

Hodgkin-Huxley cycle

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72
Q

Describe the 1st stage of the Hodgkin-Huxley cycle?

A

Depolarization of membrane to -55 mV → voltage-gated Na+ channels open

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73
Q

Describe the 2nd stage of the Hodgkin-Huxley cycle?

A

Na+ influx rapidly increases membrane potential, leading to a spike at +40 mV

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74
Q

Describe the 3rd stage of the Hodgkin-Huxley cycle?

A

Repolarization: Na+ channels close, voltage-gated K+ channels open → dominant permeability switches back to K+

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75
Q

Describe the 4th stage of the Hodgkin-Huxley cycle?

A

Efflux of K+ pushes membrane potential below resting level (hyperpolarization/undershoot)

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76
Q

Describe the 5th stage of the Hodgkin-Huxley cycle?

A

Return to resting potential

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77
Q

The decision point
for generating an action potential

A

Axon Hillock

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78
Q

If threshold is reached, an action potential fires at full strength; if not, no action potential occurs.

A

All or none response

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79
Q

A signal is actively regenerated along the axon by what?

A

voltage-gated ion channels

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80
Q

What does the regeneration of a signal along the axon prevent?

A

signal loss over distance.

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81
Q

What depolarizes the surrounding membrane after an action potential is generated at the axon hillock?

A

the influx of positive charge

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82
Q

What brings the membrane
just ahead of the action potential to
threshold?

A

passive current flow

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83
Q

What does bringing the membrane ahead of an action potential to threshold result in?

A

-> voltage-gated channels open
-> action potential propagates

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84
Q

What prevents backflow?

A

Refractory period and
hyperpolarization

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85
Q

What does preventing backflow ensure?

A

the action potential moves only down the axon.

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86
Q

What would happen to neural signaling if there was no refractory period?

A

The refractory period prevents immediate reactivation of voltage-gated Na⁺ channels, ensuring unidirectional propagation.
* Without it, neurons could continuously fire action potentials, leading to excessive excitability (e.g., seizures).
* Signal timing would be disrupted, making it difficult for neurons to encode information properly.

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87
Q

What are two factors that affect the speed of action potentials?

A
  1. Axon diameter
  2. myelination
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88
Q

Larger axon = _______

A

faster conduction

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89
Q

How does myelination affect the speed of an action potential?

A

it insulates the axon and speeds up transmission

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90
Q

Gaps in myelin where voltage-gated ion channels
regenerate the signal

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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91
Q

Action potentials jump from node to node, reducing energy use and increasing
conduction speed

A

Saltatory Conduction

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92
Q

The region of contact where a neuron transfers information to another cell

A

Synapse

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93
Q

The axon’s output synapsing onto another neuron

A

Presynaptic Neuron

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94
Q

The receiving neuron, typically at the dendrites

A

Postsynaptic Neuron

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95
Q

Between neuron transmission is (typically)
__________.

A

chemical

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96
Q

Neurotransmitters are responsible for?

A

sending nerve signals across the synapse

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97
Q

Neurotransmitters diffuse from the __________ _________across the synapse

A

presynaptic cell

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98
Q

Neurotransmitters bind to the __________ ________.

A

postsynaptic membrane

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99
Q

What are the key features of chemical transmission?

A
  • common & numerous
  • slower than electrical (1 3ms)
  • unidirectional (pre- to post-synaptic)
  • flexible, allowing for inhibitory vs. excitatory connections
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100
Q

Explain the steps of chemical synaptic transmission.

A

First, an Action potential propagates to the axon terminal.
1. Action potential opens voltage-gated Ca+ channels
2. Ca+ influx triggers vesicles in presynaptic neuron to bind to the membrane.
3. neurotransmitter is released into synaptic cleft via exocytosis
4. Neurotransmitter binds to receptor molecules in postsynaptic membrane

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101
Q

What are the two ways neurotransmitters bind to receptors?

A
  1. Ionotropic receptors
  2. Metabotropic Receptors
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102
Q

Directly open ion channels, causing fast responses.

A

Ionotropic Receptors

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103
Q

Activate indirect signaling cascades, causing slower but longer-lasting effects.

A

Metabotropic Receptors

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104
Q

Where are neurotransmitters synthesized and stored?

A

Presynaptic cell

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105
Q

Neurotransmitters bind to different postsynaptic receptors; what does this mean?

A

They can increase or decrease firing depending on the receptor type

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106
Q

___________ is the most common excitatory
neurotransmitter in the brain

A

Glutamate

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107
Q

Neurotransmitter binding is temporary. What does this mean?

A

It must be removed for new signals to transmit.

108
Q

What are the 3 primary clean-up mechanisms for neurotransmitter removal?

A
  1. Degradation
  2. Diffusion
  3. Reuptake
109
Q

Neurotransmitter moves out of synapse following its concentration gradient.

110
Q

enzymes break down
neurotransmitters into inactive components.

A

Degradation

111
Q

Transport proteins pull
neurotransmitter back into the presynaptic
neuron (or sometimes postsynaptic cell) for
recycling or storage

112
Q

What effects might a drug that enhances neurotransmitter released at
excitatory synapses have on behavior and cognition?

A
  • Increased excitatory neurotransmitter release would lead to stronger or more frequent postsynaptic activation, which could enhance learning and memory in some contexts.
  • However, excessive excitatory activity could lead to overstimulation, possibly causing anxiety, hyperactivity, or even excitotoxicity (neuronal damage due to overactivation).
  • This mechanism underlies ADHD stimulants, which increase dopamine and glutamate release, boosting cortical excitability to
    enhance attention and working memory
113
Q

What does neurotransmitter binding to the postsynaptic
receptors change?

A

changes the membrane potential

114
Q

Positive ions flow into the cell

A

EPSP (Excitatory postsynaptic potential)

115
Q

Neuron more likely to
fire an action potential. It also makes the cell less negative

A

Depolarization

116
Q

positive ions flow out (or negative ions flow in)

A

IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential)

117
Q

Neuron less likely to fire. Also makes the cell more negative.

A

Hyperpolarization

118
Q

What does EPSPs cause?

A

Depolarization

119
Q

What does IPSPs cause?

A

hyperpolarization

120
Q

Gap junctions physically connect two neurons, allowing direct communication between their cytoplasm

A

Electrical synaptic transmission

121
Q

Permits fast, synchronized signaling, where electrical changes in one neuron directly affect another.

A

Electrical synaptic transmission

122
Q

Electrical synaptic transmission is fast but less plastic compared to chemical synapses; what does this mean?

A

It doesn’t adapt like
chemical synapses.

123
Q

Electrical Synaptic transmission is less common but found in?

A

circuits requiring precise synchronization.

124
Q

What circuits might electrical synapse signaling be particularly important for?

A
  • reflex circuits
  • rhythmic activities
  • coordinated motor movements
  • sensory processing
125
Q

Explain the entire process of neurons sending signals to one another.

A
  • Cumulative inputs to dendrites drive depolarization of the cell →
  • Action potential is triggered at the axon hillock →
  • Action potential propagates along the axon via electrical conduction →
  • Chemical transmission occurs at the synapse between pre- and postsynaptic neurons →
  • Information is passed to the next neuron, continuing the signal
126
Q

Signals that arrive at the
same location in quick
succession.

A

Temporal summation

127
Q

Signals that arrive at
different dendritic
branches and converge at
the soma.

A

Spatial summation

128
Q

What can IPSPs add up to?

A

Temporal and spatial summation

129
Q

“control center,” made up of the brain and spinal cord

130
Q

”courier”, includes the sensory nerves, motor nerves, ganglia (nerve cell bodies). (made up of nerves that branch out from the spinal cord)

131
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of PNS?

A
  1. Somatic
  2. Autonomic
132
Q
  • Interact with the external world
  • Neurons send messages
    between sense periphery and CNS
  • Voluntary muscle control
  • e.g., kick a ball, raise your arm
A

Somatic nervous system

133
Q
  • Regulating internal world
  • Neurons control heart,
    intestines, and organs
  • Automated, visceral functions
  • e.g., digest food, response to seeing something scary /
    threat
A

Autonomic nervous system

134
Q

What type of neurons are input to the CNS?

135
Q

What type of neurons are output from the CNS?

136
Q

What do afferents do for the somatic (external) nervous system?

A

Brings sensory input from
skin, muscles, joints to CNS:
touch, pain, temperature,
position

137
Q

What do efferents do for the somatic (external) nervous system?

A

sends motor commands to
voluntary muscles to contract
and relax

138
Q

What do afferents do for the automatic (internal) nervous system?

A

Brings sensory input from internal organs to CNS: mechanical stress, inflammation

139
Q

What do efferents do for the automatic (internal) nervous system?

A

Sends signals to organs to stimulate & regulate function (e.g., heart rate, digestion)

140
Q

What are the two modes of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

141
Q

The balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic does what?

A

maintains homeostasis; allowing the body to adapt to changing demands

142
Q
  • Activates body to react to threats or opportunities
  • Increases respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure
  • Redirects blood flow from
    digestive organs to muscles
A

Sympathetic

143
Q
  • Shifts body to recovery mode when no urgent demands
  • Decreases respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure
  • Redirects blood flow to digestive system for energy replenishment
A

Parasympathetic

144
Q

What are the CNS divisions of an early embryo?

A
  1. Prosencephalon
  2. Mesencephalon
  3. Rhombencephalon
  4. Spinal cord
145
Q

Prosencephalon

146
Q

Mesencephalon

147
Q

Rhombencephalon

148
Q

What are the CNS divisions of an late embryo?

A
  1. Telencephalon
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Mesencephalon
  4. Metencephalon
  5. Myelencephalon
149
Q

What is the prosencephalon composed of?

A

Telencephalon and diencephalon

150
Q

What is the Rhombencephalon composed of?

A

Metencephalon and myelencephalon

151
Q

When the brain matures (adult), what is the Mesencephalon composed of?

A
  1. cerebral peduncles
  2. midbrain tectum
  3. midbrain tegmentum
152
Q

When the brain matures (adult), what is the Telencephalon composed of?

A

cerebral hemisphere (cerebral cortex, subcortical white matter, basal ganglia, basal forebrain nuclei)

153
Q

When the brain matures (adult), what is the Diencephalon composed of?

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

154
Q

When the brain matures (adult), what is the Metencephalon composed of?

A

pons and cerebellum

155
Q

When the brain matures (adult), what is the Myelencephalon composed of?

156
Q

TRUE OF FALSE: all mammals have all vertebrates, but not a cerebral cortex

A

FALSE; All mammals have a cerebral cortex, but not all vertebrates.

157
Q

In birds and reptiles, the __________ is considered the
the evolutionary correlate of the cortex.

158
Q

Rostral

A

front (toward the mouth)

159
Q

Caudal

A

back (toward the tail)

160
Q

Anterior

A

Toward the front

161
Q

Posterior

A

toward the back

162
Q

Dorsal

A

the top of the brain/ the back of the body

163
Q

Ventral

A

the bottom of the brain/ toward the belly of the body

164
Q

Superior

A

toward the top (above)

165
Q

Inferior

A

toward the bottom

166
Q

Medial

A

toward the middle

167
Q

Lateral

A

toward the side

168
Q

Sagittal

A

cuts the brain to a left and right hemisphere (dorsal/ventral +
anterior-posterior)

169
Q

Axial (horizontal)

A

cuts the brain to a top and bottom half (anterior-posterior +
lateral-medial)

170
Q

Coronal

A

cuts the brain into a front and back portion (dorsal/ventral +
lateral-medial)

171
Q

How many layers is the cerebral cortex divided into?

A

6 layers of nerve cells

172
Q

What is the layer 4 of the cortical layers?

A

the main input layer

173
Q

The primary motor cortex is a part of what cortical layer?

A

Underdeveloped layer 4 (minimal sensory input)

174
Q

The primary visual cortex is a part of what cortical layer?

A

Expanded layer 4 (high sensory input processing)

175
Q

How many cytoarchitectonic areas are there?

176
Q

Where is the brainstem located?

A

beneath the cortex, forming the connection between the spinal cord and higher brain regions

177
Q

What is the function of the brainstem?

A
  • Acts as a communication hub, relaying signals between
    the spinal cord and anterior brain regions.
  • Controls vital autonomic functions, including heart rate, respiration, and sleep.
  • Manages sensory, motor, somatic, and visceral functions.
  • Supports complex reflexes, such as the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR), which stabilizes vision during head movements.
178
Q

What does damage to the brainstem result in?

A
  • Severe disruption of autonomic functions (heart rate, breathing, consciousness).
  • Loss of motor control and coordination.
  • Impaired sensory processing.
  • Potential coma or life-threatening outcomes.
179
Q

What are the 3 main structures?

A
  1. medulla oblongata
  2. pons
  3. midbrain
180
Q

Where is the medulla oblongata located?

A

at the base of the brain right before the spine

181
Q

What part of the brainstem regulates respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure?

A

medulla oblongata

182
Q

Where is the pons located?

A

in the middle of the brainstem

183
Q

What part of the brainstem relays signals between the cerebellum and cerebrum?

184
Q

What part of the brainstem is involved in arousal, sleep, posture, and swallowing?

185
Q

Where is the midbrain located?

A

the most superior portion of the brainstem, the top portion of the brainstem

186
Q

What part of the brainstem controls sensation, movement, and visceral processing (e.g., arousal, pain management, locomotion)?

A

The midbrain

187
Q

Which part(s) of the brain supports cognition but does not perform cognitive functions directly?

A

medulla and pons

188
Q

What are the key midbrain structures?

A
  1. superior colliculus
  2. inferior colliculus
  3. periaqueductal gray matter
  4. reticular formation
  5. locus coeruleus
  6. substantia nigra
  7. raphe nuclei
189
Q

Function involves Visual
localization and eye movements

A

Superior colliculus

190
Q

Function involves sound localization and auditory reflexes

A

Inferior colliculus

191
Q

Function involves supporting complex locomotion

A

Periaqueductal gray matter

192
Q

Function regulates consciousness via a diffuse neural network

A

reticular formation

193
Q

Function sends alerting signals via norepinephrine, important for attention

A

Locus coeruleus

194
Q

Function is the primary dopamine source; critical for movement, cognition, motivation, and reward

A

Substantia nigra

195
Q

Function is the main serotonin source; supports emotional balance and regulates sleep

A

Raphe nuclei

196
Q

Which neurotransmitters originate from the brainstem nuclei?

A

Dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine

197
Q

Which neurotransmitters are more broadly distributed?

A

Glutamate, GABA, acetylcholine

198
Q

Modulate arousal, attention, mood, and
movement
* Shape synaptic plasticity and learning

A

Neurotransmitter systems

199
Q

Neurotransmitter systems dysfunction contributes to what disorders?

A

like Parkinson’s, depression, and ADHD

200
Q

Where are 80% of neurons located?

A

cerebellum

201
Q

Densely folded into folia, organized into lobules. Inputs primarily from brainstem nuclei.

A

Cerebellum

202
Q

What does the function of the cerebellum include?

A
  • Maintains balance and posture.
  • Coordinates voluntary movements with precise timing.
  • Involved in learning and refining motor sequences.
  • Supports aspects of cognition.
203
Q

What does damage to the cerebellum result in?

A
  • Ataxia (jerky, uncoordinated movements).
  • Overshooting or undershooting movement targets.
  • Impaired learning of new motor sequences.
204
Q

Describe the structure of the thalamus.

A

Deep subcortical structure, forming a major hub for
communication with the cerebral cortex and other brain regions.

205
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A
  • Channels incoming sensory information to appropriate cortical areas.
  • Relays motor signals from the cerebellum and basal ganglia to the motor cortex.
  • Processes information rather than just relaying it.
  • Higher-order thalamic regions support cognition, attention, consciousness, and awareness.
206
Q

What does damage to the thalamus result in?

A
  • Disruptions in sensory perception (e.g., loss or distortion of
    vision, touch, or proprioception).
  • Motor deficits due to impaired communication with motor
    structures.
  • Cognitive and attentional impairments.
  • Alterations in consciousness and awareness.
207
Q

How many specialized nuclei are in the thalamus?

A

30 specialized nuclei, each linked to a specific cortical area and function

208
Q

What are the sensory nuclei in the thalamus?

A

LGN, MGN, VPL/VPM

209
Q

What are the association nuclei in the thalamus?

A

Pulvinar, AN(t) and LD, MD

210
Q

What are the motor nuclei in the thalamus?

211
Q

Which part of the thalamus modulates thalamic activity?

A

Reticular nucleus

212
Q
  • Encapsulates thalamus, receives input only from thalamus
  • Does not connect directly with cortex
  • Exclusively inhibitory, modulating thalamic activity
A

Reticular nucleus

213
Q

What does the VL do?

A

deals with motor coordination (relays from cerebellum and basal ganglia)

214
Q

What does the Pulvinar deal with?

A

attention and visual orienting

215
Q

What does the AN(t) and LD deal with?

A

memory and emotion

216
Q

What does the MD deal with?

A

executive functions

217
Q

What does the LGN deal with?

A

vision (projects to V1)

218
Q

What does the MGN deal with?

A

audition (projects to A1)

219
Q

What does the VPL/VPM deal with?

A

somatosensory processing

220
Q

Describe the structure of the basal ganglia.

A
  • Group of nuclei deep in the brain
  • Intricately connected with the cortex, especially frontal
    regions
  • Pathways regulate the initiation and suppression of movement
221
Q

Describe the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Supports movement, cognition, planning, motivation, and reward
* Controls limb/eye movements, goal-setting, and habit formation

222
Q

What does damage to the basal ganglia result in?

A

Parkinsons, huntingdons, OCD, schizophrenia, addiction

223
Q

Tremors, rigidity, difficulty initiating movement (dopamine loss)

A

Parkinson’s disease

224
Q

Uncontrolled movements, cognitive decline

A

Huntington’s disease

225
Q

Repetitive behaviors, impaired impulse control

226
Q

Cognitive/motivational deficits (dopamine dysregulation)

A

Schizophrenia

227
Q

Compulsive behaviors from altered reward processing

228
Q

What are the key structures of the basal ganglia?

A

Striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra, nucleus accumbens

229
Q

What are the subdivisions of the striatum?

A

caudate and putamen

230
Q

Deals with motor processes and associative learning as
well as decision making and social behaviors.

231
Q

What are the subdivisions of the globus pallidus?

A

external and internal

232
Q
  • modulates the inhibitory output of the Basal ganglia.
  • sends inhibitory signals to the thalamus and regulates voluntary movements
A

Globus Pallidus

233
Q

Regulates voluntary movement through modulating the output of the globus pallidus

A

Subthalamic nucleus

234
Q
  • produces dopamine
  • influences functioning of striatum
A

Substantia nigra

235
Q
  • part of ventral striatum
  • key role in reward, reinforcement, and addiction
A

Nucleus accumbens

236
Q

Describe the structure of the limbic system.

A

Interconnected network of brain regions including the hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus, and areas within the frontal and temporal lobes

237
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A
  • Integrates sensory and physiological signals to regulate emotions and behavior
  • Crucial for memory consolidation and linking emotions to stored experiences
  • Regulates survival-driven behaviors, such as fight-or-flight responses, feeding, and reproductive functions
238
Q

What does damage to the limbic system result in?

A
  • Memory impairments (hippocampal damage) affecting long-term
    memory formation
  • Emotional dysregulation (amygdala damage) leading to fear processing deficits or heightened aggression
  • Autonomic dysfunction (hypothalamus damage) affecting appetite, stress response, and hormonal balance
239
Q

Describe the function of the Hypothalamus.

A
  • Regulates homeostasis (hunger, thirst, temperature, arousal, sleep).
  • Monitors visceral signals, hormones, and blood chemistry to detect imbalances.
  • Controls the pituitary gland, regulating hormones for growth, metabolism, and reproduction.
  • Triggers compensatory responses to restore balance
240
Q

Describe the function of the amygdala.

A
  • Connects with cortex to shape motivation, goal-setting, and action planning
  • Influences autonomic and hormonal systems to regulate internal states
  • Processes external sensory input to generate emotional responses
241
Q

What are the two main nuclei of the amygdala?

A
  1. Basolateral
  2. Central
242
Q

main nucleus of the amygdala that deals with slower, cognitive emotional processing

A

Basolateral

243
Q

main nucleus of the amygdala that deal with faster, automatic responses (eg. fear, stress)

244
Q

Where is the hippocampus located?

A

Located in the medial temporal lobes, positioned between cortex and limbic structures

245
Q
  • Receives input from entorhinal cortex and outputs via fornix to mammillary bodies and hypothalamus
  • Essential for memory and learning
A

Hippocampus

246
Q

Encoding and recalling spatial layouts

A

Spatial navigation

247
Q

Storing experiences linked to time and place

A

Episodic memory

248
Q

Strengthen memories for long-term storage

A

Memory consolidation

249
Q

Largest and most complex part of the human brain
- Critical for advanced cognition
- present in all mammals, but highly expanded in humans

A

Cerebral cortex

250
Q

It holds the visual association area, the visual cortex

A

Occipital lobe

251
Q

It holds the auditory association areas, auditory cortex, olfactory cortex

A

Temporal lobe

252
Q

It holds the primary somatosensory cortex, the somatosensory association cortex

A

Parietal lobe

253
Q

It holds the primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex

A

The frontal lobe

254
Q

Describe the structure of the prefrontal cortex.

A

Prefrontal cortex located in the anterior frontal lobe, integrating sensory, limbic, and motor signals. Specialized subregions support different aspects of cognition, emotion, and behavior.

255
Q

Function of the prefrontal cortex

A
  • DLPFC involved in working memory, planning, and problem-solving.
  • VLPFC aids inhibitory control and semantic processing.
  • OFC regulates reward processing and impulse control.
  • MPFC contributes to self-referential thought and emotional regulation.
  • ACC monitors attention, conflict, and error detection.
256
Q

Damage to the prefrontal cortex results in?

A
  • DLPFC: impaired planning and cognitive inflexibility.
  • OFC: to poor impulse control and altered reward processing.
  • ACC: affects attention and emotional regulation.
  • MPFC: reduces self-awareness and social cognition, contributing to
    disorders such as schizophrenia and depression.
257
Q

rounded convolutions, the bumps on the surface of the brain

258
Q

grooves in between gyri

259
Q

Membranes that encase and
protect the brain and spinal cord, providing structural support and cushioning (protective layers of the brain).

260
Q

What are the 3 layers of the meninges (from inner to outer)?

A
  1. Pia mater
  2. Arachnoid mater
  3. Dura mater
261
Q

the delicate, inner
layer that closely follows the
brain’s surface.

262
Q

the middle, web-like layer filled with cerebrospinal fluid, which cushions the brain.

A

Arachnoid mater

263
Q

the thick, tough
outermost layer, providing a
strong protective barrier.

A

Dura mater

264
Q

The space between the arachnoid and the pia mater; it is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

A

Subarachnoid space

265
Q

What are the four interconnected cavities (ventricles)?

A

2 lateral ventricles, third ventricle, 4th ventricle

266
Q

Produces watery fluid called
CSF that cushions brain
and provides nutrients

A

ventricles